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Foundations of Pharmacology for Health Professions Midterm Exam - 430 Verified Questions

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Foundations of Pharmacology for Health Professions

Midterm Exam

Course Introduction

This course introduces the fundamental principles of pharmacology essential for health profession students. It covers the general concepts of drug action, pharmacokinetics, and pharmacodynamics, along with the physiological and biochemical bases for medication administration and therapeutic effects. Emphasis is placed on commonly used drug classes, their mechanisms, indications, side effects, interactions, and the role of safe and effective medication management in clinical practice. Through case studies and practical examples, students develop critical thinking and decision-making skills necessary for responsible pharmacological care in diverse healthcare settings.

Recommended Textbook

Pharmacology for Rehabilitation Professionals 2nd Edition by Barbara Gladson

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27 Chapters

430 Verified Questions

430 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: Introduction

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following statements is true?

A)A drug can have many brand names.

B)A drug can have many chemical names.

C)A drug can have many generic names.

D)The generic name of a drug must be changed after a patent has been expired.

Answer: A

Q2) The year it was required that marketed drugs be shown by the pharmaceutical company to be both efficacious and relatively safe is __________.

A)1855

B)1909

C)1934

D)1962

Answer: D

Q3) The official medical name of a drug is the __________.

A)chemical name

B)brand name

C)proprietary name

D)generic name

Answer: D

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Page 3

Chapter 2: Pharmacodynamics: Mechanism of Action

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9 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) If two drugs antagonize each other while acting on different receptor sites,then this antagonism is referred to as _________.

A)physiological antagonism

B)competitive antagonism

C)chemical antagonism

D)pharmacological antagonism

Answer: A

Q2) Agonists _________.

A)bind selectively to a receptor but do not change its conformation

B)can be divided into reversible and irreversible agonists

C)after chronic use can decrease the number of receptors

D)All of the above

Answer: C

Q3) The fastest response after drug stimulation of a receptor is observed with _________.

A)ligand gated receptors

B)G-protein coupled receptors

C)kinase linked receptors

D)DNA coupled receptors

Answer: A

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Chapter 3: Pharmacokinetics and Drug Dosing

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21 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Phase I biotransformation reactions include all of the following except ___________.

A)oxidations

B)reductions

C)conjugations

D)hydrolyses

Answer: C

Q2) Oral administration of drugs is often desired because _______________.

A)drugs are absorbed very rapidly from the GI tract

B)it is an efficient mode of administration for all drugs

C)it is the most convenient form of medication

D)100% of the drug is bioavailable

Answer: C

Q3) Some drugs do not penetrate easily into the ___________.

A)brain

B)muscle

C)liver

D)heart

Answer: A

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Page 5

Chapter 4: Adverse Drug Reactions

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8 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following groups are least likely to experience the adverse effects of drugs?

A)Persons with renal disease

B)Elderly people

C)Persons with liver disease

D)Persons

Q2) A type I allergic drug reaction __________.

A)starts after about 10-20 hrs after drug ingestion

B)involves the action of serotonin

C)can be life-threatening

D)is quite resistant to treatment

Q3) An adverse drug event or ADE refers to __________.

A)toxic reactions of a drug

B)prescription errors

C)administration errors

D)All of the above

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Chapter 5: Drugs Acting on the Autonomic Nervous System

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Sample Questions

Q1) The type of receptor found across autonomic ganglia in both the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system is ________________ receptor.

A)Nicotinic acetylcholine

B)Muscarinic acetylcholine

C)Adrenergic norepinephrine

D)Adrenergic epinephrine

Q2) Alpha agonists ______________.

A)constrict the sphincter muscle of the iris leading to miosis

B)constrict blood vessels leading to decreased blood pressure

C)constrict the sphincter of the bladder leading to urinary retention

D)stimulate GI-tract muscles leading to diarrhea

Q3) A patient faints while quickly getting up from a hot pool.Which of the following drugs could have caused this event?

A)Salmeterol

B)Prazosin

C)Phenylephrine

D)Metaprolol

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Chapter 6: Antihypertensive

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Sample Questions

Q1) Calcium channel blockers ___________.

