Foundations of Physical Science Test Bank
Course Introduction
Foundations of Physical Science offers a comprehensive introduction to the fundamental principles of physics and chemistry, emphasizing the core concepts that underpin our understanding of the physical world. Topics include motion and forces, energy and matter, atomic structure, chemical reactions, and the properties of solids, liquids, and gases. Through a combination of lectures, laboratory experiments, and real-world applications, students will develop critical thinking and problem-solving skills as they explore how scientific principles apply to everyday phenomena. This course is designed to provide a solid scientific foundation for students, preparing them for more advanced study in the physical sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Conceptual Physical Science 5th Edition by Paul G. Hewitt
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3515 Verified Questions
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Chapter 1: Patterns of Motion and Equilibrium
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Sample Questions
Q1) You would have the largest mass of gold if it weighed 1 N on the A)Moon.
B)Earth.
C)both the same
Answer: A
Q2) The amount of friction that occurs when two blocks slide against each other depends on
A)how much they are pressed together.
B)the "stickiness" of atoms on their surfaces.
C)both
D)none of the above
Answer: C
Q3) The average speed of a deer traveling a distance of 2 km in a time of one-half hour is
A)1 km/h.
B)2 km/h.
C)4 km/h.
D)more than 4 km/h.
Answer: C
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Newtons Laws of Motion
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pair of tennis balls fall through the air from a tall building. One ball is regular and the other is filled with lead pellets. Air resistance just before they hit is actually greater for the
A)regular ball.
B)lead-filled ball.
C)same for both
Answer: B
Q2) You toss a ball upward where air resistance is negligible. After the ball leaves your hand the force on it
A)gradually decreases until the ball reaches the top of its path.
B)first acts upward and then downward after it reaches the top.
C)is the single force due to gravity, always directed downward.
D)none of the above.
Answer: C
Q3) A skydiver jumps from a high-flying plane. As her velocity of fall increases, her acceleration
A)increases.
B)decreases.
C)remains unchanged regardless of air resistance.
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Momentum and Energy
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Sample Questions
Q1) A common car engine is 20% efficient. When cruising, the car encounters an average retarding force of 1000 N. If the energy content of gasoline is 40 MJ/L, how many kilometers per liter does the car achieve?
A)14 km/L
B)12 km/L
C)10 km/L
D)8 km/L
E)none of the above
Answer: D
Q2) You do work on an object when you lift it against gravity. How does this work relate to gravitational potential energy? If the lifted body is dropped, what becomes of this energy?
Answer: The work you do on the lifted body may be stored as gravitational potential energy. Then the force × the distance = the weight × height. If the lifted object is dropped, this energy transforms to motion energy-kinetic energy. The kinetic energy it possesses as it returns to its initial position equals the gravitational potential energy at its highest point, which equals the initial work done.
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Chapter 4: Gravity, Projectiles, and Satellites
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Sample Questions
Q1) The reason the Moon does not crash into Earth is that
A)Earth's gravitational field is weak at the Moon.
B)the gravitational pull of other planets keeps the Moon up.
C)the Moon has a sufficient tangential speed.
D)the Moon has less mass than Earth.
E)none of the above
Q2) Consider a monkey wrench released at rest at the far edge of the solar system. Suppose that it drops to Earth by virtue of only Earth's gravity. The wrench will strike Earth's surface with a speed of about
A)10 m/s.
B)8 km/s.
C)11 km/s.
D)the speed of light.
Q3) The period of a satellite, the time it takes for a complete revolution, depends on the satellite's A)mass.
B)weight.
C)radial distance.
D)all the above
E)none of the above
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Chapter 5: Fluid Mechanics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Atmospheric pressure is caused by the A)density of the atmosphere.
B)weight of the atmosphere.
C)temperature of the atmosphere.
D)effect of the Sun's energy on the atmosphere.
Q2) Fill a U-tube with water and the level in both ends is the same. Water seeks its own level. Why?
Q3) Two life preservers have identical volumes, one filled with Styrofoam and the other filled with sand. When each is worn by swimmers, one swimmer floats and the other sinks. Interestingly, the buoyant force is actually greater on the life preserver that A)sinks.
B)floats.
C)same either way
D)none of the above
Q4) Explain why ships of any weight are balanced on the Falkirk Wheel.
Q5) Wood from the Lignum vitae tree in South America is denser than water. Could a boat be made with this wood? A raft? Briefly explain.
Q6) Why will a helium-filled balloon rise in air while an air-filled balloon sinks?
