Foundations of Psychology Exam Practice Tests
Course Introduction
Foundations of Psychology introduces students to the core principles, theories, and methods that underpin the scientific study of human behavior and mental processes. The course explores key areas including biological bases of behavior, perception, learning, memory, cognition, development, motivation, emotion, personality, psychological disorders, and treatment, as well as social and cultural influences. Emphasis is placed on critical thinking, research methodologies, and the practical applications of psychological knowledge to everyday life. Through discussions and case studies, students gain a broad understanding of how psychological science seeks to explain and predict individual and group behavior.
Recommended Textbook
Introduction to Psychology 10th Edition by Rod Plotnik
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Chapter 1: Discovering Psychology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ____ approach emphasizes looking at the whole,rather than the sum of its parts.
A) behavioral
B) functionalism
C) Gestalt
D) psychoanalytic
Answer: C
Q2) Why is an autistic child likely to receive a diagnosis of reactive attachment disorder in South Korea?
A) There is no governmental money for treatment for autism.
B) It is a subtle message to parents about their role in the disorder.
C) Physicians lack the training to make a diagnosis of autism.
D) Autism is a very stigmatizing diagnosis.
Answer: D
Q3) About 70 years ago,a prevailing explanation of autism was:
A) cold parents
B) threatening unconscious feelings
C) biological causes
D) a lack of reinforcement in the child's school setting
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Psychology and Science
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Sample Questions
Q1) A(n)____ is a strong belief about future behavior that can affect the behavior so that the belief appears to have predicted it.
A) self-fulfilling prophecy
B) confounded experience
C) introspection
D) testimonial
Answer: A
Q2) Which organization has published a code of ethics of conduct for psychologists to follow when conducting research?
A) American Psychological Association
B) American Psychiatric Institute
C) Big Ten Conference
D) National Education Association
Answer: A
Q3) The effects of cough medicine illustrate the placebo effect.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 3: Brains Building Blocks
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the positive sodium ions rush inside the axon,the axon will:
A) enter the resting state
B) release a neurotransmitter
C) change its threshold
D) experience an action potential
Answer: D
Q2) The ____ keeps the neuron in working order and has specialized extensions that arise from it.
A) axon
B) myelin sheath
C) cell body
D) synapse
Answer: C
Q3) Using mirrors to treat phantom limb helps the patient to:
A) release endorphins
B) release nitric oxide
C) recreate a complete body image
D) rewire the remaining nerves in the stump
Answer: C
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Incredible Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your class is watching a video of a split-brain operation.You see the surgeon take a scalpel and sever a structure to disconnect the two hemispheres.Your friend asks you what the structure was that was being cut and you say the:
A) cerebellum
B) hypothalamus
C) corpus callosum
D) pituitary gland
Q2) Recent research indicates that the amygdala processes ____ differently in men and women.
A) intense emotional experiences
B) pain
C) language
D) boredom
Q3) The brain area that most distinguishes us from animals is the:
A) thyroid
B) cerebellum
C) pons
D) cortex
Q4) Discuss the impact that damage to the frontal lobe might have on an individual.
Q5) Describe the major divisions and subdivisions of the human nervous system.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Sensation
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Sample Questions
Q1) As you walk on campus,you suddenly recognize an old friend who is heading towards you.What point in the visual pathway is responsible for the creation of this meaningful image of an old friend?
A) rhodopsin
B) visual association areas
C) primary visual cortex
D) cornea
Q2) Information is transmitted from the eye to the brain through the:
A) fovea
B) cornea
C) optic nerve
D) retina
Q3) Conduction deafness involves conditions that:
A) interfere with transmitting vibrations from the tympanic membrane to the cochlea
B) are not improved by the use of a hearing aid
C) involve damage to the auditory receptor cells along the basilar membrane
D) are caused by damage to association areas
Q4) How do the trichromatic theory and opponent-process theory explain color vision?
Q5) Why can the inability to feel pain be fatal?
