Foundations of Nutrition Science
Textbook Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Foundations of Nutrition Science provides an in-depth exploration of the fundamental principles of human nutrition, including the digestion, absorption, and metabolism of nutrients. The course examines the role of macronutrients and micronutrients in promoting health, preventing disease, and supporting optimal physiological functions. Through scientific inquiry, students will gain an understanding of current dietary guidelines, nutrient composition of foods, and the interplay between nutrition, genetics, and lifestyle factors. Emphasis is placed on evidence-based practices and critical analysis of nutrition information to empower students with the knowledge necessary for making informed dietary choices and understanding the impact of nutrition across the lifespan.
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NUTR 1st Edition by Michelle McGuire
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Chapter 1: Why Does Nutrition Matter
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Q1) A relationship where one variable is directly altered by another is called
A) an intervention.
B) a cause-and-effect relationship.
C) a correlation.
D) an epidemiological relationship.
Answer: B
Q2) Researcher bias is avoidable by blinding researchers and subjects about who is receiving treatment.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Vitamins and minerals are classified as _____ because only small amounts are required each day.
A) macronutrients
B) micronutrients
C) phytochemicals
D) minor nutrients
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Choosing Foods Wisely
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Q1) The purpose of the Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Ranges (AMDRs) is A) to assure appropriate energy intake for a given physical activity level.
B) to assess the adequacy of vitamins and minerals in the diet.
C) to determine if the distribution of carbohydrates, proteins, and fats in the diet is healthy.
D) to determine if the energy provided by each meal is adequate.
Answer: C
Q2) When a consumer is comparing two similar food items, he or she can use the food label to decide
A) if one item contains more calories than the other.
B) if one item contains different ingredients than the other.
C) if one item contains more saturated fat than the other.
D) All of the above
E) A and C
Answer: D
Q3) It is difficult to compare similar food items using the Nutrition Facts panel because serving sizes have not been standardized.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 3: Body Basics
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Q1) Anabolic pathways are metabolic pathways that
A) release energy from the breakdown of complex molecules into simpler molecules.
B) use energy to synthesize complex molecules from simpler ones.
C) generate waste products for excretion.
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Answer: B
Q2) The pyloric sphincter allows
A) food to enter the stomach.
B) food to leave the stomach.
C) food to enter the large intestine.
D) food to leave the duodenum.
Answer: B
Q3) Carrier-mediated transport that requires energy is an example of A) an active transport mechanism.
B) a passive transport mechanism.
C) facilitated transport.
D) simple diffusion.
Answer: A
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Carbohydrates
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Q1) In both type 1 and type 2 diabetes, cells do not take up glucose appropriately. The cause for this is different in each disease. In type 1 diabetes insulin _____, while in type 2 diabetes insulin _____.
A) from the pancreas is not recognized by cells; is not produced B) is no longer produced by the pancreas; cannot interact with cells due to defects in the insulin receptor
C) from the pancreas is rapidly degraded; is made improperly
Q2) Starch molecules found in plants are made entirely of glucose molecules bound together.
A)True B)False
Q3) The most abundant monosaccharide in the human body is A) galactose. B) glucose. C) fructose. D) sucrose.
Q4) A carbohydrate is an organic compound made up of one or more sugar molecules. A)True B)False
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Chapter 5: Protein
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Q1) Chemical digestion of protein begins in the stomach, where _____ denatures proteins and _____ begins to digest them into smaller pieces.
A) hydrochloric acid, pepsinogen
B) hydrochloric acid, pepsin
C) gastrin, hydrochloric acid
D) gastrin, pepsin
Q2) An example of protein complementation is
A) steak and salmon.
B) rice and beans.
C) corn and rice.
D) whole grain and refined rice.
Q3) HCl is important for protein digestion for two reasons: 1) it denatures proteins in the stomach, and 2)
A) it stimulates gastrin release from the stomach.
B) it converts pepsinogen into pepsin.
C) it converts pepsin into pepsinogen.
D) it maintains the acid environment necessary in the small intestine for protein digestion.
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Chapter 6: Lipids
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Q1) Unsaturated fatty acids tend to be liquid at room temperature, while saturated fatty acids are usually solid at room temperature. The explanation for this difference is that
A) saturated fatty acids have a rigid structure that allows them to pack densely, making them solid at room temperature.
B) unsaturated fatty acids are usually short-chain fatty acids and therefore are usually oils.
C) double bonds are stabilized at room temperature, resulting in oil formation.
D) double bonds are destabilized at room temperature, resulting in more random movement of fatty acids in oils.
Q2) Concerns about the health effects of trans fatty acid consumption have led to
A) the requirement for trans fat content to be listed on the Nutrition Facts panel of packaged foods.
B) a ban on partial hydrogenation in the food industry.
C) recalls of many trans fatty acid-containing foods such as crackers.
D) no changes in the food or health care industries.
Q3) Triglycerides and phospholipids are structurally similar.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: The Vitamins
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Q1) Scurvy is a condition caused by vitamin D deficiency.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Dermatitis, dementia, diarrhea, and death are known as "the four Ds" associated with deficiency of what vitamin?
A) Thiamin
B) Riboflavin
C) Niacin
D) Pantothenic acid
Q3) The type of anemia that is seen in severe folate deficiency is characterized by large, immature blood cells. This type of anemia is called _____, _____ anemia.
