Foundations of Physical Science Pre-Test
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Course Introduction
Foundations of Physical Science provides an introduction to the fundamental principles underlying physics and chemistry. This course covers key concepts such as motion, forces, energy, matter, atomic structure, the periodic table, chemical reactions, and basic thermodynamics. Emphasizing the development of scientific reasoning and problem-solving skills, students engage in hands-on experiments and data analysis to deepen their understanding of physical phenomena. The course is designed to build a strong groundwork for further studies in the physical sciences and related STEM fields.
Recommended Textbook
An Introduction to Physical Science 13th Edition by James Shipman
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Chapter 1: Temperature and Heat
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Sample Questions
Q1) One microgram ( g) contains how many grams?
A) 10<sup>-3</sup>
B) 10<sup>-6</sup>
C) 10<sup>-9</sup>
D) 10<sup>3</sup>
Answer: B
Q2) In the SI, m is the symbol for A) mass.
B) meter.
C) mole.
D) metric.
Answer: B
Q3) A metric ton is ______________ kg.
Answer: 1000
Q4) One liter of pure water at its maximum density has a mass of 1 ______________. Answer: kg
Q5) Which is larger, a liter or a quart?
Answer: A liter
Q6) Express 100 megadollars in standard powers-of-10 notation. Answer: 0 \(\times\) 10<sup>8 </sup>dollars
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Waves and Sound
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Sample Questions
Q1) All the following may be represented by vectors except A) velocity.
B) acceleration.
C) speed.
D) displacement.
Answer: C
Q2) A(n) ______________ quantity has only magnitude.
Answer: scalar
Q3) An object that is moving in a linear path with an acceleration in the direction of motion has a(n) ______________ velocity.
A) constant
B) increasing
C) decreasing
D) none of these
Answer: D
Q4) The centripetal acceleration of an automobile in uniform circular motion on a flat circular track is supplied by ______________.
Answer: friction
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Chapter 3: Optics and Wave Effects
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the force of gravity acting on a 1-kg mass? (g = 9.8 m/s<sup>2</sup>)
Answer: 8 N
Q2) A spacecraft in space keeps going at the same velocity, even without firing its rockets, in accordance with the _______________ law of motion. A) fourth B) first C) second D) third
Answer: B
Q3) A 6.0-kg object exerts a force of 8.0 N on a 2.0-kg object. What is the magnitude of the force on the 6.0-kg object?
Answer: 0 N
Q4) In the SI, weight is expressed in units of ______________. Answer: newtons
Q5) To initiate motion, a(n) ____________ force is necessary. Answer: unbalanced, or net
Q6) Linear momentum has units of ______________. Answer: kg-m/s
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Electricity and Magnetism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a unit of power?
A) ft ·<sup> </sup>lb/s
B) kW ·<sup> </sup>h
C) J/s
D) watt
Q2) Which of the following four objects has the greatest kinetic energy?
A) An object of mass m moving with speed 4v
B) An object of mass 3m moving with speed 2v
C) An object of mass 4m moving with speed v
D) An object of mass 2m moving with speed 3v
E) None of these; all four objects have the same kinetic energy.
Q3) One positive aspect of the potential use of methane hydrate as a fuel is that
A) there is more of it than there is of coal, oil, and natural gas.
B) it is easy to mine.
C) its use will never contribute to global warming.
D) it exists in a pure form ready for use.
Q4) A stone is dropped from a bridge 15 m above a river. With what speed does the stone hit the water?
Q5) When the height of an object is doubled, its gravitational potential energy is increased by a factor of ______________.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Atomic Physics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The SI unit of heat is the ______________.
Q2) The Celsius degree is
A) the same size as the Fahrenheit degree.
B) larger than the kelvin.
C) the same size as the kelvin.
D) smaller than the Fahrenheit degree.
Q3) A liter of water at room temperature (20°C) is heated to its boiling temperature. How many kilocalories of heat are required?
Q4) Which of the following has the highest thermal conductivity?
A) Air
B) A newspaper
C) A rug
D) An aluminum saucepan
Q5) The substance is entirely a solid between points ______________ and ______________.
