Foundations of Pathology Textbook Exam
Questions
Course Introduction
Foundations of Pathology provides an essential introduction to the mechanisms and principles underlying disease processes in the human body. The course covers fundamental concepts such as cellular responses to injury, inflammation, tissue repair, and the etiology of various diseases, alongside an overview of how genetic, environmental, and lifestyle factors contribute to pathological states. With an emphasis on molecular, cellular, and systemic changes occurring in disease, students will gain a comprehensive understanding of how normal physiological processes are disrupted, laying the groundwork for more advanced studies in clinical diagnosis and treatment.
Recommended Textbook
Pathology for the Health Professions 4th Edition by Ivan Damjanov MD PhD
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23 Chapters
495 Verified Questions
495 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Cell Pathology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Liquefactive necrosis typically occurs within an infarct of the:
A) Heart
B) Brain
C) Liver
D) Kidney
E) Pancreas
Answer: B
Q2) Chronic hemolysis is characterized by accumulation of an iron-containing brown pigment in the cytoplasm of liver cells.This brown pigment is called:
A) Melanin
B) Tyrosin
C) Hemosiderin
D) Ceruloplasmin
E) Bilirubin
Answer: C
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Inflammation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bradykinin is formed in the plasma through the activation of what element?
A) Bradykinin
B) Histamine
C) Complement membrane attack complex
D) Hageman factor
E) Prostaglandin
Answer: D
Q2) The center of an abscess contains:
A) Caseous necrosis
B) Calcification
C) Pus
D) Eosinophils
E) Fibrous tissue
Answer: C
Q3) Inflammation cannot develop:
A) In living tissue
B) After a minor laceration
C) Postmortem
D) From massive bleeding
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Immunopathology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Autoimmune disease presenting with hyperthyroidism is called:
A) Goodpasture's syndrome
B) Sarcoidosis
C) DiGeorge's disease
D) Graves' disease
E) Myasthenia gravis
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following is a common feature of AIDS?
A) Burkitt's lymphoma
B) Ankylosing spondylitis
C) Sarcoidosis
D) Kaposi's sarcoma
E) Graft-versus-host reaction
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Neoplasia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Carcinoma of the stomach has the highest incidence in:
A) England
B) Japan
C) United States
D) Israel
E) France
Q2) A lung tumor that has spread to the brain has metastasized via:
A) Lymphatics
B) Nerves
C) Blood vessels
D) Cerebrospinal fluid
E) Pleural fluid
Q3) Malignant tumors composed of embryonic cells are often called:
A) Malignant islet cell tumors
B) Gliomas
C) Lymphomas
D) Blastomas
E) Teratomas
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6
Chapter 5: Genetic and Developmental Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are considered possible causes of TORCH syndrome except:
A) Toxoplasma
B) Rubella virus
C) Cytomegalovirus
D) Herpesvirus
E) Alcohol
Q2) Which of the following is a basic feature of autosomal dominant traits?
A) The trait is apparent in homozygotes
B) The affected heterozygote has a 75% chance of transmitting the gene to each child
C) The trait is expressed in every other generation
D) The unaffected children of a symptomatic carrier do not transmit the trait
E) The gene accounting for the trait can be located on any of the 46 chromosomes
Q3) A tall,slightly effeminate male with eunuchoid body proportions and gynecomastia is found to have a 47,XXY karyotype.This presentation is typical of:
A) Turner's syndrome
B) Klinefelter's syndrome
C) Fragile X syndrome
D) Marfan's syndrome
E) Duchenne-type muscular dystrophy
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Fluid and Hemodynamic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tachypnea,caused by decompensated shock,could ultimately lead to:
A) ARDS
B) Active hyperemia
C) Acidosis
D) Hematoma of the brain
E) Hypotension
Q2) Red cheeks in a person who is blushing is an example of:
A) Hemorrhage
B) Petechiae
C) Ecchymoses
D) Active hyperemia
E) Passive hyperemia
Q3) Which organ is most affected by venous embolism?