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Chapter 6: Perception
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Sample Questions
Q1) An explanation for why Western Caucasians tend to focus on eyes when looking at faces is that:
A) there was evolutionary pressure to make that adaptation
B) Western culture considers eye contact offensive
C) it is a biological predisposition
D) Western culture places value on eye contact
Q2) Linear perspective is a monocular depth cue.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A perceptual constancy is defined as the:
A) tendency for all persons to see the world in the same manner
B) ability for several different sensory images to form a perception at the same time
C) tendency to perceive things as unchanging, even though their physical appearance changes
D) ability to utilize only one sense, even though multiple sensations are being experienced
Q4) Describe the Ponzo illusion and then describe an explanation for it.Do the same for the illusion of the Ames room.
Q5) Describe how distance cues play a role in the moon illusion.
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Chapter 7: Sleep and Dreams
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your different levels of awareness of thoughts and feelings are called:
A) apnea
B) perception
C) identity
D) consciousness
Q2) "Your dad wears a mask to bed every night?" Which sleep disorder is he most likely to have?
A) insomnia
B) night terrors
C) sleepwalking
D) sleep apnea
Q3) Everyday our circadian clock gets reset by about:
A) 3 minutes
B) 18 minutes
C) 1 hour
D) 3 hours
Q4) Threat-simulation theory says that dreaming allows us to prepare for dangers.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the effects of sleep deprivation on the immune system.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Hypnosis and Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to Module Eight,which famous figure in psychology had a serious drug addiction?
A) Abraham Maslow
B) Ivan Pavlov
C) F. Skinner
D) Sigmund Freud
Q2) Psilocybin's effects on the nervous system are due to its:
A) excitatory influence on serotonin receptors
B) inhibitory action on dopamine receptors
C) similarity to cocaine with regard to chemical makeup
D) chemical structure resembling LSD
Q3) The best-known test for susceptibility to hypnosis is called the:
A) Stanford-Binet Scale of Hypnotic Susceptibility
B) Stanford Hypnotic Susceptibility Scale
C) Michigan Test of Hypnotic Persuadability
D) Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory
Q4) People who show age regression following hypnotism are usually faking.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe how caffeine consumption may appear to increase intelligence.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Classical Conditioning
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Sample Questions
Q1) "Whenever I smell that perfume,I think of my grandmother and all of the wonderful times we had together." This best illustrates:
A) systematic desensitization
B) mood-enhanced response
C) conditioned emotional response
D) preparedness
Q2) In Pavlov's study,the neutral stimulus was:
A) food
B) a tone (bell)
C) salivation
D) fear
Q3) When Pepsi and Coke are presented anonymously to subjects,most subjects prefer Pepsi.
A)True
B)False
Q4) According to stimulus substitution,the NS predicts the UCS.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is preparedness and how does it influence classical conditioning?
Q6) What is the role stimuli and responses play in the three kinds of learning?
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Operant and Cognitive Approaches
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Sample Questions
Q1) Define positive reinforcement and negative reinforcement,as well as providing an example for each.
Q2) The administration of a spank will be most effective when it is:
A) applied immediately after the unwanted behavior
B) administered mildly and gradually increased
C) included with signs of caring such as attention
D) not used in conjunction with a time-out procedure
Q3) What do positive reinforcement,negative reinforcement,positive punishment,and negative punishment all have in common?
A) They are all examples of responses used in classical conditioning.
B) They all increase the chances that behavior will be repeated.
C) All of them are consequences in operant conditioning.
D) They all decrease the chances that behavior will be repeated.
Q4) Time out removes a misbehaving child from an opportunity for reinforcement.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Compare and contrast positive reinforcement with positive punishment and negative reinforcement with negative punishment.
Q6) Discuss how a dolphin could be trained to locate mines in the water.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Types of Memory
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Sample Questions
Q1) On an exam,a student is asked to describe the three branches of government.The student must retrieve:
A) procedural knowledge
B) episodic knowledge
C) semantic knowledge
D) hierarchical knowledge
Q2) What is a type of memory that allows information to be held for a short period of time until you decide what to do with it?
A) short-term memory
B) long-term memory
C) sensory memory
D) iconic memory
Q3) Of the following,which is not a function of sensory memory?
A) prevents being overwhelmed
B) gives decision time
C) allows for rehearsal of information
D) provides stability, playback, and recognition
Q4) Semantic and episodic memories are examples of declarative memory.
A)True
B)False
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Remembering and Forgetting
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the overall conclusion,based on three different studies of the memories of Asian and Euro-American participants described in the text?