Q7) Why is an umbrella in danger of being turned inside out on a windy day?
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Thermal Energy and Thermodynamics
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a bimetallic bar composed of copper and iron strips is heated, the bar bends toward the iron strip because
A)iron gets hotter before copper.
B)copper gets hotter before iron.
C)copper expands more than iron.
D)iron expands more than copper.
E)none of the above
Q2) Heat energy is measured in units of A)degrees.
B)joules.
C)calories.
D)both joules and calories.
Q3) The white-hot sparks from a fireworks sparkler that strike your skin don't cause injury because
A)they have a low temperature.
B)the energy per molecule is very low.
C)the energy per molecule is high, but the total energy transferred is small.
Q4) If water had a lower specific heat capacity, would ponds and lakes be more or less likely to freeze in winter?
Q5) Distinguish between the concepts of thermal energy, temperature, and heat.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Heat Transfer and Change of Phase
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pupil of your eye is a net
A)absorber of radiant energy.
B)emitter of radiant energy.
C)neither
Q2) The higher the frequency of a wave, the A)shorter the wavelength.
B)longer the wavelength.
C)neither
Q3) If molecules in a sample of gas moved so they completely missed each other, the gas's temperature would A)increase.
B)decrease.
C)remain unchanged.
Q4) The Earth loses heat mainly by A)conduction.
B)convection.
C)radiation.
D)none of the above
Q5) Why is a steam burn more damaging than a burn by boiling water of the same temperature?
9
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Chapter 8: Static and Current Electricity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Normally a balloon charged to several thousand volts has a relatively small amount of A)charge.
B)energy.
C)both D)neither
Q2) An ampere is a unit of electric A)pressure.
B)current.
C)resistance.
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
Q3) The flow of charge in a circuit depends on A)adequate resistance.
B)a potential difference.
C)adequate chemical action.
D)all of the above
Q4) What is electric resistance? What characteristics of a wire determine its resistance? How does resistance normally vary with temperature?
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Chapter 9: Magnetism and Electromagnetic Induction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Power is the rate at which A)energy is transferred.
B)voltage can be changed.
C)current can be induced.
Q2) The rapid alteration of a magnetic field induces A)an electric field.
B)a stronger magnetic field.
C)both
D)neither
Q3) Every magnet contains at least A)one pole.
B)two poles.
C)two or more poles.
Q4) How are electric motors and electric generators similar? Different?
Q5) The metal detectors that travelers walk through at airports operate via A)Ohm's law.
B)Faraday's law.
C)Coulomb's law.
D)Newton's laws.
E)civil laws.
11
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Chapter 10: Waves and Sound
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Sample Questions
Q1) The source of all sounds is something that is A)accelerating.
B)moving.
C)vibrating.
D)undergoing simple harmonic motion.
Q2) When we consider the distance a pendulum swings to and fro we're talking about the pendulum's A)frequency. B)period.
C)wavelength. D)amplitude.
Q3) A wave is a vibration in A)space. B)time.
C)both
D)neither
Q4) How many vibrations per second are associated with a 101-MHz radio wave?
A)less than 101,000,000
B)101,000,000
C)more than 101,000,00
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Chapter 11: Light
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Sample Questions
Q1) Relative to its average speed in air, the average speed of a beam of light in glass is A)more.
B)the same. C)less.
Q2) When a pulse of white light is incident on a piece of glass, the first color to emerge is A)red.
B)orange.
C)green.
D)violet.
E)all the same
Q3) Light shines on a pane of green glass and a pane of clear glass. The temperature will be higher in the A)clear glass.
B)green glass.
C)neither
Q4) What are the three primary colors for light addition? What colors appear when light of only two primary colors are shone on a white screen? How would the color purple be produced?
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Chapter 12: Atoms and the Periodic Table
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which contributes more to an atom's mass: electrons or protons? Which contributes more to an atom's size?
A)Protons contribute more to an atom's mass while electrons contribute more to its size.
B)Electrons contribute more to an atom's mass while protons contribute more to its size.
C)Protons contribute more to both the mass and size of an atom.
D)Electrons contribute more to both the mass and size of an atom.
Q2) Which of the following statements does not describe a proton?
A)It orbits around the nucleus of an atom.
B)It has a positive charge equivalent but opposite of an electron's.
C)It is much more massive than an electron.
D)It is a nucleon.
E)It is attracted to negatively charged electrical plates.
Q3) In what sense can you truthfully say that you are a part of every person around you?
A)We all live on the same planet and share the same resources.
