Foundations of Psychology
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Foundations of Psychology introduces students to the scientific study of behavior and mental processes. The course covers key concepts, theories, and research methods that form the basis of psychological inquiry, including biological bases of behavior, sensation and perception, learning, memory, development, motivation, emotion, personality, and psychological disorders. Students will explore the historical evolution of psychology as a discipline and gain insight into its diverse subfields, such as cognitive, social, developmental, and clinical psychology. Emphasis is placed on critical thinking, ethical considerations, and the application of psychological principles to everyday life.
Recommended Textbook
Psychology in Modules 12th Edition by David
G. Myers
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2
Chapter 1: The History and Scope of Psychology
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Q1) Nature is to nurture as ________ is to _________.
A) behavior;mental processes
B) psychology;psychiatry
C) biology;experience
D) reason;emotion
Answer: C
Q2) Who was a student of William James and the first female president of the American Psychological Association?
A) Jean Piaget
B) Margaret Floy Washburn
C) Rosalie Rayner
D) Mary Whiton Calkins
Answer: D
Q3) The enduring traditions,attitudes,ideas,and behaviors shared by a large group of people constitute their
A) culture.
B) levels of analysis.
C) massed practice.
D) community psychology.
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Thinking Critically with Psychological Science
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Q1) When people's negative moods are at their worst,whatever they do to try to alleviate the condition is likely to be followed by an improvement in their mood rather than further worsening.This is best explained in terms of A) random assignment.
B) illusory correlation.
C) informed consent.
D) regression toward the mean.
Answer: D
Q2) In an experiment,the group that is not exposed to the treatment being tested is called the ________ group.
A) standardized
B) naturalistic C) placebo
D) control
Answer: D
Q3) Explain how research in psychological science is used to create,test,and verify or disprove various theories.
Answer: no answer
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4
Chapter 3: Research Strategies: How Psychologists Ask and
Answer Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Approximately what percentage of the cases represented by the normal curve fall between -1 and +1 standard deviations from the mean?
A) 16
B) 34
C) 68
D) 95
Answer: C
Q2) The most familiar measure of central tendency is the A) mode.
B) mean.
C) median.
D) standard deviation.
Answer: B
Q3) A sample average can be used to estimate a population average with greater precision if the sample is A) large.
B) a skewed distribution.
C) highly variable.
D) vivid and memorable.
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Neural and Hormonal Systems
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Q1) After three hours of playing a physically exhausting professional tennis match,Chitra began to experience feelings of exhilaration and pleasure.It is likely that her feelings were most directly linked to the release of A) dopamine.
B) acetylcholine.
C) endorphins.
D) growth hormones.
Q2) The endocrine gland that helps regulate the level of calcium in the blood is the A) hypothalamus.
B) parathyroid.
C) pancreas.
D) adrenal gland.
Q3) The selective permeability of a neural membrane enables the development of a A) myelin sheath.
B) resting potential.
C) neural network.
D) synaptic gap.
Q4) The basic building blocks of our neural information system are neurons.Explain what neurons are,how they work,and how they communicate or transmit information?
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Chapter 5: The Brain
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Q1) After Kato's serious motorcycle accident,doctors detected damage to his cerebellum.Kato is most likely to have difficulty
A) reading printed words.
B) understanding what others are saying.
C) tasting the flavors of foods.
D) playing his guitar.
Q2) Which brain structure receives information from all of the senses except smell?
A) hippocampus
B) amygdala
C) pons
D) thalamus
Q3) The amygdala,hypothalamus,and hippocampus are part of the A) brainstem.
B) limbic system.
C) reticular formation.
D) cerebral hemispheres.
Q4) Describe how damage to specific structures in your limbic system would likely affect your experience of (a)emotions such as anxiety and elation, (b)motives such as hunger and the sex drive,and (c)memories such as recall of familiar faces or locations.
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Chapter 6: Behavior Genetics and Evolutionary Psychology
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Q1) A monkey with electrodes implanted in its brain is able to move a computer cursor simply by thinking about the move.This brain-computer interface best illustrates the potential value of A) neural plasticity.
B) neurogenesis.
C) cognitive neural prosthetics.
D) constraint-induced therapy.
Q2) Regions of the cerebral cortex involved primarily in higher mental functions such as learning are called
A) the motor cortex.
B) the corpus callosum.
C) association areas.
D) the somatosensory cortex.
Q3) Which lobe is located behind your forehead?
A) frontal
B) parietal
C) occipital
D) temporal
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Chapter 7: Environmental Influences on Behavior, and
Reflections on Nature and Nurture
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Q1) Consciousness contributes to all of the following EXCEPT
A) reflecting on past experiences.
B) setting goals for the future.
C) being shocked by the present situation.
D) focusing our attention to learn complex tasks.
Q2) Most psychologists define consciousness as A) our subjective awareness of ourselves and our environment.
B) mental processes.
C) observations of behavior.
D) waking awareness and altered states of observation.
Q3) The only smiling face in a crowd of anxious-looking people may be so strikingly distinct that people cannot help but notice it.This best illustrates A) dual processing.
B) blindsight.
C) the cocktail party effect.
D) popout.