A)increase calcium fluxes in arterial smooth muscles

B)dilate blood vessels and depress cardiac activity

C)are also used to treat headaches and migraines

D)are frequently combined with beta-blockers

Q2) Why would a thiazide diuretic and a K -sparing diuretic be administered together?

A)This combination prevents hypokalemia.

B)This combination prevents dehydration.

C)These drugs are effective at increasing glomerular filtration rate when given together.

D)Moderate doses of two diuretics are more effective than a large dose of one.

Q3) Therapeutic concerns with the use of diuretics include ___________.

A)dehydration

B)muscle weakness

C)hyperglycemia

D)All of the above

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Chapter 7: Drug Therapy of Coronary Atherosclerosis and Its Repercussions

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Sample Questions

Q1) The major determinants of myocardial oxygen demand are all of the following except _________.

A)heart rate

B)contractility

C)coronary blood flow

D)wall stress

Q2) Thrombolytic agents _________.

A)facilitate the action of warfarin

B)must be given within 12 hrs of an MI

C)are given by infusion

D)can save all or some of the myocardium from the damaging effects of ischemia

Q3) Which one of the following statements concerning heparin is false?

A)It can be administered at different molecular weights.

B)It prevents the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin.

C)It is used to treat deep vein thrombosis, pulmonary embolism, and selected cases of MIs.

D)It can cause excessive bleeding, which cannot be easily stopped.

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Page 9

Chapter 8: Drug Therapy for Congestive Heart Failure and Cardiac Arrhythmias

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following may be an adverse effect associated with antiarrhythmic agents?

A)Bronchodilation

B)Increased cardiac output

C)Other arrhythmias

D)Sinus tachycardia

Q2) Which one of the following statements for congestive heart failure is false?

A)It refers to the inability of the heart to cause a normal cardiac output.

B)It is caused by hypertension, valvular diseases and/or coronary artery disease.

C)It is treated with drugs which improve contractility and decrease preload and afterload.

D)It is defined by an ejection fraction of 50% or less.

Q3) ACE inhibitors __________.

A)reduce mostly contractility

B)are the drugs of last choice

C)can increase the development of atherosclerosis

D)can cause a severe cough and angioedema

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Page 10

Chapter 9: Drug Therapy for Pulmonary Disorders

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17 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following drugs are considered short-term relievers for asthma?

A) agonists

B)Oral steroids

C)Inhaled steroids

D)Leukotriene antagonists

Q2) Theophylline ______________.

A)is the generic name for caffeine

B)blocks muscarinic receptors causing bronchodilation

C)is often the oral drug of first choice

D)can cause a number of adverse drug interactions

Q3) Endogenous substances which cause bronchoconstriction include all of the following except

A)acetylcholine

B)histamine

C)epinephrine

D)leukotrienes

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11

Chapter 10: Anesthetic Agents

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which one of the following drugs does not have to be stopped before general surgery?

A)Warfarin

B)Oral hypoglycemics

C)H2 receptor blockers

D)Diuretics

Q2) Patients being seen soon after a nerve block might ____________.

A)be somewhat confused

B)show slightly increased muscular strength

C)show slightly decreased sensory function

D)be treated aggressively

Q3) A patient with COPD should receive which of the following drugs prior to surgery?

A)Bronchodilators

B)Aspirin

C)Anti-viral agents

D)Opioids

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12

Chapter 11: Drugs for the Treatment of Pain and Inflammation

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22 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following substances inhibits pain impulses?

A)substance P

B)Serotonin

C)prostaglandins

D)glutamate

Q2) The action of prostaglandins includes which of the following?

A)uterine relaxation

B)reduction in body temperature

C)stabilization of gastric mucosa

D)vasodilatation of renal blood supply

Q3) Which one of the following statements concerning cyclooxygenase or COX is correct?

A)COX 1 is involved in the production of some helpful prostaglandins.

B)COX 2 is induced with injury.

C)COX 3 may be present in the brain.

D)All of the above

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Chapter 12: Drug Treatment for Arthritis-Related Conditions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Rheumatoid arthritis or RA ________________.

A)is an inflammatory disease

B)is usually confined to joints

C)and its inflammation of the synovial linings is thought to be caused by B-cells

D)All of the above

Q2) Which one of the following statements is false?

A)Indomethacin is used frequently to reduce the inflammation and pain of acute gout.

