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Foundations of Nursing introduces students to the essential principles and practices that underpin the nursing profession. This course explores the historical development of nursing, core concepts such as patient-centered care, health and wellness, and professional ethics. Students learn about the nursing process, communication techniques, critical thinking, and clinical decision-making. Emphasis is placed on basic nursing skills, infection control, safety, and documentation. Through theoretical instruction and practical experiences, students gain a solid understanding of the roles and responsibilities of nurses in diverse healthcare settings, preparing them for subsequent clinical practice and further studies in nursing.
Recommended Textbook
Fundamentals of Nursing Active Learning for Collaborative Practice 1st Edition by Yoost
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1050 Verified Questions
1050 Flashcards
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Q1) The nurse is determining the patient care assignments for a nursing unit. Which of the following responsibilities may be delegated to the licensed practical nurse?
A) Initiating the nursing care plans
B) Formulating nursing diagnoses
C) Assessing a newly admitted patient
D) Administering oral medications
Answer: D
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient admitted for the removal of an infected appendix. Which actions by the nurse would indicate an understanding of the 2012 hospital safety goals? (Select all that apply.)
A) Places an identification band on the right arm
B) Marks the surgical site with a black-felt pen
C) Checks medications three times before administration.
D) Washes hands between patients and/or when soiled.
E) Removes allergy bands prior to transfer to surgery.
Answer: A, B, C, D
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Q1) Enduring ideas about what a person considers is desirable or has worth in life is known as a:
A) value.
B) first-order belief
C) higher order belief
D) stereotype
Answer: A
Q2) Which action observed by a nurse manager may be indicative of codependency behavior?
A) A staff nurse orders extra desserts for a patient diagnosed with morbid obesity.
B) A medication nurse administers scheduled pain medication to patients as ordered.
C) A respiratory therapist teaches a patient's wife how to adjust an oxygen mask.
D) A nursing assistant encourages a patient to assist with the morning bath.
Answer: A
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Q1) The nurse is administering a bath to a hearing-impaired patient. The nurse should: (Select all that apply.)
A) speak very loudly into the patient's right ear.
B) control background noise as much as possible.
C) turn away when responding to a question.
D) adjust the lighting in the room.
E) be wary of consistent affirmative answers.
Answer: B, D, E
Q2) A patient with an inoperable brain tumor says to the nurse, "I just want to die now. It's going to happen soon anyway." Which of the following would be the most appropriate response?
A) "Don't worry about that right now. It'll be OK."
B) "I disagree with what you just said!"
C) "Honey, now don't you talk like that."
D) "Tell me why you are saying that."
Answer: D
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Q1) Professional nursing requires a commitment to lifelong learning because: (Select all that apply.)
A) treatment modalities and technology continue to advance.
B) there are always new things to memorize and store in memory.
C) nurses are expected to update and maintain competency.
D) critical thinking is essential in nursing.
E) nursing school gives the nurse all he/she needs to be competent.
Q2) The nurse has finished her shift and is on her way home. During the shift, one of the patients attempted to climb out of bed and fell. On her way home the nurse is thinking about what she could have done differently to prevent the fall. This is an example of using:
A) evidence
B) standards
C) attributes or traits.
D) reflection
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Q1) The nurse writes a short-term goal for a patient scheduled for surgery in the morning. The goal that contains all of the necessary elements is:
A) The patient will walk to the bathroom within 48 hours after surgery.
B) The patient will walk to the bathroom without experiencing shortness of breath within 48 hours after surgery.
C) The patient will walk to the bathroom without experiencing shortness of breath.
D) The patient will walk to the bathroom without experiencing shortness of breath after surgery.
Q2) The term nursing process was first used in 1955. In 1973, the American Nurses Association identified five specific steps of the process. The essential step that was added in 1991 is:
A) assessment.
B) diagnosis.
C) outcome identification.
D) evaluation.
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Q1) The unlicensed nursing assistive person (UAP) reports to the nurse that a patient is crying during a comedy show on television. The nurse's best response should be:
A) "Maybe the patient doesn't think the show is funny."
B) "Don't worry about it. Her daughter says this is normal."
C) "I will go visit her right away and see what is going on."
D) "Just document what you observe in your notes."
Q2) An in-depth health history: (Select all that apply.)
A) includes demographic data.
B) lists the patient's allergies.
C) contains the family history of diseases.
D) explains the patient's health promotion practices.
E) is completed only once and can be recalled electronically.