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9
Chapter 8: Prenatal Development and the Newborn
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Q1) Freud's wish-fulfillment theory of dreams emphasized A) memory consolidation.
B) providing the sleeping brain with stimulation.
C) the manifest and latent content of dreams.
D) brain maturation and cognitive development.
Q2) The rhythmic bursts of brain activity that occur during NREM-2 sleep are called A) alpha waves.
B) circadian rhythms.
C) sleep spindles.
D) delta waves.
Q3) Research studies of the content of dreams indicate that A) men are less likely than women to report dreams with sexual overtones.
B) the genital arousal that occurs during sleep is typically related to sexual dreams.
C) most dreams are marked by at least one negative event or emotion.
D) most dreams are pleasant,exotic,and unrelated to ordinary daily life.
Q4) Sam works a graveyard shift at his current place of employment and always feels tired and sleep deprived.Explain how this work pattern is affecting his circadian rhythm.
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Chapter 9: Infancy and Childhood
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Q1) Chemical substances that alter perceptions and moods are called ________ drugs.
A) neuroadaptive
B) disinhibiting
C) psychoactive
D) dehydrating
Q2) An altered state of consciousness in which people experience fantastic images and often feel separated from their body is most closely associated with the use of
A) heroin.
B) cocaine.
C) marijuana.
D) LSD.
Q3) A drug that leads people to behave impulsively and to lack normal restraint or self-control is said to act as a(n)
A) hallucinogen.
B) disinhibitor.
C) stimulant.
D) anesthetic.
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Chapter 10: Adolescence
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Q1) When a gene is activated,it provides the code for protein molecules.These molecules are the body's
A) blueprints.
B) transcript.
C) instruction manual.
D) building blocks.
Q2) Chromosomes are composed of
A) epigenetic molecules.
B) genomes.
C) protein molecules.
D) deoxyribonucleic acid.
Q3) If chronic child abuse alters a victim's gene expression in such a fashion as to trigger depression,this would be said to illustrate A) a reactive temperament.
B) an epigenetic effect.
C) high serotonin levels.
D) the building blocks of development.
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Chapter 11: Adulthood, and Reflections on Developmental Issues
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Q1) Suppose that men leave their wives to marry other women more frequently than wives leave their husbands to marry other men.Evolutionary psychologists would be most likely to explain this in terms of sex differences in
A) social scripts.
B) reproductive capacity.
C) income level.
D) body size.
Q2) Compared with women,men are ________ likely to feel comfortable about having casual sex with different partners and ________ likely to cite affection as a reason for their first sexual intercourse.
A) less;more
B) more;less
C) less;less
D) more;more
Q3) Of the following,who is likely to express the sexual overperception bias?
A) Brenda,who requires little emotional closeness before intercourse
B) Samantha,who requires commitment before intercourse
C) Teo,who requires little emotional closeness before intercourse
D) Raul,who requires commitment before intercourse
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Introduction to Sensation and Perception
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Q1) Cross-cultural research on human development indicates that A) differences among cultural groups largely reflect genetic differences among racial groups.
B) developmental processes are highly similar among individuals raised in different cultures.
C) differences among cultural groups are greater than person-to-person differences within cultural groups.
D) gender differences in behavior result from differences in biology rather than from differences in life experience.
Q2) Some individuals are transgender,meaning that their gender identity feels mismatched with their
A) sexual orientation.
B) birth-designated sex.
C) individualism.
D) gender schemas.
Q3) Discuss how gender differences in aggression,social power,and social connectedness are influenced by nature and nurture.Describe and justify the approaches that you would recommend to reduce the current gender differences in each of these areas.
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Chapter 13: Vision
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Sample Questions
Q1) An automatic response ideally suited for survival is called a
A) neural network.
B) synapse.
C) teratogen.
D) reflex.
Q2) Which of the following people is most likely to be convicted of a violent crime during emerging adulthood?
A) Mary,who was an introvert as a child
B) Brandon,who was an extravert as a child
C) Suan,who has always been a loner
D) Casey,who exhibited conduct problems as a child
Q3) Professor Conrad is a research specialist in the study of identity formation during adolescence.It is most likely that the professor is a ________ psychologist.
A) developmental
B) biological
C) psychodynamic
D) clinical
Q4) What are the three major issues in developmental psychology? Provide an example of each.
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Chapter 14: Hearing
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Q1) The Albertsons establish and enforce rules for their children to follow.They give reasons for the rules and invite their teenagers to join in the discussion when new rules are being made.Psychologists would characterize the Albertsons as ________ parents.
A) authoritarian
B) legalistic
C) authoritative
D) permissive
Q2) Parents who make few demands on their children and use little punishment are
A) authoritarian.
B) authoritative.
C) egocentric.
D) permissive.
Q3) If warmly supportive parents are especially likely to have children with high self-esteem,this most clearly indicates that
A) authoritative parenting is more effective than authoritarian parenting.
B) permissive parenting is more effective than authoritative parenting.
C) children's self-esteem stimulates warmly supportive parenting.
D) warmly supportive parenting and children's self-esteem are correlated.
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Chapter 15: Other Senses
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Q1) Research indicates that the high school girls who have the most affectionate relationships with their mothers also tend to
A) have the most intimate relationships with girlfriends. B) have somewhat less intimate relationships with girlfriends.