A) microcytic, hypochromic
B) microcytic, megaloblastic
C) macrocytic, megaloblastic
D) megaloblastic, hypochromic
Q4) Chronic consumption of high doses of retinoids can have toxic effects on vision, liver function, and bone health.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Water and the Minerals
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Q1) The mineral content of a given food is influenced by all of the following except:
A) soil mineral content.
B) source of the food (animal or plant).
C) processing of the food.
D) vitamin content of the food.
Q2) Osteopenia refers to
A) achievement of peak bone mass.
B) improved bone density.
C) moderate loss of bone density.
D) the final stage of osteoporosis.
Q3) The fortification of salt with iodine in the United States has dramatically reduced the incidence of
A) anemia.
B) osteoporosis.
C) goiter.
D) hemochromatosis.
Q4) Only women are susceptible to age-related bone loss.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Energy Balance and Body Weight Regulation
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Q1) Physical fitness can reduce blood pressure, lower blood glucose levels, and lower blood lipid levels in
A) healthy-weight individuals.
B) overweight individuals.
C) obese individuals.
D) All of the above
Q2) According to the U.S. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, which BMI category represents overweight?
A) < 18.5
B) 18.5-24.9
C) 25.0-29.9
D) 30
Q3) Adaptive thermogenesis and nonexercise activity thermogenesis are
A) components of total energy expenditure.
B) different names for the same energy expenditure.
C) components of basal metabolism.
D) heat-generating activities that improve or maintain physical fitness.
Q4) The hypothalamus is the region of the brain that regulates hunger and satiety.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Life Cycle Nutrition
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Q1) The first milk produced by a lactating mother is called
A) mature milk.
B) fore-milk.
C) hind-milk.
D) colostrum.
Q2) Beginning immediately after conception, a pregnant woman needs to consume an additional 500 calories per day to support the baby's growth until her baby is born.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Bone mass increases rapidly during adolescence.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Gestational length refers to
A) the time from conception to birth.
B) the number of weeks between the mother's last menstrual cycle and birth.
C) the duration of the second and third trimesters.
D) the length of the child at birth.
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Chapter 11: Nutrition and Physical Activity
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Q1) The glycolytic system operates under
A) conditions when creatine phosphate is operating.
B) conditions when available oxygen is plentiful.
C) anaerobic conditions.
D) aerobic conditions.
Q2) An example of an event that relies on anaerobic pathways is
A) a 100-meter sprint (13 seconds).
B) a 1500-meter run (6 minutes).
C) a 10,000-meter run (35 minutes).
D) a marathon (3 hours and 30 minutes).
Q3) Recommended durations of physical activity can be achieved by exercising one day per week and activities thus do not need to be repeated on a daily basis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) As long as an individual consumes a varied diet that supplies adequate energy, vitamin and mineral needs will likely be met.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Disordered Eating
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Q1) Someone with bulimia nervosa will always purge by vomiting.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A person who goes to the kitchen at night and prepares food to eat but does not have any recollection of having done so is likely experiencing the disordered eating pattern called
A) bulimia nervosa.
B) binge-eating disorder.
C) nocturnal sleep-related eating disorder.
D) night eating syndrome.
Q3) The characteristics of people with anorexia nervosa include A) the desire to be around other people.
B) the enjoyment of a variety of foods.
C) obsessive behaviors.
D) a positive outlook.
Q4) People who suffer with muscle dysmorphia are driven to reduce muscle mass.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Alcohol, Health, and Disease
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Q1) The combination of heavy drinking and smoking dramatically increases the risk of developing cancer of the
A) esophagus.
B) kidney.
C) bladder.
D) prostate.
Q2) The products of fermentation are
A) ethanol and carbon dioxide.
B) methanol and carbon dioxide.
C) ethanol and oxygen.
D) ethanol and methanol.
Q3) When a chronic drinker develops a tolerance to alcohol it's because A) a group of liver enzymes that assist in alcohol metabolism have been activated.
B) there is increased activity of alcohol dehydrogenase and acetaldehyde dehydrogenase.
C) the brain adapts to better handle the effects of alcohol.
D) alcohol absorption is reduced.
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Chapter 14: Keeping Food Safe
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Q1) Food preservation techniques such as salting, smoking, fermentation, freezing, and irradiation serve the purpose of
A) reducing storage space needed because of shrinkage of the foods.
B) eliminating the need for refrigeration of the foods.
C) killing bacteria in food.
D) preparing the food to be prepared and consumed immediately.
Q2) Microorganisms prefer to live and replicate within temperatures between _____ degrees and _____ degrees Fahrenheit.
A) 10, 110
B) 20, 120
C) 40, 140
D) 60, 160
Q3) The radura symbol symbolizes that a food
A) is contaminated with high levels of radioactivity.
B) contains no radioactivity.
C) has been irradiated by scientists at NASA.
D) has been irradiated as a preservation technique.
Q4) Acrylamide can be formed and then consumed in French fries and potato chips.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Food Security, Hunger, and Malnutrition
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Q1) The Special Supplemental Nutrition Program for Women, Infants, and Children encourages mothers to purchase nutrient-dense foods rather than breastfeed.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Conditions that contribute to food insecurity include all of the following except:
A) physical limitations that impact one's ability to obtain food.
B) mental function or mental health issues that diminish one's ability to obtain food.
C) the inability to purchase food due to poverty.
D) insufficient food production occurring worldwide.
Q3) According to the U.S. Department of Labor, American households spend _____ per person on food each week.
A) $11
B) $22
C) $44
D) $88
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