Q3) The nurse is performing an assessment of a patient's right kidney. The nurse bluntly strikes the area of the costovertebral angle while observing the patient's reaction. The physical assessment technique being used is:
A) inspection.
B) percussion.
C) palpation.
D) auscultation.
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Q1) Nursing students are analyzing the following nursing diagnostic statement during a study group session. Acute pain related to pressure on lumbar spinal nerves as evidenced by a pain level of 9, patient verbalizations of pain, and grimacing when walking. The students would be correct if they stated that the etiology of the patient's problem is:
A) patient verbalizations of pain.
B) acute pain.
C) pressure on lumbar spinal nerves.
D) grimacing when walking.
Q2) The nurse has identified several problems for a patient scheduled for a bone marrow transplant. By formulation of nursing diagnoses, the nurse:
A) embraces "cook book medicine" and rejects professional autonomy.
B) uses a language that is difficult to interpret by legislators.
C) is able to communicate with other nurses but not other disciplines.
D) facilitates communication of patient needs and promotes accountability.
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Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who has undergone abdominal surgery. The patient stated prior to surgery that "I don't think I'll be able to handle this if I get a colostomy. I wouldn't know how to manage it." There is no "next of kin" listed in the patient's record. The patient is complaining of severe surgical pain. The nurse is correct when addressing which nursing diagnosis first?
A) Pain
B) Alteration in body image
C) Knowledge deficit
D) Risk for falls
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient who has had abdominal surgery but has developed a slight temperature. A patient-centered goal would be:
A) the patient's temperature will return to normal within 24 hours.
B) the nurse will medicate the patient for surgical pain every 4 hours.
C) skin integrity will be maintained until the patient is ambulatory.
D) the patient will ambulate 10 feet by post-op day 2.
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Q1) The nurse is providing care for a patient of the Jehovah's Witness faith. Based on the nurse's knowledge of the patient's religious beliefs, the nurse would question which of the following orders?
A) Obtain vital signs every shift
B) Regular diet as tolerated
C) Activity as tolerated
D) Infuse 1 unit packed red blood cells
Q2) Which of the following is a direct care intervention?
A) Administration of an injection
B) Making the change-of-shift report
C) Collaborating with members of the health care team
D) Ensuring availability of needed equipment
Q3) Which of the following cannot be delegated?
A) Obtaining vital signs
B) Assessment of lung sounds
C) Bathing a patient
D) Ambulating a patient
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Q1) The nurse is charting using paper nursing notes. The nurse is aware that:
A) attorneys are not allowed access to medical records during litigation.
B) when mistakes are made in documentation, the nurse should scribble out the entry.
C) only one nurse should document on a sheet so that it can be removed in case of error.
D) the medical record is the most reliable source of information in any legal action.
Q2) Which of the following is true regarding nursing documentation?
A) Standards for documentation are established by a national commission.
B) Medical records should be accessible to everyone.
C) Documentation should not include the patient's diagnosis.
D) High-quality nursing documentation reflects the nursing process.
Q3) The nurse is preparing to administer medications to the patient. Prior to doing so, she/he compares the provider orders with the:
A) flow sheet
B) Kardex
C) MAR
D) admission summary
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Q1) The nurse is providing care for a patient who demands discharge from the hospital against the physician's orders. In order to remove liability from the institution and the physician, the nurse has the patient review and sign the:
A) Against Medical Advice form.
B) Code of Academic and Clinical Conduct.
C) Nursing Code of Ethics.
D) Informed consent form.
Q2) The nurse realizes that a medication error has been made. The nurse then reports the error and takes responsibility to ensure patient safety despite personal consequences. This nurse has exhibited:
A) autonomy.
B) accountability.
C) justice.
D) advocacy.
Q3) In the nursing profession, ethical issues:
A) are rare occurrences, but take a great deal of time to resolve.
B) have required The Joint Commission to mandate ethics committees.
C) most frequently lead to legal intervention in patient care matters.
D) lead to ethics committees made up entirely by nurses.
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Q1) The leadership theory that assumes that leaders are born with certain leadership skill that few people possess is known as:
A) trait theory.
B) behavioral theory.
C) situational theory.
D) transformational theory.
Q2) The nurse has a question regarding scope of practice and delegation. Where should the nurse seek clarification? (Select all that apply.)
A) The state's Nurse Practice Act
B) Theory X management
C) Nurse's Code of Ethics
D) The NCSBN website
E) NCSBN journal articles
Q3) The nurse is acting in the planning function as a manager. Which of the following stages should be completed first?