C) take longer than normal to establish their own independence and separate identity.
D) have difficulty forming intimate relationships with boys.
Q2) Menarche is a maturational milestone most directly associated with A) postconventional morality.
B) dual processing.
C) role confusion.
D) puberty.
Q3) The process of developing a sense of identity during adolescence was highlighted by
A) Erikson's psychosocial development theory.
B) Piaget's cognitive development theory.
C) Kohlberg's moral development theory.
D) the Harlows' attachment theory.
Q4) Explain the concept of social identity and provide an example.
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17
Chapter 16: Perceptual Organization
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Q1) Lewis is a 70-year-old retired college professor.In contrast to when he was 30,he now probably
A) needs more light when reading.
B) is more susceptible to catching the flu.
C) has significantly fewer neural connections.
D) has all of these problems.
Q2) Researchers studied the effects of exercise on the physical health of over 5000 residents in one locale throughout their middle and late adulthoods.The research best illustrates a ________ study.
A) working memory
B) cross-sectional
C) prospective memory
D) longitudinal
Q3) Alzheimer's disease involves a deterioration of neurons that produce
A) dopamine.
B) telomeres.
C) acetylcholine.
D) serotonin.
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Chapter 17: Perceptual Interpretation
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Q1) Sensation is the
A) transformation of sound and light into meaningful words and images.
B) detection and encoding of stimulus energies by sensory receptors and the nervous system.
C) organization and interpretation of environmental events.
D) conscious awareness of a familiar stimulus.
Q2) Desired objects,such as a bottle of water,seem closer when we are thirsty.This best illustrates the importance of A) sensory adaptation.
B) top-down processing.
C) subliminal persuasion.
D) prosopagnosia.
Q3) Many people calmly walked past an older gentleman lying on a city sidewalk without showing any concern.As a consequence,other passersby failed to perceive that the man was in need of immediate medical assistance.This best illustrates the importance of A) difference thresholds.
B) context effects.
C) sensory adaptation.
D) prosopagnosia.
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Chapter 18: Waking and Sleeping Rhythms
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Q1) The retinal image of an object decreases as the object retreats.This is especially important for perceiving the object's A) shape.
B) motion.
C) weight.
D) color.
Q2) The intensity of a light wave influences its A) length.
B) hue.
C) brightness.
D) height.
Q3) If the ________ of the temporal lobe is/are stimulated,a person might spontaneously see faces.
A) supercell clusters
B) fusiform face area
C) hippocampus
D) bipolar cells
Q4) Describe the Young-Helmholtz trichromatic theory and the opponent-process theory of color vision,and explain the solution to the color vision debate.
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Chapter 19: Hypnosis
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Q1) The brain,responding to the absence of auditory stimulation,may amplify irrelevant neural activity to produce
A) tinnitus.
B) kinesthesia.
C) sensory interaction.
D) psychokinesis.
Q2) By amplifying soft sounds but not loud sounds,digital hearing aids produce A) sensory interaction.
B) compressed sound.
C) clairvoyance.
D) tinnitus.
Q3) Research on susceptibility to hypnosis indicates that A) very few people can actually be hypnotized.
B) people who are most easily hypnotized usually have difficulty paying attention to their own personal thoughts and feelings.
C) how well a person responds to hypnotic suggestion depends primarily on the skill and experience of the hypnotist.
D) people who are highly responsive to hypnotic induction are especially imaginative.
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Chapter 20: Drugs and Consciousness
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Q1) When toddlers are classically conditioned to fear moving cars,they also become afraid of moving trucks and motorcycles.This best illustrates the process of A) spontaneous recovery.
B) observational learning.
C) generalization.
D) higher-order conditioning.
Q2) After getting a slight burn from the spark of a flickering campfire,Julie became afraid of getting close to lighted gas stoves.This best illustrates the adaptive value of A) observational learning.
B) spontaneous recovery.
C) generalization.
D) higher-order conditioning.
Q3) The process of acquiring new and relatively enduring information or behaviors is called A) association.
B) learning.
C) spontaneous recovery.
D) shaping.
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Chapter 21: Classical Conditioning
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Sample Questions
Q1) A conditioned reinforcer gains its reinforcing power through its link with a A) discriminative stimulus.
B) primary reinforcer.
C) delayed reinforcer.
D) respondent behavior.
Q2) Brandon is trying to train his dog to sit and roll over.He will be most successful if he rewards his dog based on
A) spontaneous recovery.
B) respondent behavior.
C) operant conditioning.
D) successive approximations.
Q3) Which of the following would be the most appropriate step in attempting to checking your progress on a behavior change?
A) State a realistic goal in measurable terms and announce it.
B) Decide how,when,and where you will work toward your goal.
C) Monitor how often you engage in your desired behavior.
D) Reinforce the desired behavior.
Q4) Compare and contrast operant and classical conditioning.
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Chapter 22: Operant Conditioning
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Q1) Latent learning can occur in the absence of A) reinforcement.
B) cognition.
C) experience.
D) any of these factors.
Q2) Copying an adult,young children will wave a stick over a box and then use the stick to push on a knob that opens the box when all they needed to do to open the box was to push on the knob.This best illustrates
A) operant conditioning.