A) Asians, due to their collectivist cultures, are more oriented toward procedural memories than Euro-Americans.
B) Asians, due to their individualistic cultures, are more oriented toward autobiographical memories than Euro-Americans.
C) Asians may perceive the world as having more discrete events, and therefore recall more episodic memories than Euro-Americans.
D) Asians may perceive the world as having fewer discrete events, and therefore recall fewer episodic memories than Euro-Americans.
Q2) Why should courts be skeptical of eyewitness testimony? Include the three problems of eyewitness testimony described in Module 12.
Q3) The peg method is a mnemonic encoding technique that creates:
A) visual associations between memorized places and items to be memorized
B) associations between number-word rhymes and items to be memorized
C) larger groups out of individual items
D) more effective sensory memory
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Intelligence
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Sample Questions
Q1) What historical figure is most closely associated to the g-factor theory of intelligence?
A) Clarence Thomas
B) Charles Spearman
C) Alfred Binet
D) Lewis Terman
Q2) Which of the following IQ tests for children has a similar test for adults?
A) the Binet-Simon test
B) the Stanford-Binet test
C) the Wechsler test
D) the Tolman test
Q3) Terman's longitudinal studies of gifted individuals indicated that,compared to the general population,gifted individuals:
A) suffer more ill health
B) have more emotional problems and hospitalizations
C) tend to be better adjusted
D) show no significant differences
Q4) Validity refers to a test's ability to measure what it is supposed to measure.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Thought and Language
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would be the most accurate title of a newspaper article describing dolphins' use of language?
A) "Dolphins communicate to each other using abstract symbols"
B) "Dolphins possess language comprehension"
C) "Studies show dolphins' ability to create novel sentences"
D) "Science shows dolphins apply rules of grammar"
Q2) One function of concepts is that they allow us to:
A) form heuristics
B) relearn new things
C) more accurately predict how other people will behave
D) group things into categories and then effectively organize them in memory
Q3) Research has found that the processes of forming prototypes and matching things to prototypes:
A) go on at a conscious level
B) go on at an unconscious level
C) are influenced by grades in school
D) are influenced by the proficiency of one's memory system
Q4) A sudden grasp of a solution is called insight.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Motivation
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to the biosocial theory,males and females have different roles because:
A) of genetic differences
B) social and cultural forces dictate these differences
C) evolutionary pressures
D) these roles helped the species survive
Q2) Describe the genetic/biological factors involved in homosexuality.
Q3) You are doing a Google search for information related to biological hunger factors.Which set of search words would you use?
A) genetics, heredity, set point
B) depression, body image
C) sociocultural, personality
D) blood chemistry, digestion, peripheral cues, CCK
Q4) Bethany is nearing puberty.What role will the hormone kisspeptin play in her life?
A) It is preparing the body for reproduction.
B) It will stimulate the release of PYY.
C) It is preparing the body for the production of leptin.
D) It will stimulate the release of dopamine.
Q5) Discuss peripheral and central cues for hunger.
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Chapter 16: Emotion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Feedback from facial muscles can cause emotions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) You are playing a card game with your friends.You don't know if one of them is about to win,because of his poker face.Which of the following components of an emotion does poker face best illustrate?
A) appraising a stimulus
B) subjective feeling
C) overt behavior
D) physiological responses
Q3) Explain the optimal level of arousal for a difficult psychology test and an easy psychology test according to the Yerkes-Dodson law.
Q4) If William James of the James-Lange theory was here talking to you as you're taking the test,he would say:
A) "You're anxious because you're taking a very important test."
B) "You're anxious because you're sweating and have a rapid heart rate."
C) "You're anxious because this is a hard test."
D) "You're anxious because you interpret this situation as anxiety-provoking."
Q5) What roles do the amygdala and prefrontal cortex play in detecting emotions?
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Chapter 17: Infancy Childhood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Professor Rose's most recent book describes the changes seen in the drawings of children from four to 10 years of age.Professor Rose is most likely a:
A) developmental psychologist
B) behavioral psychologist
C) humanistic psychologist
D) biological psychologist
Q2) A disadvantage of the cross-sectional method is that:
A) subjects tend to drop out of the study
B) it is difficult to track people over several years
C) it prevents the study of people across their life spans
D) it does not examine the development in each person over time
Q3) During the embryonic period:
A) the ovum is fertilized
B) the zygote attaches itself to the wall of the uterus
C) cells divide and differentiate into bone, muscle, and organs
D) the fetus is born
Q4) There is no safe level of alcohol use during pregnancy.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Infancy Childhood Part II
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Q1) Describe the reasons Judith Harris concluded that parents have less effect on children's development than peers.