Q6) Temperatures 1 and 2 are the ______________ and the ______________, respectively.
Q7) On a winter day the temperature drops from -5°C to -15°C overnight. If a pan sitting outside contains 0.40 kg of ice, how much heat is removed from the ice for this temperature change?
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Chapter 6: Nuclear Physics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A Doppler red shift indicates
A) a shift toward lower frequencies.
B) a shift toward longer wavelengths.
C) that a light source is receding relative to the observer.
D) all of these.
Q2) A sound with a frequency of 48 kHz is in the ______________ region of the sound spectrum.
A) infrasonic
B) ultrasonic
C) audible
D) visible
Q3) A certain radio wave has a frequency of 1.03 MHz. What is the wavelength?
Q4) A Doppler red shift indicates
A) a shift toward higher frequencies.
B) a shift toward shorter wavelengths.
C) that a light source is receding relative to the observer.
D) none of these.
Q5) What is the wavelength, in meters, of radio waves produced by a radio station with a frequency of 1400 kHz?
(c = 3.00 \(\times\) 10<sup>8</sup> m/s)
Page 8
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Chapter 7: The Chemical Elements
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Sample Questions
Q1) A rainbow results from
A) both reflection and refraction.
B) refraction only.
C) neither reflection nor refraction.
D) reflection only.
Q2) The ratio of the speed of light in a vacuum to the speed of light in a medium is known as the index of A) reflection.
B) refraction.
C) diffraction.
D) none of these.
Q3) An object is placed 10 cm to the left of a converging spherical lens. The lens has a focal length of f = 25 cm. Where is the image formed?
A) 7.1 cm to the right of the lens
B) 7.1 cm to the left of the lens
C) 17 cm to the right of the lens
D) 17 cm to the left of the lens
Q4) A change in the direction of a wave resulting from its meeting an opaque material is called ______________.
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Chapter 8: Chemical Bonding
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Sample Questions
Q1) A component in an automobile 12-V electrical system has a resistance of 30 \(\Omega\). How much current is in the component when in operation?
A) 42 A
B) 0.4 A
C) 2.5 A
D) 360 A
Q2) Which of the following would be the least conductive?
A) Copper
B) Salt water
C) Glass
D) Mercury
Q3) The expression V = IR is called ______________.
Q4) A 10-\(\Omega\) resistor and a 20-\(\Omega\) resistor are connected in parallel, and this combination is connected in series to a 30-\(\Omega\) resistor. If the arrangement is hooked to a 12-V battery, how much current flows in the circuit?
Q5) Zero potential in household electricity is called ______________.
Q6) If a negatively charged object is brought near a suspended, positively charged object, the suspended object will be ______________.
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Chapter 9: Chemical Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ""billiard ball model" of the atom is associated with A) Bohr.
B) Thomson.
C) Rutherford.
D) Dalton.
Q2) Which is another name for quantum mechanics?
A) Classical mechanics
B) Wave mechanics
C) Optical mechanics
D) Spherical mechanics
Q3) The development of physics prior to 1900 is called
A) classical physics.
B) neoclassical physics.
C) Galilean physics.
D) ancient physics.
Q4) Which element was detected in the Sun before it was found on Earth?
A) Hydrogen
B) Promethium
C) Helium
D) Argon
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Chapter 10: Organic Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Who discovered the atomic nucleus in 1911?
A) Marie and Pierre Curie
B) Henri Becquerel
C) Ernest Rutherford
D) Niels Bohr
Q2) The fission of <sup>235</sup>U nuclei is initiated by
A) electrons.
B) protons.
C) alpha particles.
D) neutrons.
Q3) A gas of electrons and protons or other nuclei is called a(n) ______________.
Q4) The various isotopes of an element all have
A) the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons.
B) the same total number of neutrons and protons.
C) the same number of neutrons but different numbers of protons.
D) the same number of neutrons and the same number of protons.
Q5) Short-term and long-term effects of radiation on the health of the recipient are called ______________ effects.
Q6) No nuclide with an atomic number greater than ______________ is stable.
Q7) The symbolic notation for a beta particle is ______________.