B) prosocial behavior.
C) overimitation.
D) classical conditioning.
Q3) Sandy finds it harder to frown when watching her brother smile than when seeing him frown.Scientists are currently debating whether this can be attributed to the activation of
A) instinctive drift.
B) extrinsic motives.
C) mirror neurons.
D) cognitive maps.
Q4) Explain how biological constraints affect operant and classical conditioning.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Learning by Observation
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Q1) Effortful processing is to automatic processing as ________ is to ________.
A) encoding;retrieval
B) short-term memory;long-term memory
C) the spacing effect;the testing effect
D) explicit memory;implicit memory
Q2) Your activated but limited-capacity memory is called ________ memory.
A) short-term
B) implicit
C) shallow
D) explicit
Q3) The use of acronyms to improve one's memory of unfamiliar material best illustrates the value of
A) chunking.
B) mnemonics.
C) distributed practice.
D) the self-reference effect.
Q4) List the effortful processing strategies discussed in the text,and provide an example of each.When would each strategy be most useful?
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Chapter 24: Introduction to Memory
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Q1) Memories of newly learned ________ are most likely to be disrupted by damage to the right hippocampus.Memories of newly learned ________ are most likely to be disrupted by damage to the left hippocampus.
A) body coordination skills;classically conditioned fears
B) classically conditioned fears;body coordination skills
C) words;visual designs
D) visual designs;words
Q2) Repeated rehearsal of your teachers' lectures and reading assignments leads to lasting memories thanks to the neural process of A) ECT.
B) LTP.
C) encoding specificity.
D) priming.
Q3) Our tendency to recall the first items in a list is referred to as A) the recency effect.
B) the primacy effect.
C) implicit memory.
D) explicit memory.
Q4) Detail how emotions impact memory.Provide some real-life examples.
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Chapter 25: Encoding: Getting Information In
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Q1) When asked how they felt 10 years ago regarding marijuana issues,people recalled attitudes closer to their current views than to those they actually reported a decade earlier.This best illustrates
A) memory construction.
B) proactive interference.
C) anterograde amnesia.
D) positive transfer.
Q2) Some patients with anterograde amnesia have learned how to spot hard-to-find figures in the Where's Waldo? series without any conscious awareness that they can do so.This best illustrates their retention of ________ memories.
A) explicit
B) implicit
C) retroactive
D) working
Q3) Faulty memory for how,when,or where information was learned is called A) source amnesia.
B) the misinformation effect.
C) repression.
D) déjà vu.
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Chapter 26: Storage: Retaining Information
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Q1) People are very likely to decide to be organ donors when the default option on their renewable drivers' license forms is Yes,but they can choose to drop out.They are much less likely to decide to be organ donors if the default option on their license forms is No,but they can choose to opt in.This best illustrates the effects of A) framing.
B) overconfidence.
C) confirmation bias.
D) the availability heuristic.
Q2) Newlyweds' automatic gut reactions to their new spouses predict their future marital happiness.This best illustrates the informative value of A) algorithms.
B) intuition.
C) fixations.
D) divergent thinking.
Q3) Researchers have discovered that other species of animals can form concepts,experience flashes of insight,demonstrate self-consciousness,and transmit customs for tool use.Give an example of the techniques researchers have used to discover that animals have one of these abilities.
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Chapter 27: Retrieval: Getting Information Out
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Q1) The older a person is when moving to a new country,the harder it is to learn the language.This best illustrates the importance of ________ for learning language.
A) aphasia
B) a universal grammar
C) semantics
D) a critical period
Q2) When her teacher mentioned the arms race,Krista understood that the word "arms" referred to weapons and not to body parts.Krista's correct interpretation best illustrates the importance of
A) semantics.
B) syntax.
C) morphemes.
D) phonemes.
Q3) Noam Chomsky suggested that all human languages share a(n)
A) universal grammar.
B) neural network.
C) outcome simulation.
D) linguistic determinism.
Q4) Compare and contrast the language abilities of humans and nonhuman animals.
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Chapter 28: Forgetting, Memory Construction, and Applying
Memory Principles to Your Own Education
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Q1) Jill is great with animals.She cares for them deeply and seems to have a knack for interacting with them.Howard Gardner would most likely suggest that she is high in ________intelligence.
A) linguistic
B) bodily-kinesthetic
C) naturalist
D) existential
Q2) Although Susan is a brilliant pianist and highly acclaimed ballet dancer,her high school intelligence test scores were only average.What does Susan's experience suggest regarding the nature of intelligence.
Q3) Caleb had a high score on both the critical reading and mathematics sections of the SAT.He is an excellent map-reader and his reasoning abilities are fantastic.According to Spearman,what is likely underlying these abilities?
A) savant syndrome
B) factor analysis
C) general intelligence (g factor)
D) multiple intelligences
Q4) Describe the four abilities that constitute emotional intelligence,and give an example of each.
Page 30
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Chapter 29: Thinking
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Q1) About ________ percent of WAIS scores fall between 85 and 115.
A) 30
B) 50
C) 68
D) 96
Q2) The written exam for a driver's license would most likely be considered a(n)________ test.