A) Brain
B) Heart
C) Lungs
D) Liver
E) Kidneys
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8
Chapter 7: The Cardiovascular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Septal defects produce a distinct:
A) Low-pitched systolic heart murmur
B) High-pitched systolic heart murmur
C) Low-pitched diastolic heart murmur
D) High-pitched diastolic heart murmur
E) Absence of sound during the systolic phase of contraction
Q2) In the diastolic phase,the right side of the heart is filled with:
A) Peripheral venous blood
B) Pulmonary venous blood
C) Peripheral arterial blood
D) Pulmonary arterial blood
E) A mixture of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood
Q3) Lymph fluid is different than blood because it contains:
A) Red blood cells and white blood cells
B) Red blood cells and clotting factors
C) Red blood cells only
D) White blood cells only
E) Clotting factors only
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Chapter 8: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Acute laryngotracheobronchitis that is most common in children younger than 3 years old and is associated with a "barking" cough is known as:
A) Asthma
B) Interstitial pneumonia
C) Haemophilus influenzae
D) Croup
E) Bronchiolitis
Q2) Pleural tumors are usually associated with:
A) Pneumothorax
B) Hemothorax
C) Pyothorax
D) Pleural effusion
E) Empyema
Q3) Bronchiolitis of children is in most instances caused by:
A) Bacteria
B) Viruses
C) Fungi
D) Parasites
E) Pneumocystis carinii
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Page 10
Chapter 9: The Hematopoietic and Lymphoid System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Microcytic hypochromic anemia with low hemosiderin stores in the bone marrow responds favorably to treatment with:
A) Vitamin C
B) Vitamin B<sub>12</sub>
C) Folic acid
D) Iron
E) Selenium
Q2) Macrocytic,megaloblastic anemia occurs typically in association with:
A) Chronic dermatitis
B) Atrophic gastritis
C) Hypothyroidism
D) Old age
E) Chronic osteoarthritis
Q3) Which lymphoma is classified as a low-grade lymphoma?
A) Follicular lymphoma
B) Diffuse large-cell lymphoma
C) Burkitt's lymphoma
D) Immunoblastic lymphoma
E) Lymphoblastic lymphoma
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Chapter 10: The Gastrointestinal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The best serologic marker of carcinoma of the colon is:
A) Alpha-fetoprotein
B) Carcinoembryonic antigen
C) Chorionic gonadotropin
D) Alkaline phosphatase
E) Acid phosphatase
Q2) Dental caries begin with the formation of:
A) Pockets of periodontal inflammation
B) Bacterial plaques on the surface of the tooth
C) Periapical granuloma
D) Periapical abscess
E) Radicular cyst
Q3) The most common tumor of the salivary glands is:
A) Pleomorphic adenoma
B) Adenoid cystic carcinoma
C) Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
D) Adenocarcinoma of the major ducts
E) Squamous cell carcinoma
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12
Chapter 11: The Liver and Biliary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lack of bile adversely affects the absorption of all of the following vitamins except:
A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin B<sub>12</sub>
C) Vitamin K
D) Vitamin D
E) Vitamin E
Q2) What immunologic finding is most typical of primary biliary cirrhosis?
A) Antinuclear antibodies
B) Anti-smooth muscle antibodies
C) Antimitochondrial antibodies
D) Antimicrosomal antibodies
E) Antinucleolar antibodies
Q3) Unconjugated bilirubin circulates in the blood bound to:
A) Immunoglobulin G
B) Albumin
C) Haptoglobin
D) Transferrin
E) Ceruloplasmin
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13
Chapter 12: The Pancreas
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Sample Questions
Q1) Carcinoma of the pancreas is the:
A) Third most common cancer-related cause of death in males
B) Third most common cancer-related cause of death in females
C) Fourth most common cancer-related cause of death in males
D) Fourth most common cancer-related cause of death in females
E) Fifth most common cancer-related cause of death in males
Q2) Fat necrosis typically found in and around the pancreas in acute pancreatitis is caused by a release of:
A) Amylase
B) Lipase
C) Peptidase
D) Pepsin
E) Cholecystokinin
Q3) Which component of the pancreatic juices acts as a buffer and neutralizes the acidity of gastric juice?