B)We are continually exchanging our atoms.
C)We all share the same genetic code.
D)There are more people alive now than have ever lived.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: The Atomic Nucleus and Radioactivity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following professions would likely have the highest occupational exposure to radiation per year?
A)airline pilot
B)quarterback for the Denver Broncos
C)center for the L.A. Lakers
D)deep sea diver
E)lifeguard
Q2) Otto Hahn and Fritz Strassmann discovered fission by bombarding uranium with neutrons. Their discovery was made possible by finding one of the fission products, barium (Ba, atomic no. = 56). What is a reasonable explanation for why they were unable to initially observe the other product, krypton (Kr, atomic no. = 36)
A)Krypton is a noble gas and it may have diffused out of the sample.
B)The isotope of krypton generated might have a short half-life and had undergone radioactive decay to some other element.
C)Krypton is a noble gas and therefore chemically unreactive, making it difficult to characterize by chemical means.
D)both A and B
E)all of the above
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Chapter 14: Elements of Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many atoms are in one molecule of Na<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub>?
A)7
B)2
C)4
D)3
E)24
Q2) Which of the following would not be considered a physical property?
A)temperature at which a material catches on fire
B)color
C)conductivity
D)hardness
E)temperature at which a material melts
Q3) Which statement best describes a compound?
A)a material that is made up of a combination of atoms bonded together
B)a mixture of more than one element
C)a mixture of atoms
D)a material that is made up of a single type of atom
E)none of the above
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Chapter 15: How Atoms Bond and Molecules Attract
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Sample Questions
Q1) Given the above diagram, describe what happens electronically between these two molecules.
A)Oxygen B becomes slightly positively charged due to the electrons on the water molecule.
B)Oxygen A becomes slightly positively charged due to the electrons on the water molecule.
C)Oxygen W becomes slightly negatively charged due to the oxygen molecule.
D)Oxygen W becomes slightly positively charged due to the oxygen molecule.
E)none of the above
Q2) Which of the following bonds would be the least polar?
A)C-F
B)C-O
C)C-Cl
D)C-H
E)All are equally polar.
Q3) List the following bonds in order of increasing polarity:
A)N-O < N-N < N-F < H-F
B)N-N < N-O < N-F < H-F
C)H-F < N-F < N-O < N-N
D)N-N < N-O < H-F < N-F
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Chapter 16: Mixtures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cells at the top of a tree have a higher concentration of sugars than cells at the bottom. How might this fact assist a tree in moving water upward from its roots?
A)Cells with high concentrations of sugar are more dense. As these cells migrate downwards, cells containing fresh water are able to migrate upwards.
B)Water is pushed upwards by osmostic pressure.
C)It doesn't. In fact, water makes it to the top of a tree because that is where the water molecules are being evaporated.
D)Fresh water is drawn upwards to the sugar containing cells by way of dipole-dipole molecular interactions.
Q2) Is the air in your house a homogeneous or heterogeneous mixture?
A)homogeneous because it is mixed very well
B)heterogeneous because of the dust particles it contains
C)homogeneous because it is all at the same temperature
D)heterogeneous because it consists of different types of molecules
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Chapter 17: How Chemicals React
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Sample Questions
Q1) The portion of the atmosphere that filters out 95 percent of the incident UV radiation is the ________.
A)ozone layer
B)stratosphere
C)troposphere
D)aerosol layer
E)particulates
Q2) The chlorinated fluorocarbons molecules are acting as a(n)________ by converting hundreds of thousands of molecules before they are inactivated.
A)catalyst
B)aerosol
C)active site
D)acid
E)base
Q3) Which is greater: 1.01 amu of hydrogen or 1.01 grams of hydrogen?
A)1.01 amu of hydrogen is greater than 1.01 grams of hydrogen.
B)1.01 grams of hydrogen is greater than 1.01 amu of hydrogen
C)1.01 grams of hydrogen and 1.01 amu of hydrogen have the same mass.
D)Not enough information information is provided.
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Chapter 18: Two Classes of Chemical Reactions
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Q1) Which of the following statements about strong or weak bases is true?
A)A weak base completely separates into ions in water.
B)A weak base will not react with a strong acid.
C)A strong base is always corrosive.
D)A strong base will readily accept protons from even weak acids.
Q2) Which of the following statements about oxidation and reduction reactions is true?
A)More than one electron can be transferred in an oxidation and reduction reaction.
B)In a half-reaction, only half of an electron is transferred.