A) achievement
B) reliability
C) aptitude
D) intelligence
Q3) When retested on the WAIS,people's second scores generally match their first scores quite closely.This indicates that the test has a high degree of A) reliability.
B) content validity.
C) eugenics.
D) predictive validity.
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Chapter 30: Language and Thought
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Q1) Jada began to read when she was 4 years old.Based on this information,what can we predict about her performance on the college aptitude test she will take as an eighth-grader?
A) She will score about the same as average female high school seniors.
B) She will score considerably lower than most high school seniors.
C) She will score considerably higher than most high school seniors.
D) We cannot predict college aptitude test performance using reading ability at age 4.
Q2) Intelligence scores are most likely to be stable over a one-year period for a(n) A) preschool student.
B) third-grade student.
C) fifth-grade student.
D) eleventh-grade student.
Q3) Those diagnosed with an intellectual disability score approximately 70 or below on an intelligence test and also demonstrate a limitation in A) hybrid vigor.
B) physical health.
C) adaptive behavior.
D) cross-sectional intelligence.
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Chapter 31: Introduction to Intelligence
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Q1) Identical twins Madison and Claire live with their biological parents.Madison scored 120 on an intelligence test he took when he was 12 years old.Claire took the same test.What would you predict Claire's score to be?
A) very close to 120
B) as dissimilar as the scores of siblings raised together
C) as dissimilar as the scores of siblings raised apart
D) It is impossible to compare the scores of identical twins raised together.
Q2) The distribution of intelligence test scores among ________ Americans is represented by the normal curve.
A) White
B) Hispanic
C) Black
D) members of any of these groups of
Q3) Brain scans reveal that identical twins' brains have ________ gray matter volume and ________ white matter volume.
A) similar;dissimilar
B) dissimilar;similar
C) similar;similar
D) dissimilar;dissimilar
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Page 33
Chapter 32: Assessing Intelligence
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Sample Questions
Q1) The tendency for optimal levels of performance to be associated with moderate levels of arousal is known as
A) drive-reduction.
B) homeostasis.
C) the Yerkes-Dodson law.
D) self-actualization.
Q2) According to ________,physiological needs (such as hunger and thirst)create an aroused state that drives us to reduce the need.
A) arousal theory
B) drive-reduction theory
C) hierarchy of needs theory
D) evolutionary theory
Q3) The relationship between various levels of arousal and effective task performance is described by
A) drive-reduction theory.
B) the Yerkes-Dodson law.
C) the hierarchy of needs theory.
D) instinct theory.
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34
Chapter 33: Genetic and Environmental Influences on Intelligence
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ancel Keys and his research team observed that men on a semistarvation diet
A) became apathetic and lost interest in food.
B) remained interested in food but avoided talking or thinking about it.
C) lost interest in sex and social activities.
D) became increasingly preoccupied with political and religious issues.
Q2) A body that can store fat has the advantage of possessing A) low blood pressure.
B) stored energy.
C) a low set point.
D) reduced levels of serotonin.
Q3) The arcuate nucleus is located within the A) pancreas.
B) hypothalamus.
C) frontal lobes.
D) body's fat cells.
Q4) Which of the following people is most likely to eat the most?
A) Brad,who is eating lunch by himself.
B) Abagail,who is snacking on fruit.
C) Doug,who is eating with friends at an all you can eat buffet.
D) Robert,who is consciously watching his portion sizes.
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Chapter 34: Introduction to Motivation
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Sample Questions
Q1) In remembering the spatial locations of objects,straight men perform
A) better than gay men and better than straight women.
B) worse than gay men,and worse than straight women.
C) better than gay men and worse than straight women.
D) worse than gay men and better than straight women.
Q2) When are hormone levels expected to increase or decline?
A) during prenatal development
B) during pubertal development
C) during both prenatal and pubertal development
D) neither during prenatal nor pubertal development
Q3) In a complete sexual response cycle
A) the excitement stage immediately precedes orgasm.
B) orgasm immediately precedes the excitement stage.
C) the plateau stage immediately precedes orgasm.
D) the excitement stage immediately precedes the resolution stage.
Q4) ________ tend to have more frequent,more physical,and less romantic fantasies.
A) Heterosexual women
B) Asexual women
C) Men,regardless of sexual orientation,
D) Heterosexual men
Page 36
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Chapter 35: Hunger
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ostracism in the form of exile,imprisonment,or solitary confinement is used to punish,and therefore control,
A) chain migration.
B) narcissism.
C) social behavior.
D) self-disclosure.
Q2) Our need to belong is most clearly threatened by A) chain migration.
B) self-esteem.
C) ostracism.
D) autonomy.
Q3) Those experiencing ostracism show activation in the same areas that are also activated when experiencing A) physical pain.
B) physical pleasure.
C) narcissism.
D) drive reduction.
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Page 37
Chapter 36: Sexual Motivation and the Need to Belong
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tranquilizing drugs that inhibit sympathetic nervous system activity often reduce people's subjective experience of intense anxiety.Which theory of emotion would have the greatest difficulty explaining this effect?