A) Amylase
B) Lipase
C) Peptidase
D) Gastrin
E) Bicarbonate
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Chapter 13: The Urinary Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common urinary stones are composed of:
A) Calcium phosphate
B) Magnesium ammonium sulfate
C) Uric acid
D) Cystine
E) Xanthine
Q2) The most common malignant tumor of the urinary tract is:
A) Renal cell carcinoma
B) Wilms' tumor
C) Carcinoma of the renal pelvis
D) Carcinoma of the ureter
E) Carcinoma of the urinary bladder
Q3) All of the following are renal complications of diabetes except:
A) Diffuse glomerulosclerosis
B) Nodular glomerulosclerosis (Kimmelstiel-Wilson disease)
C) Arteriolar hyalinosis
D) Papillary necrosis
E) Crescentic glomerulonephritis
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15
Chapter 14: The Male Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A typical manifestation of gonorrhea in males is:
A) Orchitis
B) Cystitis
C) Inflammation of the seminal vesicles
D) Purulent urethritis
E) Ulceration of the glans penis
Q2) Which one of the following statements about infertility is true?
A) One in seven couples in the United States is infertile.
B) Infertility is more common among males than it is among females.
C) Treatment of infertility costs society thousands of dollars per year.
D) Major advances have been made in the treatment of male infertility.
E) Minor advances have been made in the treatment of female infertility by in vitro fertilization.
Q3) Which of the following testicular tumors may cause premature puberty?
A) Seminoma
B) Yolk sac carcinoma
C) Teratoma
D) Leydig cell tumor
E) Sertoli cell tumor
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Page 16
Chapter 15: The Female Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a protozoal cause of vaginitis?
A) Gardnerella vaginalis
B) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
C) Treponema pallidum
D) Trichomonas vaginalis
E) Candida albicans
Q2) All of the following tumors are squamous cell carcinomas except:
A) Carcinoma of the vulva
B) Carcinoma of the vagina
C) Carcinoma of the cervix
D) Carcinoma of the endometrium
E) Carcinoma of the labia majora
Q3) More than 50% of all cases of cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN)contain intranuclear inclusions of:
A) Gardnerella vaginalis
B) Herpes simplex virus type 1
C) Herpes simplex virus type 2
D) Human papillomavirus
E) Treponema pallidum
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Page 17
Chapter 16: The Breast
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Sample Questions
Q1) A disadvantage of breast biopsy is that:
A) It must be done under general anesthesia
B) It cannot provide a positive diagnosis if cancer is present
C) It does not provide enough sample material to stage tumors
D) It leaves a scar as a result of the sample size
E) It does not provide enough sample material to grade tumors
Q2) Acute mastitis is most often caused by:
A) Staphylococcus
B) Escherichia coli
C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D) Herpesvirus
E) Toxoplasma gondii
Q3) The condition in which males develop breasts is known as:
A) Polymastia
B) Polythelia
C) Amastia
D) Accessory breast tissue
E) Gynecomastia
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Chapter 17: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most common benign thyroid tumor?
A) Follicular adenoma
B) Follicular carcinoma
C) Anaplastic carcinoma
D) Papillary carcinoma
E) Medullary carcinoma
Q2) Thyroid enlargement is most often caused by:
A) Graves' disease
B) Papillary carcinoma
C) Follicular carcinoma
D) Medullary carcinoma
E) Idiopathic goiter
Q3) Graves' disease is caused by a disorder best classified as:
A) Benign tumor
B) Malignant tumor
C) Infection
D) Autoimmune disease
E) Hormonal insufficiency
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Chapter 18: The Skin
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bacteria that have developed resistance to antibiotics have become a major source of hospital-acquired infections.The most prominent is:
A) MRSA
B) AIDS
C) Staphylococci
D) Streptococci
E) Staphylococcus aureus
Q2) David was struck by lightning.How would this injury be classified?