A) Set the plan
B) Assess the situation and future trends
C) Convert plan into action statement
D) Set the goals
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Q1) The American Nurses Association (ANA) standards of professional performance require nurses to use research findings in practice. This means that nurses:
A) need to regulate their practice according to the latest journal articles.
B) nurses need to use the best available evidence to guide practice decisions.
C) nurses only need to participate in research while in advanced practice.
D) may use evidence-based practice to develop procedures but not policies.
Q2) Nurses use the new information in their practice. In the process of implementing EBP, the nurse: (Select all that apply.)
A) develops clinical questions.
B) creates workshops and in-services.
C) seek answers to support the clinical decision.
D) applies finding to patients.
E) publishes a bulletin.
Q3) A Magnet hospital is characterized by: (Select all that apply.)
A) excellent medical outcomes.
B) a high level of nursing job satisfaction.
C) a low number of grievances.
D) nursing care leading excellent patient outcomes.
E) a high nurse turnover rate.
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Q1) In determining patient goals, the nurse should:
A) allow patients to identify what is most important to them.
B) take the lead and determine what is best for the patient.
C) should focus on health promotion and staying healthy.
D) explain the importance of avoiding complications.
Q2) During patient teaching led by the nurse with goals established through cooperation of the nurse and patient, the patient asks questions as needed and the nurse answers. This is known as:
A) formal teaching.
B) informal teaching.
C) both formal and informal teaching.
D) psychomotor teaching.
Q3) The nurse is preparing a teaching plan and is applying evidence-based practice. To promote involvement, the nurse must:
A) provide the latest professional literature to the patient.
B) ensure that the patient understands relevant information.
C) use only one teaching method to reduce confusion.
D) not review previously learned information.
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Q1) The nurse can see data relationships, can make judgments based on trends and patterns in the data, is skilled in information management and the use of computer technology, and is able to suggest areas for IT system improvement. The nurse's level of informatics competency can be described as:
A) beginner.
B) experienced.
C) specialist.
D) innovator.
Q2) Computerized provider order entry (CPOE) allows orders to be directly communicated to the appropriate department. Other advantages of CPOE include:
A) decrease in number of transcribing errors.
B) enhanced provider acceptance because of new technology.
C) decreased work flow issues in general.
D) less dependence on technology and computers.
Q3) Computerized provider order entry (CPOE):
A) allows orders to be communicated to the appropriate department.
B) creates an intermediary for order transcription.
C) slows documentation and provider communication.
D) may lead to increased ordering and transcription errors.
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Q1) The World Health Organization defines health as
A) the absence of disease.
B) the lack of infirmity.
C) complete well-being.
D) being independent of fiscal responsibility.
Q2) Several models exist that describe the relationship between health and wellness. The model used to understand the interrelationship between elements of basic requirements for survival and the desires that drive personal growth and development and is represented as a pyramid is:
A) Maslow's hierarchy of needs.
B) Health Belief Model.
C) Health Promotion Model.
D) Holistic Health Model.
Q3) Self-concept refers to the way in which individuals perceive unchanging aspects of themselves, such as social character, cognitive abilities, physical appearance, and body image. As such, self-concept:
A) if negative, will allow the patient to compensate for weaknesses.
B) if positive, will cause the patient to see challenges as devastating.
C) is a concept that is derived from the patient internally.
D) depends on relationships with family and friends.
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Q1) A nurse is assessing an adolescent female who began menstruating 2 years ago. She has grown 1/2 inch in the last 2 years but has not gained any weight. What action by the nurse is most appropriate?
A) Ask the teen to provide a 24-hour diet recall.
B) Talk to the teen about healthy dietary practices.
C) Reassure the teen she will have a growth spurt soon.
D) Collaborate with the provider for endocrine testing.
Q2) The nurse is teaching parents about actions to assist in developing a critical skill in the concrete operations phase of Piaget's developmental theory. What activities does the nurse suggest the parents participate with their child in? (Select all that apply.)
A) Separating a collection of toy horses into functions each type performs.
B) Exploring a space and astronomy museum and planetarium together.
C) Making a scrapbook of leaves sorted by color or type of tree.
D) Having the child explore how common objects can be used for different purposes.
E) Asking the child to describe an event from several different points of view.
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Q1) The nurse plans to develop a comprehensive screening tool to use with young adults, assessing their lifestyles and healthy living habits. What barrier must the nurse plan to overcome in order to make this screening successful?
A) Young adults may not see a health provider regularly.
B) Young adults are so diversified that a screening tool may not be appropriate.
C) Young adults have too many risky lifestyle behaviors to make education relevant.