A) James-Lange
B) Cannon-Bard
C) two-factor
D) Schachter-Singer
Q2) Rapid fear reactions to sensory input in the absence of conscious thought are possible because certain neural pathways bypass the A) hypothalamus.
B) amygdala.
C) thalamus.
D) prefrontal cortex.
Q3) The two-factor theory of emotion places more emphasis on the importance of ________ than does the James-Lange theory.
A) cognitive activity
B) the autonomic nervous system
C) physiological arousal
D) stress hormones
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Motivation at Work
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Sample Questions
Q1) Comparing introverts and extraverts,we can say that the nonverbal expressions of emotion conveyed by ________ are easier to read,and ________ are better at reading other people's nonverbal expressions of emotion.
A) introverts;introverts
B) extraverts;extraverts
C) introverts;extraverts
D) extraverts;introverts
Q2) Patients reportedly feel less depressed following between-the-eyebrows Botox injections that immobilize their frowning muscles.This best illustrates the
A) behavior feedback effect.
B) Darwin's evolutionary theory.
C) Ekman's facial expression theory.
D) facial feedback effect.
Q3) Compared with men,women would probably be better at
A) detecting the emotions of two people having a discussion over lunch.
B) controlling their physiological responses to a person who is lying.
C) exhibiting a natural expression of anger.
D) avoiding the facial feedback effect.
Q4) Describe the female advantage regarding nonverbal communication.
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Chapter 38: Introduction to Emotion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Maria strives hard for intimacy,personal growth,and community contribution.Which of the following can be expected of Maria?
A) She will experience a higher quality of life.
B) She will be more likely to experience the feel-good,do-good phenomenon.
C) She will experienced a lower quality of life.
D) She will be less likely to experience the feel-good,do-good phenomenon.
Q2) A wage increase of $3000 per year is most likely to increase the happiness of people who currently earn ________ per year.
A) $12,000
B) $25,000
C) $40,000
D) $75,000
Q3) Juan and Berta were millionaires who lost half their life savings due to a bad investment decision.Which of the following best explains why after three years Juan and Berta seem to have suffered no permanent loss of happiness?
A) relative deprivation
B) the concept of flow
C) the catharsis hypothesis
D) the adaptation-level phenomenon
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Page 40
Chapter 39: Experienced Emotion
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Sample Questions
Q1) The closing of the vessels that nourish the heart muscle is known as
A) the general adaptation syndrome.
B) coronary heart disease.
C) coronary aneurysm.
D) spontaneous remission.
Q2) One person,alone in a house,dismisses its creaking sounds and experiences no stress;someone else suspects an intruder and becomes alarmed.These different reactions illustrate the importance of
A) fight or flight.
B) stress appraisal.
C) spontaneous remission.
D) the general adaptation syndrome.
Q3) B lymphocytes inhibit ________,whereas T lymphocytes inhibit ________.
A) bacterial infections;viral infections
B) heart attacks;strokes
C) NK cells;cancer cells
D) HIV;AIDS
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Chapter 40: Expressed Emotion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients who received recordings designed to ________ both before and after surgery reported better wound healing.
A) increase heart rate and blood pressure
B) inhibit activity in the limbic system
C) reduce cortisol levels
D) encourage relaxation
Q2) Feeling liked and encouraged by intimate friends and family members has been found to promote
A) a reduction of natural killer cells.
B) an external locus of control.
C) stronger immune functioning.
D) decreased oxytocin levels.
Q3) A healthy lifestyle has been described as a(n)________ that might account for the association of religious involvement and life expectancy.
A) Type A profile
B) intervening variable
C) locus of control
D) mindfulness
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Chapter 41: Stress and Illness
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Sample Questions
Q1) The foot-in-the-door phenomenon refers to the tendency to A) behave according to our feelings rather than our beliefs.
B) change our attitude because it differs from our behavior.
C) comply with a large request if we have previously complied with a small request.
D) attribute strangers' behavior to their personal dispositions.
Q2) Marilyn believes that her professor's strict class attendance policy indicates that he has an overcontrolling personality,without considering that the policy is good is necessary because of the limited number of class sessions in a course that meets only once a week.Her belief best illustrates
A) cognitive dissonance.
B) a situational disposition.
C) peripheral route persuasion.
D) the fundamental attribution error.
Q3) Opinion change resulting from incidental cues such as a speaker's attractiveness illustrates
A) central route persuasion.
B) peripheral route persuasion.
C) cognitive dissonance.
D) the foot-in-the-door phenomenon.
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Page 43
Chapter 42: Coping With Stress
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Sample Questions
Q1) In group situations,the loss of self-awareness and self-restraint that fosters arousal and anonymity is called
A) cognitive dissonance.
B) social loafing.
C) deindividuation.
D) groupthink
Q2) Class members are asked to work cooperatively in groups on major course papers.Every member of a group is to receive exactly the same grade based on the quality of the group's paper.This situation is most likely to lead to A) social loafing.
B) social facilitation.
C) deindividuation.
D) group polarization.
Q3) Hearing someone talk in a happy or sad voice can elicit the corresponding mood in the listener.This phenomenon is called A) group polarization.
B) mood contagion.
C) social loafing.
D) deindividuation.