Q2) What are teratogens,and why is development in the fetal stage most susceptible to them?
Q3) Describe the proximodistal and cephalocaudal principles of development.
Q4) Describe the effects of smoking and alcohol on prenatal development.
Q5) Why is the nature-nurture issue such an important question?
Q6) What is resiliency? Describe the factors that contribute to it.
Q7) According to Piaget,what are the four stages of cognitive development?
Q8) Present a summary of the sensory abilities of vision,hearing,and smell of a newborn.
Q9) Describe the significant changes in germinal,embryonic,and fetal stages of prenatal development.
Q10) Explain the principle of bidirectionality in describing the interaction between a parent and an abused child.
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Page 20
Chapter 18: Adolescence and Adulthood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your great Aunt Lorelii says to always focus on the good things about a person.This best illustrates:
A) conventional bias
B) postconventional thinking
C) positivity bias
D) resiliency
Q2) Tom and Cathy are college students who have begun thinking about marriage.In selecting his potential wife,Tom is likely to be more concerned about his future mate's ____ than Cathy is concerned about it in her potential future mate.
A) intelligence
B) physical attractiveness
C) earning capacity
D) creativity
Q3) The one variable that appears to have the most significant effect on committing suicide among the elderly is:
A) depression
B) loss of a loved one
C) psychological problems
D) prescription-drug related
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Page 21
Chapter 19: Psychoanalytic and Humanistic Theories
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Sample Questions
Q1) Craig's father says,"I'll really love you if you get A's in all your subjects at school."
According to Carl Rogers,this statement would be an example of:
A) a cognition
B) parental blindness
C) unconditional positive regard
D) conditional positive regard
Q2) With the growth of positive psychology,more and more attention is being given to ______.
A) humanistic ideas
B) Freudian ideas
C) social cognitive ideas
D) behavioral ideas
Q3) Academic success among Indo-Chinese children is primarily due to:
A) genetic differences
B) low rates of poverty among Indo-Chinese refugees
C) high percentages of Indo-Chinese adults with college degrees
D) cultural and personal values taught by the family
Q4) What roles do the ideal self and real self play in Rogers' theory?
Q5) What are the major criticisms of Freud's theory?
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Chapter 20: Social and Cognitive and Trait Theories
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Q1) What are the four cognitive processes in Albert Bandura's social cognitive theory?
A) memory, schemas, operant conditioning, and observational learning
B) self-actualization, self-efficacy, locus of control, and classical conditioning
C) language ability, observational learning, purposeful behavior, and self-analysis
D) language ability, gender roles, paradigms, and schemas
Q2) As Roger attempts to think about his personality,he remembers what he read once: "Your personality is shaped by the environment,cognitive/personal factors,and behavior."
In what source did Roger most likely read that?
A) The Handbook of Psychodynamic Theory
B) Maslow's Essays on Being Human
C) The Hitchhiker's Guide to Social Cognitive Theory
D) The Id, Ego, and Superego
Q3) One of the best-known objective tests for personality is the:
A) Thematic Apperception Test
B) Rorschach inkblot test
C) Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory-2
D) Locus of Control Inventory
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Page 23
Chapter 21: Health,stress and Coping
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Sample Questions
Q1) Aaron really wanted to go out with this very attractive woman,but he was turned down.He feels totally rejected and depressed.Aaron is most likely to have experienced a:
A) negative appraisal
B) challenge appraisal
C) stressful primary appraisal
D) positive primary appraisal
Q2) Social support helps us to ____ in order to minimize the effects of stress.
A) develop hardiness
B) use sublimation
C) embrace Type D coping skills
D) exchange helpful resources
Q3) Module 21 opens with a description of Luisa,who suffers from dizziness,shortness of breath,and dreading going to public places.Luisa suffers from:
A) Type D syndrome
B) social phobia
C) exhaustion
D) panic disorder
Q4) Describe what happens to the body during the fight-flight response.