C)Only neutral atoms are formed in oxidation and reduction reactions.
D)A half-reaction is only used for reduction reactions.
E)None of the above are true.
Q3) Which of the above illustrations shows a basic aqueous solution?
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)All of the above are neutral solutions.
E)none of the above
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Organic Compounds
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the above molecules would most likely have a strong, distinct smell?
A)a
B)b
C)c
D)d
E)a or d
Q2) What is an organic compound?
A)any molecule that is made mostly of carbon with no metals in it
B)compound grown with organic farming methods
C)any compound isolated from living organisms
D)any compound where there are metals bound to other types of atoms
E)anything that is a salt obtained from organic creatures
Q3) What is the percent volume of water in 80-proof vodka?
A)80 percent
B)60 percent
C)40 percent
D)20 percent
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Rocks and Minerals
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mauna Loa is a A)cinder cone.
B)shield volcano.
C)composite volcano.
D)none of these
Q2) Which of the following rocks would be the first to weather in a humid climate? Which would be the last? Defend your answers. (a)granite (b)sandstone (c)limestone (d)halite
Q3) Based on its abundance in Earth's crust, most rocks contain a mineral composed of the elements oxygen and A)carbon.
B)silicon.
C)iron.
D)sulfur.
Q4) The rock that has undergone the greatest extent of metamorphic change is A)gneiss.
B)slate.
C)shale.
D)schist.
Q5) How does sediment turn into sedimentary rock?
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Chapter 21: Plate Tectonics and Earths Interior
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Sample Questions
Q1) Volcanoes do not form at which type of convergent plate boundary?
A)Oceanic-oceanic boundaries.
B)Oceanic-convergent boundaries.
C)Continental-continental convergent boundaries.
Q2) According to plate tectonic theory, the San Andreas fault is a A)convergence zone.
B)divergence zone.
C)subduction zone.
D)transform fault.
Q3) The lithosphere rides on top of the asthenosphere. Lithospheric movement causes
A)earthquakes, volcanic activity, and mountain building activity.
B)the subduction of continental crust under oceanic crust.
C)hot-spot activity as found in Hawaii.
D)widespread destruction.
Q4) What is the principle of isostasy, and what evidence supports it?
Q5) When you stretch a rubber band, you are applying
A)compressional stress.
B)tensional stress.
C)shear stress.
D)simple stress.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Shaping Earths Surface
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a perched water table intersects the surface on a hillside, the result is
A)an artesian well.
B)a spring.
C)a lake.
D)a cone of depression.
Q2) Sand dunes form
A)where air flows freely over sand.
B)from wind that is increasing in speed.
C)as wind moves sand from the back to the front of the dune.
D)as wind stops blowing.
Q3) In a delta environment the first grains to settle are
A)light, fine-grained sediment.
B)heavier, coarse-grained sediment.
C)light, medium-grained sediment.
D)heavy and light mixed grains.
Q4) The flow of groundwater is dependent on
A)topography of the ground surface.
B)gravity only.
C)pressure only.
D)hydraulic conductivity and pressure.
24
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Chapter 23: Geologic Timereading the Rock Record
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Q1) The climatic zones of Pangaea ranged from
A)glaciation in the south, and a mild temperate climate in the north.
B)cold, dry temperatures in the north, and warm, tropical temperatures in the south.
C)humid uplands in the north, and drier, desert like conditions in the south.
D)widespread glaciation in the north, and a warm, tropical climate in the south.
Q2) When comparing geologic time to a calendar year, the time of the dinosaurs is in the
A)middle of October.
B)first half of December.
C)second half of December.
D)first half of February.
Q3) When tilted or folded sedimentary layers are covered by younger, horizontal rock layers it is called
A)an intrusion.
B)an angular unconformity.
C)a syncline.
D)conformable.
Q4) What was the one most important event in the Precambrian?
Q5) On what four assumptions is the principle of faunal succession based?
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Chapter 24: The Oceans, Atmosphere, and Climatic Effects
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Q1) The best time for digging clams (when low tide is extra low)is during the time of the A)new or full moon.
B)half moon.
C)quarter moon.
D)none of these times.
Q2) Why are temperature fluctuations greater over land than water?
Q3) When sea ice forms, what happens to the unfrozen water immediately adjacent to the new sea ice?
A)The salinity decreases.
B)The density increases.
C)The water sublimates.
D)The density decreases.
Q4) Many of the world's larger deserts are the result of A)warm ocean currents.
B)extremely high temperatures.
C)strong prevailing northwesterly winds.