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Page 44
Chapter 43: Modifying Illness-Related Behaviors
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Sample Questions
Q1) Across the United States in 2015 and 2016,nearly 40 percent of the unarmed people shot and killed by police were Black.This fact illustrates the effect of A) ingroup bias.
B) outgroup bias.
C) implicit bias.
D) stranger bias.
Q2) Ty Ling was worried that something bad would happen to her daughter if she went away to college.When her daughter called and told her that her computer had been stolen,Ty Ling said,"I knew something bad would happen if you left home for college." Ty Ling's comments illustrate
A) scapegoating.
B) the other-race effect.
C) the just-world phenomenon.
D) hindsight bias.
Q3) Facing the threat of death at the hands of terrorists is likely to heighten
A) social scripts.
B) social identities.
C) patriotism.
D) equity.
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Page 45
Chapter 44: Psychoanalytic Perspective
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to social exchange theory,altruistic behavior is guided by A) calculations of costs and benefits.
B) feelings of social responsibility.
C) reciprocity norms.
D) family ties.
Q2) Casandra,who is attractive and likable,has just telephoned Mike and asked him for a date.According to the two-factor theory of emotion,Mike is likely to experience the most intense romantic feelings for Casandra during their phone conversation if he has just A) awakened from a short nap.
B) finished eating a delicious meal.
C) completed a series of aerobic exercises.
D) been studying his history lecture notes.
Q3) To help people avoid social traps,psychologists should promote an increased awareness of A) equity.
B) the mere exposure effect.
C) the reciprocity norm.
D) the social-responsibility norm.
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Chapter 45: Humanistic Perspective
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Sample Questions
Q1) Freud believed that ________ are the "royal road to the unconscious."
A) projective tests
B) dreams
C) erogenous zones
D) psychosexual stages
Q2) Freud's theory of personality has been criticized because it
A) underestimates the importance of biological contributions to personality development.
B) is contradicted by recent research demonstrating the human capacity for destructive behavior.
C) is overly reliant upon observations derived from Freud's use of projective tests.
D) offers few testable hypotheses that allow one to determine its validity.
Q3) Freud became interested in unconscious personality dynamics when he noticed that certain patients' symptoms
A) resulted from the physical abuse they had received from their parents during childhood.
B) reflected a loss of individuality.
C) illustrated a collective unconscious.
D) made no neurological sense.
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Page 47
Chapter 46: Contemporary Research on Personality
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dr.Smith is a humanistic psychologist who believes that standardized assessments of personality are depersonalizing.She is most likely to use which of the following to understand the person's unique experiences.
A) interviews
B) intimate conversations
C) both interviews and intimate conversations
D) neither interviews nor intimate conversations
Q2) According to Maslow,the top-level needs that arise after all other needs have been met include the needs for self-actualization and
A) self-esteem.
B) self-transcendence.
C) self-awareness.
D) social acceptance.
Q3) Tonya demonstrates personality traits at parties with her friends that are very different from those she exhibits when she participates in class activities.Using your knowledge of the person-situation controversy,explain why the variability of Tonya's behavior in different situations is not surprising.
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Chapter 47: Introduction to Psychological Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Albert Bandura views the person-environment interaction as reciprocal determinism."Behavior,internal personal factors,and environmental influences," he said,"all operate as interlocking determinants of each other." Discuss three ways in which individuals and the environment interact.Explain how genes and environment can interact to influence traits and personality,and discuss one study supporting this interaction.
Q2) While Rolf claims that he provides more than half of his daughter's care,his wife feels that he provides very little care.Rolf's mistaken belief best illustrates
A) the spotlight effect.
B) reciprocal determinism.
C) unconditional positive regard.
D) self-serving bias.
Q3) Your score on an extraversion test does not neatly predict how sociable you will be on any given occasion.This observation is most clearly highlighted by ________ theories.
A) psychoanalytic
B) social-cognitive
C) trait
D) humanistic
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Page 49
Chapter 48: Anxiety Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The removal of homosexuality as a psychological disorder demonstrates the A) maladaptive nature of the disorder.
B) power of shifting societal beliefs.
C) stigma associated with the disorder.
D) increased prevalence of the disorder.
Q2) Which of the following disorders was added in the revisions that led to the DSM-5?
A) autism spectrum disorder
B) hoarding disorder
C) posttraumatic stress disorder
D) generalized anxiety disorder
Q3) Which of the following psychological disorder(s)was reported by the most people in the United States in 2015?
A) depressive disorders
B) posttraumatic stress disorder
C) schizophrenia
D) phobias
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Page 50
Chapter 49: Dissociative and Personality Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) George developed generalized anxiety disorder when he was in his mid-twenties.As he got older he developed some physical problems as a result of generalized anxiety disorder.Now that he is approaching late adulthood,his emotions have mellowed some.At what age is it less likely for him to have generalized anxiety disorder?
A) 35
B) 40
C) 50
D) 70
Q2) An incapacitating and highly distressing fear about being embarrassed in the presence of others is most characteristic of
A) panic disorder.
B) social anxiety disorder.
C) generalized anxiety disorder.
D) obsessive-compulsive disorder.
Q3) Anxiety is best described as a A) feeling.
B) cognition.
C) both a feeling and a cognition.
D) neither a feeling nor a cognition.