Q5) Chronic stress can make you sick.How?
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Chapter 22: Assessment and Anxiety Disorders
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Q1) With regard to cause,the majority of individuals with phobias:
A) can remember a traumatic event that triggered their phobia
B) cannot remember a traumatic event that triggered their phobia
C) have brothers and sisters with similar irrational fears
D) have an abnormally high level of a protein in their nervous system
Q2) Sue told Paul that his habit of putting ketchup on all his food (including spaghetti and meatballs)was abnormal,as very few people engage in that kind of behavior.Her definition of abnormality depends on which of the following criteria?
A) delinquent behavior
B) maladaptive behavior
C) destructiveness
D) statistical frequency
Q3) Which of the following is not considered an anxiety disorder?
A) panic disorder
B) phobias
C) obsessive-compulsive disorder
D) dissociative identity disorder
Q4) Cognitive-behavioral therapy attempts to change thoughts and beliefs.
A)True
B)False
Page 25
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Chapter 23: Mood Disorders and Schizophrenia
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Q1) Why is the treatment of antisocial personality disorder so difficult in the long-term?
Q2) What effect do antidepressants have on the monoamines?
A) They increase the levels of monoamines.
B) They decrease the levels of monoamines.
C) They change the type of monoamines in the nervous system.
D) They destroy all traces of monoamines.
Q3) In treating depression,psychotherapy when compared to drugs:
A) reduces relapse
B) increases relapse
C) increases suicide risk
D) reduces mania
Q4) Transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS)may be preferred over ECT as a treatment for depression since TMS:
A) does not require anesthesia
B) triggers seizures on only one side of the body
C) causes memory loss for only the moments before and after treatment
D) is likely to be covered by insurance
Q5) What are the most effective treatments for depression and bipolar disorder?
Q6) Describe the genetic factors and psychosocial factors involved in depression.
Page 26
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Chapter 24: Therapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Short-term dynamic psychotherapy compresses the treatment time of traditional psychoanalysis from:
A) 5 sessions to 2 or 3 sessions
B) 60 sessions to 10 or 20 sessions
C) 100 sessions to 25 or 30 sessions
D) 600 sessions to 20 or 30 sessions
Q2) Professor White is writing a book to describe the mental hospitals of the late 1800s.Knowing what you do about that era,what title would you recommend to Professor White for her book?
A) Using Behavior Therapy in Mental Hospitals of the Late 1800s
B) Bloodletting as the Preferred Treatment in Mental Hospitals
C) Treatment for Mentally Disturbed Patients in the Late 1800s: Pleasant Settings
D) Snake Pits: "Caring" for the Mentally Ill in the Late 1800s
Q3) Psychoanalysis argues that the primary reason for the development of psychological problems and mental disorders is:
A) irrational thoughts and beliefs
B) a poor learning history
C) unconscious conflicts
D) lack of unconditional positive regard in the person's life
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Page 27
Chapter 25: Social Psychology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dr.Haines,a social neuroscientist,is asked to describe what happens neurologically when we experience empathy.What is the most likely description?
A) The reticular formation becomes more active.
B) The corpus callosum begins to limit the amount of messages being transferred between the two hemispheres.
C) There is an increase in activity in the brainstem.
D) Mirror neurons become activated.
Q2) Conserving time and effort through the use of cognitive shortcuts is essential to the: A) covariation principle
B) cognitive miser model
C) central route for persuasion
D) foot-in-the-door technique
Q3) "I don't eat black olives." This demonstrates the ____ component of an attitude. A) cognitive
B) affective
C) physiological
D) behavioral
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Chapter 25: Extenssion: Social Cognition and Behavior
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Sample Questions
Q1) An internal attribution would be an explanation based on the situation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Use real-life examples to illustrate the common biases we make in attribution.
Q3) Explain how we are cognitive misers in person perception and stereotypes.
Q4) A "good environment" cannot compensate for "bad genes."
A)True
B)False
Q5) The peripheral route uses facts,figures,and arguments to persuade.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Cognitive dissonance is an unpleasant feeling that motivates us to change.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Attributions are explanations for behaviors.
A)True
B)False
Q8) An attractive face is actually related to averaging many faces. A)True
B)False
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