D)belts of high atmospheric pressure.
Q5) If the Earth and all things on the Earth are continually radiating energy, why doesn't everything get progressively colder?
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Chapter 25: Driving Forces of Weather
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Q1) The downdraft in a thunderstorm is strengthened as
A)warm moist air sinks in the thunder cell.
B)dry air is drawn into the cloud, raindrops evaporate, and the air chills.
C)cold moist air condenses.
D)precipitation particles grow and fall.
Q2) On a weather map, an L depicts an area of low pressure. In this region, if the isobars are closely spaced around the low, the weather forecast calls for A)cloudy skies and windy conditions.
B)clear skies with light winds.
C)warm temperatures with light winds.
D)snow.
Q3) Hurricanes are more likely to form near
A)warm waters where the air is humid.
B)warm waters where the air is dry.
C)cold bodies of water where the air is humid.
D)cold bodies of water where the air is dry.
Q4) If a volume of air is warmed, it expands. If a volume of air expands, it
A)warms.
B)cools.
C)neither warms nor cools.
Page 27
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Chapter 26: The Solar System
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Q1) What is the evidence that the Sun is a relatively new star in the universe?
Q2) When the alignment of the Sun, the Moon, and Earth produce a lunar eclipse, the body that is in between the other two is the
A)Sun.
B)Moon.
C)Earth.
Q3) What is the cause of Jupiter's extremely high-energy radiation belts?
A)An enormous magnetic field that captures high energy particles.
B)The capture of a high number of metallic asteroids.
C)Tidal forces due to the interaction between Jupiter and its moons.
D)The remnants of a massive collision between Jupiter and another large body.
Q4) The carbon dioxide cycle is important to Earth because it
A)helps sustain the planet's plant base.
B)has been recognized by the Nobel Prize award committee.
C)and the oceans are critical in moderating and regulating the Earth's temperatures.
D)prevents the gradual buildup of oxygen, which would eventually lead to a combustible atmosphere.
Q5) Distinguish between a solar eclipse and a lunar eclipse, and the reasons for each.
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Chapter 27: Stars and Galaxies
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Sample Questions
Q1) A star's luminosity tells us
A)how much energy a star produces.
B)its surface temperature.
C)its rotational speed.
D)both how much energy it produces and its surface temperature.
Q2) The diurnal rotation of the stars refers to the
A)apparent rotation of the celestial sphere due to the rotation of the Earth.
B)movement of the stars across the sky during daytime hours.
C)rate of spin of stars in their formation stage.
D)particular constellations that are visible in different times of the year.
Q3) What are the relative compositions of the materials from which stars form?
A)About 74% hydrogen, about 24% helium, no more than 2% other materials
B)About 24% hydrogen, about 74% helium, no more than 2% other materials
C)About 2% hydrogen, about 74% helium, no more than 24% other materials
D)Stars have vastly differing combinations of materials.
Q4) If the Sun collapsed to become a black hole, the Earth's gravitational attraction to it would be
A)more.
B)less.
C)no different.
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Chapter 28: The Structure of Space and Time
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fire a cannonball from a cannon and it curves due to gravity. Shine a light from a flashlight and it
A)curves per second the same as the cannonball.
B)follows a straight-line path with no curvature at all.
C)curves half as much as the cannonball.
D)curves slightly, but not as much per second as the cannonball.
Q2) Edwin Hubble discovered that the farther away a galaxy is the A)faster it is receding from us.
B)more massive it is.
C)more energetic it is.
D)more black holes it contains.
Q3) If the elliptical orbit of Mercury were more eccentric, its precession rate would be
A)larger than it is now.
B)smaller than it is now.
C)the same as it is now.
D)nonexistent.
Q4) Space and time are
A)bound together.
B)independent entities.
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Chapter 29: Prologue: the Nature of Science
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Sample Questions
Q1) A scientific hypothesis can be disproved with A)one reproducible experiment.
B)disapproval of other scientists.
C)many tests by many scientists.
D)philosophical reasoning.
Q2) Science, art, and religion need not contradict one another because A)all three operate in different domains.
B)choosing the correct one allows you can forget the other two.
C)choosing religion and art allows you to dismiss science.
D)choosing science means that you can forget about religion and art.
Q3) The scientific method is most effective in A)making hypotheses.
B)gaining, organizing, and applying new knowledge.
C)discovering new things.
D)making theories.
E)performing experiments.
Q4) A hypothesis that is scientific must have a test for proving it A)right.
B)wrong.
C)either.
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