B)Patients who do not respond to indomethacin or colchicine can be treated with prednisone.

C)Thiazide diuretics are often added to indomethacin to increase uric acid excretion by the kidneys.

D)Low doses of aspirin can decrease uric acid excretion by the kidneys.

Q3) Therapists should observe patients being treated with anti-rheumatic drugs for

A)skin rashes

B)easy bruising

C)dehydration

D)All of the above

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Chapter 13: Selective Topics in Endocrine Pharmacology

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Sample Questions

Q1) Hormonal estrogen replacement after menopause ________________.

A)reduces significantly hot flashes, atrophic vaginitis, osteoporosis and mood swings

B)reduces risk of cardiovascular diseases

C)does not increase the risk of breast cancer since cancer would have appeared before replacement therapy

D)is now prohibited

Q2) Which of the following statements is correct?

A)ACTH injections will causes a release of cortisol in Addison's disease.

B)A deficiency of the release of vasopressin can be treated with prolactin.

C)Growth hormone injections to adults without exercise have no significant effect on muscle strength.

D)All of the above

Q3) The post-coital drug mifepristone ________________.

A)antagonizes the effects of androgens causing uterine contractions

B)is effective only for 14 days after unprotected intercourse

C)causes the release of estrogens which prevents egg implantation

D)acts like misoprostol

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Chapter 14: Drug Treatment for Osteoporosis and Diabetes

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21 Verified Questions

21 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Bisphosphonates ______________.

A)reduce osteoclastic activity and bone reabsorption

B)are absorbed into the bone which reduces bone strength

C)are well absorbed from the GI-tract

D)must be taken with food

Q2) Glucose absorption from the intestines is inhibited by ______________.

A)alpha glucosidase inhibitors

B)dipeptidyl peptidase inhibitors

C)pramlintide

D)All of the above

Q3) Drug controlled diabetic patients ______________.

A)can be exercised regardless of glucose blood levels

B)require an increase in the premeal insulin dose for post-prandial exercise

C)can be helped with their insulin action by massaging the site of injection

D)can be helped in slowing their disease (type II) by regular exercise

Q4) Drug induced hypoglycemia ______________.

A)is more of a problem in type II than it is in type I diabetes

B)is more frequent with the use of metformin

C)can be experienced when taking a glitazone

D)can be caused by missing a meal after an injection of regular insulin

Page 16

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Chapter 15: Drugs for Epilepsy and Attention

Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder

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13 Verified Questions

13 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The main action of anti-epileptic drugs include all except _________.

A)enhancement of GABA action

B)blockade of Na channels

C)blockade of Ca channels

D)reduction of acetylcholine synthesis

Q2) The neurotransmitter which is inhibitory in the brain is _________.

A)glutamate

B)gamma amino butyric acid or GABA

C)acetylcholine

D)norepinephrine

Q3) Which drug would be contraindicated in children with ADHD?

A)d-Amphetamine

B)Clonidine

C)Tricyclic antidepressants

D)Atypical antipsychotics

Q4) If a person convulses,the therapist should _________.

A)try to restrain the individual

B)force a slurry of the epileptic drug into the mouth of the individual

C)place the individual gently on his/her side

D)place something including a finger between the teeth

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Chapter 16: Antispasticity Medications and Skeletal Muscle

Relaxants

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14 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The antispastic action of diazepam _____________.

A)is due to its binding to the GABAA gated Cl channel

B)occurs within the motor cortex and basal ganglia

C)occurs also by an additional direct effect on skeletal muscles

D)All of the above

Q2) Tizanidine _____________.

A)interacts with beta 1 receptors in the CNS

B)affects mostly monosynaptic pathways

C)treated patients must be watched for signs of tachycardia and hypertension

D)shows the least muscle weakness among antispastic medications

Q3) Cyclobenzaprine _____________.

A)acts in the spinal cord

B)can be used for months

C)can cause an uncomfortable dry mouth

D)relaxes muscles but has no effect on pain

Q4) Disadvantages of neurolytic agents include _____________.

A)risk of dysesthesias

B)involuntary muscle contractions

C)hypertrophy of skeletal muscles

D)All of the above

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Chapter 17: Pharmacologic Management of Degenerative Neurologic Disorders

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20 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which one the following combinations is mismatched?