A) Thermal injury
B) Mechanical trauma
C) Electrical injury
D) Radiation injury
E) Weather-related injury
Q3) A rash that the typically begins between the toes and spreads locally is known as:
A) Tinea unguium
B) Tinea corporis
C) Tinea cruris
D) Tinea capitis
E) Tinea pedis
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Bones and Joints
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Sample Questions
Q1) The extracellular organic matrix of bones is called:
A) Osteon
B) Osteoid
C) Osteoblast
D) Osteocyte
E) Osteoclast
Q2) The central ("midshaft")portion of long bones is called:
A) Epiphysis
B) Metaphysis
C) Diaphysis
D) Physis
E) Anapophysis
Q3) The bone lesions in renal osteodystrophy are caused by an excess of:
A) ACTH
B) Thyroglobulin
C) Parathyroid hormone
D) Aldosterone
E) Androgens
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Chapter 20: Muscles and Peripheral Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) Malignant tumor of striated muscle is called:
A) Leiomyosarcoma
B) Rhabdomyosarcoma
C) Liposarcoma
D) Synovial sarcoma
E) Malignant fibrous histiocytoma
Q2) Neurogenic atrophy of the skeletal muscles that causes paralysis on one side of the body is known as:
A) Paraplegia
B) Quadriplegia
C) Hemiplegia
D) Biplegia
E) CVA
Q3) Skeletal muscles are:
A) Composed of either type I (slow) or type II (fast) fibers
B) Composed of rapidly dividing cells
C) Composed of nondividing cells that can be stimulated to enter mitosis by a variety of cytokines
D) In close contact with nerves
E) Major storage sites of calcium and phosphate
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Chapter 21: The Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common cause of stroke in the United States is:
A) Arterial hypertension
B) Intracranial hypertension
C) Atherosclerosis
D) Congenital berry aneurysms
E) Arteriovenous communications in the brain
Q2) The most prominent clinical feature of Alzheimer's disease is:
A) Ataxia
B) Tremor
C) Dementia
D) Aphasia
E) Apraxia
Q3) In Parkinson's disease,which part of the brain shows depigmentation?
A) Frontal cortex
B) Occipital cortex
C) Cerebellum
D) Substantia nigra
E) Medulla oblongata
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Chapter 22: The Eye
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Sample Questions
Q1) Gerry is 45 years old and now needs glasses.The most likely cause of his vision problem is known as:
A) Myopia
B) Hyperopia
C) Astigmatism
D) Presbyopia
E) Cataracts
Q2) Which of the following diseases is the most important cause of cataracts?
A) Amyloidosis
B) Anthracosis
C) Diabetes mellitus
D) Gout
E) Hyperthyroidism
Q3) Which of the following is found in all patients with glaucoma?
A) Myopia
B) Mydriasis
C) Hypermetropia
D) Opacities of the lens
E) Increased intraocular pressure
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Page 24
Chapter 23: The Ear
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Sample Questions
Q1) Medications such as streptomycin,antimalarial drugs,and certain diuretics may cause deafness and are classified as:
A) Aural toxic
B) Otosclerosis
C) Ototoxic
D) Cochlear-toxic
E) Presbycusis
Q2) Jimmy,10 years old,is on the swim team.He practices 4 days a week for 3 hours a day.Jimmy returns from swim practice complaining of ear pain.What is the most likely cause of the pain?
A) Otitis media
B) Otitis externa
C) Cauliflower ear
D) Ménière's disease
E) Vertigo
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