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Chapter 11: Place and Time
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Sample Questions
Q1) The amount of energy necessary to remove an electron from an atom is called that atom's ______________.
Q2) Generally, the solubility of gases in liquids increases with A) decreasing temperature and increasing pressure.
B) increasing temperature and decreasing pressure.
C) decreasing temperature and decreasing pressure.
D) increasing temperature and increasing pressure.
Q3) An element that tends to lose its valence electrons during chemical reactions is classified as a(n) ______________.
Q4) The horizontal rows of the periodic table are called ______________.
Q5) Solutions are
A) homogeneous mixtures.
B) heterogeneous mixtures.
C) nonuniform mixtures.
D) none of these.
Q6) Aluminum is an example of A) a compound.
B) a solution.
C) an element.
D) an alloy.
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Chapter 13: The Solar System
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the equation Ca + H<sub>3</sub>PO<sub>4</sub> \(\to\) Ca<sub>3</sub>(PO<sub>4</sub>)<sub>2</sub> + H<sub>2</sub> is balanced, the sum of all the coefficients (both written and "understood") is ______________.
Q2) State which element is oxidized and which is reduced in the reaction Al + 3F<sub>2</sub> \(\to\) 2AlF<sub>3.</sub>
Q3) According to the Arrhenius theory, basic properties are caused by ______________ ions.
Q4) A balanced chemical equation will have the same ______________ on each side.
A) number of moles
B) number of molecules
C) mass of each compound
D) number of atoms of each element
Q5) The substances formed in a chemical reaction are called the ______________.
Q6) How many atoms of oxygen are in 1.00 mol of sulfur dioxide, SO<sub>2</sub>?
A) 64.1
B) 64.1 \(\times\) 6.02 \(\times\)10<sup>23</sup>
C) 12.0 \(\times\) 10<sup>23</sup>
D) 6.02 \(\times\) 10<sup>23</sup>
Page 14
Q7) Complete and balance the equation: Zn + AgNO<sub>3</sub>(aq) \(\to\)________
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Chapter 15: Moons and Small Solar System Bodies
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Sample Questions
Q1) The point in the sky directly above an observer's head is called the ______________.
Q2) The elapsed time between two successive crossings of the same meridian by the Sun is known as the ______________ solar day.
Q3) When one travels east while passing over a time zone boundary (ignoring daylight savings time issues),
A) the date is decreased one day.
B) the time is decreased one hour.
C) the time is advanced one hour.
D) the date is advanced one day.
E) none of these occurs.
Q4) The Sun is at the autumnal equinox on ______________.
Q5) Six months of darkness at the North Pole begins when the Sun is at the A) winter solstice.
B) summer solstice.
C) autumnal equinox.
D) vernal equinox.
Q6) A line of equal longitude is called a(n) ______________.
Q7) "Zulu" is the designation for _____________ time.
Q8) The slow, 25,800-year rotation of Earth's axis is called ______________.
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Chapter 16: The Universe
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Sample Questions
Q1) The fraction of incident sunlight reflected by a celestial body is called its
Q2) The dominant mass of the solar system is the ______________.
Q3) "Canals" are a feature once associated with the planet ______________.
Q4) Which of the following planets can be in opposition?
A) Mercury
B) Venus
C) Earth
D) Neptune
Q5) Halley's comet has a sidereal period of 76.2 years. Determine the value of the semimajor axis of its orbit. (Use Kepler's third law.)
Q6) The planet with the most prominent rings is
A) Jupiter.
B) Saturn.
C) Uranus.
D) Neptune.
Q7) In 1851, Earth's rotation was demonstrated using a(n) ______________.
Q8) The most distant planet that can be seen with the unaided eye is
Q9) The surface of the terrestrial planet ______________ cannot be seen from Earth. Page 16
Q10) The planet with the polar "ice caps" of frozen carbon dioxide is ______________.
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Chapter 17: The Atmosphere
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Sample Questions
Q1) The local solar time at 25°W is 12:00 noon. What is the longitude of an observer who sees the full moon on her meridian at this time?
A) 155°E
B) 65°E
C) 25°E
D) 25°W
E) None of the above
Q2) Which planet's major moons were named after literary characters?