A)Bromocriptine - stimulation of dopamine receptors

B)Selegiline - inhibition of MAO-B

C)Entacapone - inhibition of COMT

D)Amantadine - stimulation of dopamine synthesis

Q2) Memantine _____________.

A)is a cholinergic agonist

B)shows both high efficacy and toxicity

C)is often combined with acetylcholinesterase inhibitors

D)All of the above

Q3) Anticholinergics _____________.

A)are most effective in reducing tremors

B)cause sweating, diarrhea and bradycardia

C)are used in severe forms of PD with prominent bradydyskinesia

D)include rasagiline and tocapone

Q4) Which of the following is designed to bridge the gap between NSAIDs and DMARDs?

A)Corticosteroid

B)Interferons

C)Glatiramer

D)Methotrexate

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Chapter 18: Drug Treatment for Depression and Anxiety

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Sample Questions

Q1) GABA _______________.

A)opens Na channels causing depolarization

B)opens Cl channels causing hyperpolarization

C)closes Ca channels causing depolarization

D)closes Mg channels causing hyperpolarization

Q2) A drug with a short half-life as compared to a drug with a long half-life will cause

A)a more rapid onset of withdrawal syndrome

B)a milder withdrawal syndrome

C)a longer withdrawal syndrome

D)the same withdrawal syndrome with both drugs

Q3) The neurotransmitter system which seems to play no or only a minor role in the pathogenesis of depression is _______________.

A)a deficiency of the serotonin system

B)a deficiency of the norepinephrine system

C)excess of corticotrophin-releasing hormone

D)excessive acetylcholine

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20

Chapter 19: Drug Treatment for Schizophrenia and Bipolar Illness

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following signs of Schizophrenia respond poorly to anti-psychotic agents?

A)Hallucinations

B)Flattened emotions

C)Posturing

D)Echopraxia

Q2) Therapists treating exercising patients on anti-psychotic agents should be especially concerned about which of the following?

A)Impaired thermoregulation

B)Prolactinemia

C)Amenorrhea

D)Agranulocytosis

Q3) Treatment for tardive dyskinesia may include which of the following?

A)Adding an anticholinergic agent

B)Increasing the dose of the antipsychotic agent

C)Eliminating all dopaminergic blockade

D)Reducing GABAergic activity

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Page 21

Chapter 20: Antimicrobial Agents

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Sample Questions

Q1) A side effect of the long-term use of antibiotics for nearly all in the category includes which of the following?

A)Discoloration of the teeth

B)Clostridium difficile enteritis

C)Kidney failure

D)Liver failure

Q2) Which of the following physical activities should be avoided most by a patient taking ciprofloxacin?

A)Running on an incline

B)Exercise on a rowing machine

C)Back extension exercise on a roman chair

D)Exercise on a stairmaster

Q3) Which of the following is the most common cause of resistance to penicillins?

A)Inactivation of -lactamases

B)Alteration of target penicillin-binding proteins

C)Permeability barriers

D)Altered metabolic pathway

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22

Chapter 21: Antiviral Agents and Selected Drugs for Fungal

Infections

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Sample Questions

Q1) Reverse transcriptase inhibitors for HIV infection are responsible for preventing which of the following?

A)Uncoating of the virus

B)Conversion of viral RNA into DNA

C)Incorporating DNA into the chromosomes

D)Hydrolyzing viral proteins

Q2) HIV-related lipodystrophy is characterized by which of the following clinical signs?

A)Central fat accumulation

B)Dorsocervical fat pad

C)Gynecomastia

D)All of the above

Q3) Which of the following is true regarding viruses?

A)Replication reaches peak before symptoms appear.

B)Viruses can replicate independently from the host cells.

C)Viruses uncoat in a basic environment.

D)Antiviral agents inhibit multiple steps in the replication cycle.

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23

Chapter 22: Cytotoxic Agents and Immune Modulation

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Sample Questions

Q1) The occurrence of secondary cancers after treatment with anticancer drugs

A)is greatest in young individuals

B)occurs mostly after treatment of breast cancer

C)occurs between 20-40 years after primary therapy

D)occurs more often if chemotherapy was combined with radiation

Q2) A patient on cancer chemotherapy shows a suppressed blood cell profile.He might be treated with _______________.