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Page 51
Chapter 50: Mood Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Steven has experienced a mildly depressed mood more often than not for the past two years.In order for him to be diagnosed with dysthymia he must also display a minimum of two additional symptoms.Which of the following is NOT one of those?
A) difficulty with decision making and concentration
B) feeling hopeless
C) poor self-esteem
D) increased energy levels
Q2) Elaine feels that her life is empty,has lost all interest in her career and hobbies,and wonders if she would be better off dead.She is most likely suffering from A) bipolar disorder.
B) disruptive mood dysregulation disorder.
C) major depressive disorder.
D) mania.
Q3) Mania is most likely to be experienced by those suffering A) major depressive disorder.
B) bipolar disorder.
C) learned helplessness.
D) persistent depressive disorder.
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Chapter 51: Schizophrenia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Environmental factors such as viral infections can "turn on" specific genes that predispose schizophrenia.This best illustrates the impact of
A) an impaired theory of mind.
B) selective attention.
C) epigenetic factors.
D) positive symptoms.
Q2) Therapeutic drugs that block dopamine receptors are most likely to reduce A) hallucinations.
B) depression.
C) agoraphobia.
D) generalized anxiety disorder.
Q3) An adopted child's chances of developing schizophrenia ________ if the biological parents have schizophrenia.The child's chances ________ if the adopted parents have schizophrenia.
A) increase;increase
B) do not increase;do not increase
C) increase;do not increase
D) do not increase;increase
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Chapter 52: The Psychological Therapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Extensive amnesia,wandering or traveling,and confusion about one's personal identity are symptoms of
A) a personality disorder.
B) a fugue state.
C) antisocial personality disorder.
D) dissociative identity disorder.
Q2) Those with an avoidant personality disorder are most likely to display A) a lack of guilt feelings.
B) a sense of self-importance.
C) shallow,attention-getting emotions.
D) a fear of social rejection.
Q3) Food binges that alternate with vomiting are most characteristic of A) anorexia nervosa.
B) bipolar disorder.
C) bulimia nervosa.
D) binge-eating disorder.
Q4) Describe the characteristics of dissociative identity disorder,and discuss the factors that have been implicated in its development.Why are many mental health professionals skeptical about the validity of this disorder?
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Chapter 53: Evaluating Psychotherapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Who pushed for the construction of mental hospitals?
A) Sigmund Freud and Jonathan Shedler
B) David Shapiro and Carl Rogers
C) Joseph Wolpe and Aaron Beck
D) Philippe Pinel and Dorothea Dix
Q2) Counterconditioning techniques were derived from principles first developed by A) Ivan Pavlov.
B) Carl Rogers.
C) B.F.Skinner.
D) Sigmund Freud.
Q3) Persuading depressed patients to reverse their catastrophizing beliefs about themselves and their futures is most characteristic of
A) Rogers' client-centered therapy.
B) Beck's cognitive therapy.
C) Wolpe's exposure therapy.
D) Freud's psychoanalysis.
Q4) Brenda is attending group therapy with others who suffer from anxiety attacks.What are some of the benefits she will experience from group therapy?
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Chapter 54: The Biomedical Therapies
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Q1) Evidence that placebos can reduce some of the distressing symptoms of psychological disorders best illustrates the therapeutic value of A) meta-analysis.
B) individualism.
C) empathy.
D) hope.
Q2) Hans Eysenck's summary of 24 early psychotherapy outcome studies was disturbing because it suggested that patient improvement was not necessarily the result of A) animal magnetism.
B) the placebo effect.
C) psychotherapy.
D) comorbidity.
Q3) Which of the following best explains why conversion therapy does not work?
A) Conversion therapy has clients reenact trauma of being born.
B) Conversion therapy manipulates client's invisible energy fields.
C) Conversion therapy is used to "repair" something that is not a mental illness.
D) Conversion does work.
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Chapter 55: Social Thinking
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antidepressant drugs,a fresh perspective on his problems,and a strong therapeutic alliance all contributed to helping David recover from major depressive disorder.An integrated understanding of David's recovery process is best provided by A) rTMS.
B) biomedical therapy.
C) a biopsychosocial approach.
D) a client-centered perspective.
Q2) Which drug dampens responsiveness to irrelevant stimuli in schizophrenia patients with positive symptoms?
A) lithium
B) Risperdal
C) chlorpromazine
D) Ativan
Q3) Compared with ECT,rTMS is ________ likely to produce seizures and ________ likely to produce memory loss.
A) more;more
B) less;less
C) more;less
D) less;more
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Page 57
Chapter 56: Appendix
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Q1) Who would be most involved in designing user-friendly programming controls for HDTVs?
A) organizational psychologists
B) human factors psychologists
C) personnel psychologists
D) social psychologists
Q2) Research has shown that social leadership facilitates A) worker morale.
B) 360-degree feedback.
C) a directive management style.
D) strength-based selection systems.
Q3) Managers who excel at task leadership typically
A) demonstrate charisma.
B) use a directive style.
C) discourage performance appraisals.
D) use a democratic style.
Q4) Compare and contrast the unstructured and structured interview,focusing on the interviewer's ability in each case to predict employee performance.
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Page 58