A) Jupiter
B) Saturn
C) Uranus
D) Neptune
Q3) If a person weighs 150 lb on Earth, what will the person weigh on the Moon?
Q4) A meteor ______________ results when a large number of meteoroids enter Earth's atmosphere.
A) fall
B) landing
C) group
D) explosion
E) shower
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Chapter 19: Atmospheric Effects
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Q1) The study of all aspects of the atmosphere is called ______________.
Q2) The velocity-dependent force that produces air motion and is associated with Earth's rotation is called the ______________.
Q3) Photosynthesis produces ______________ in the atmosphere.
A) carbon dioxide
B) oxygen
C) argon
D) carbon monoxide
Q4) The top of the troposphere is called the A) stratopause.
B) tropopause.
C) mesopause.
D) thermopause.
Q5) Air circulation around a cyclone in the Northern Hemisphere as viewed from above is A) counterclockwise.
B) the same as in the Southern Hemisphere.
C) toward the center of the low-pressure area.
D) along isobars.
Q6) A wind vane points in the direction ______________ the wind is blowing.
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Chapter 21: Structural Geology and Plate Tectonics
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Q1) Strike-slip faulting takes place along the ______________ boundary of two plates.
Q2) 5 steps on the Richter scale represents about how many times more energy?
A) 32000
B) 32000000
C) 31900000
D) 500
Q3) Remanent magnetism refers to the magnetism of rocks that contain the mineral named ______________.
A) magnetite
B) lodestone
C) pyrite
D) none of these
Q4) The waves of an earthquake are detected by an instrument called a
A) seismometer.
B) seismogram.
C) seismograph.
D) seismoscope.
Q5) A description of the severity of the damage caused by an earthquake is given by its ranking on the ______________ scale.
Page 20
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Chapter 22: Minerals Rocks and Volcanoes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Volcanoes that explode violently tend to have magmas of
A) high temperature and low silica content.
B) high temperature and high silica content.
C) low temperature and low silica content.
D) low temperature and high silica content.
Q2) Conglomerate and breccia are classified as ______________ rocks.
Q3) The color of the powder of a mineral is known as the mineral's
A) index of refraction.
B) hardness.
C) specific gravity.
D) streak.
Q4) Metamorphism occurs for which class of rocks?
A) Metamorphic only
B) Sedimentary only
C) Igneous only
D) All of the above
Q5) Gas, lava, and pyroclastics are the three general products emitted during a(n)
Q6) The sedimentary rock known as ______________ consists of rounded pebbles cemented together by silica, calcium carbonate, or iron oxide.
Page 21
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Chapter 23: Surface Processes
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Sample Questions
Q1) About what percent of Earth's water is fresh water?
A) 8%
B) 18%
C) 2%
D) 15%
Q2) A river's suspended and bed loads may accumulate at its mouth and form
A) a delta.
B) a meander.
C) a stream.
D) none of the above.
Q3) The upper boundary of the zone of saturation is called the ______________.
Q4) The shallowly submerged areas that border the continental landmasses are called the ______________.
Q5) The limiting level below which a stream cannot erode the land is called its A) base level.
B) ultimate level.
C) bed level.
D) erosion level.
Q6) At the end and along the sides of a glacier, the sediment deposits may form ridges known as ______________.
Page 22
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Chapter 24: Geologic Time
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Q1) Eras are divided first into smaller time units called ______________.
Q2) Which epoch is also called the Ice Ages?
A) Permian
B) Holocene
C) Pleistocene
D) Cretaceous
Q3) The term age of ancient life is sometimes used to refer to the ______________ era.
Q4) The oldest algal fossils are found on the continent of ______________.
Q5) The Phanerozoic eon and the Paleozoic era began about ______________ million years ago.
Q6) Potassium-40, one of the six major radionuclides used for radiometric dating, decays to
A) nitrogen.
B) strontium.
C) lead.
D) argon.
Q7) The term age of mammals is sometimes used to refer to the ______________ era.
Q8) Primordial lead contains the isotope lead-______________, whereas radiogenic lead does not. Page 23
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