A)epoetin to increase white blood cell

B)filgrastim to stimulate platelets

C)sargramostim to stimulate white blood cells

D)All of the above

Q3) Choice of a cytotoxic drug depends mostly on_______________.

A)the tissue of cancer origin

B)the age of the patient

C)the size of the tumor

D)the growth of the tumor

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24

Chapter 23: Drugs for Gastrointestinal Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who is currently receiving warfarin following a Deep Venous Thrombosis (DVT)takes bismuth subsalicylate for recurrent diarrhea.What of the following red flags should the therapist watch for indicating an adverse drug reaction?

A)Orthostatic hypotension

B)Bruising

C)Tachycardia

D)Peripheral neuropathy

Q2) In what way does regular exercise benefit patients with Irritable Bowel Syndrome (IBS)with constipation?

A)Causes fluid release into the large intestine

B)Reduces oral intake

C)Improves gastric emptying

D)Promotes reabsorption of fatty acids

Q3) Which of the following explains the mechanism of action of antacids?

A)Reduces secretion of mucus

B)Stimulates somatostatin

C)Neutralizes the gastric acidity

D)Reduces prostaglandin release

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25

Chapter 24: Vitamins and Minerals

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Sample Questions

Q1) Large doses of vitamin C can interfere with the action of certain drugs because vitamin C can significantly alter the ____________.

A)acidity of the urine

B)metabolism of drugs

C)peristalsis of the intestine

D)plasma protein binding

Q2) It is possible to overdose on MVMPs if taken in excess by ____________.

A)toddlers

B)AIDS patients

C)frail older individuals

D)cancer patients

Q3) A patient is using a sulfonamide and asks if it is OK to use a MVMP.The MVMP could cause problems because it contains ____________.

A)vitamin C

B)folic acid

C)iron

D)magnesium

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26

Chapter 25: Topical Drugs and Treatments Used in Wound Management

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following has been shown to significantly promote wound healing?

A)Silver based dressings

B)Human platelet derived growth factor

C)Human growth factor

D)Interferons

Q2) Alginate dressings ______________.

A)should be kept in place for at least 1 week

B)turn solid to provide gentle pressure

C)are indicated for dry wounds

D)are very well tolerated by patients

Q3) Which of the following drugs would not slow down the healing of a chronic wound?

A)Corticosteroids

B)Calcium channel blockers

C)NSAIDs

D)Immunosupressants

Q4) For debridement,it is recommended to use ______________.

A)only one agent

B)two agents

C)three agents

D)as many as needed

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Chapter 26: Complementary and Alternative Medicine in Pharmacology

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Sample Questions

Q1) According to a critical review of the literature,which of the following dietary supplements may be modestly effective for reducing either musculoskeletal or neurologic pain in studies of short duration?

A)SAM-e

B)Capsaicin

C)Glucosamine

D)Garlic

Q2) Which one of the following is contraindicated for the treatment of a 52-year-old woman who suffers from vasomotor instability related to menopause and who also has high risk factors for cardiac disease?

A)Hormone replacement therapy (estrogen and medroxyprogesterone)

B)SSRIs

C)Antiepilepsy drugs

D)Phytoestrogens such as soy

Q3) A dietary supplement can be characterized by which of the following?

A)Contains tobacco

B)Labeled as a drug

C)Designed to supplement the diet

D)Are safe to administer

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Chapter 27: Drugs of Abuse: Anabolic Steroids and Other Doping Agents

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Sample Questions

Q1) The abuser of anabolic steroids increases the risk of all of the following health risks except ___________.

A)reduced sperm production

B)heart attacks

C)muscle strain

D)liver cancer

Q2) Alcohol ___________.

A)in even small amounts has been linked to cardiovascular accidents

B)causes vasoconstriction and overheating

C)can aggravate an existing gastritis and ulcer

D)in high amounts consumed during pregnancy causes spinal abnormalities

Q3) Smoke contains a number of toxic and/or pleasure provoking chemicals.The least toxic of these is ___________.

A)carbon monoxide

B)nicotine

C)carbon dioxide

D)benz-alpha-pyrene

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