D) Young adults are too busy with their lives to see a health care provider regularly.
Q2) A young nursing student is assessing an older patient. The nurse questions whether or not to take a sexual history. What response by the faculty is best?
A) Since procreation is not an issue, you do not need to discuss this.
B) Only discuss this topic if you are comfortable in doing so.
C) Ask the patient if he or she wants to talk about sexuality.
D) Sexuality is a basic human need and needs to be assessed.
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Q1) A nurse is told in the hand-off report that a patient is afebrile. What assessment finding correlates with this statement?
A) Blood pressure 152/98 mm Hg
B) Temperature 98.4° F (36.8° C)
C) Pulse 82 beats/min
D) Respirations 16 breaths/min
Q2) A nurse notes a patient has abnormal vital signs. What action by the nurse is best?
A) Document the findings.
B) Notify the provider.
C) Compare with prior readings.
D) Retake the vital signs.
Q3) A nurse is caring for a patient who has a high temperature. The nurse plans to help the patient regain a normal temperature through conduction. What technique does the nurse use?
A) Placing a cooling fan in the patient's room
B) Putting ice packs in the patient's axillae
C) Spraying the patient with a fine mist of water
D) Turning the temperature down in the room
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Q1) The nurse is assessing a patient's alcohol intake. What question is most appropriate?
A) "Do you drink alcohol at all?"
B) "You don't drink much do you?"
C) "When was your last drink?"
D) "How much alcohol do you drink daily?"
Q2) A nurse conducting the general survey of a patient includes which items? (Select all that apply.)
A) Hygiene and grooming
B) Affect and mood
C) Sex and gender orientation
D) Sexual preferences and practices
E) Age
Q3) A nurse observes a patient sitting up in bed, leaning forward with the arms braced against the over-the-bed table. What action by the nurse is best?
A) Assess the patient for a barrel-chest appearance.
B) Palpate the patient's abdomen for tenderness.
C) Inspect the patient's spine for deformities.
D) Ask the patient if he/she is experiencing dizziness.
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Q1) The nurse is using Giger and Davidhizar's Transcultural Assessment Model to gain information about a patient from an unfamiliar culture. What questions does the nurse ask that are relevant to this mode? (Select all that apply.)
A) "Who would you like present to help answer questions?"
B) "What do you believe caused your current illness?"
C) "How important is planning for the future to you?"
D) "Why don't you want to shake my hand?"
E) "What activities would you do to control your health?"
Q2) A nurse is working with a patient who has limited English proficiency. What action by the nurse is best?
A) Use a qualified interpreter.
B) Ask family members to translate.
C) Use drawings and pictures.
D) Speak in simple sentences.
Q3) What does the nursing student learn about race?
A) It is biologically based.
B) It is a social construct.
C) It is chosen by the person.
D) It helps establish superiority.
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Q1) The nurse concerned about a patient's spiritual needs can best address this by which action?
A) Leaving a note on the chart for other professional
B) Calling the chaplain to come see the patient
C) Collaborating during interdisciplinary rounds
D) Informing the provider of the patient's needs
Q2) A patient died suddenly in the emergency department. Which action by the nurse best provides the family connection with others?
A) Offering the family written information on grief support groups.
B) Asking the family if there is someone the nurse can call for them.
C) Having the hospital social worker or chaplain sit with the family.
D) Offering to stay with the family during this difficult time.
Q3) A patient has the nursing diagnosis Spiritual Distress. What assessment by the patient best indicates that an important goal has been met?
A) Observed praying quietly
B) Indecisive about treatment
C) Asks nurse if God exists
D) Executes living will
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Q1) A nurse is orienting to a new job in a home health care agency and is told that most of her patients need tertiary prevention. What activity does the nurse plan to include in the daily routine?
A) Household safety checks
B) Well-baby checkups
C) Antibiotic administration
D) Monthly blood pressure assessments
Q2) A community was devastated by a tornado several months ago. What nursing diagnosis would be most appropriate for the nurse to consider?
A) Social isolation
B) Deficient community resources
C) Ineffective community coping
D) Deficient community health
Q3) When planning interventions for a community, what action by the nurse is best?
A) Involve community leaders in planning.
B) Create a plan of action addressing priorities.
C) Determine what resources are available.
D) Attempt to find funding for the plan.
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Q1) A nurse is planning sexuality education programs. Which topics are important to each age group? (Select all that apply.)
A) Adolescents: contraception
B) Adolescents: infertility
C) Young adults: conception
D) Middle adulthood: sexual dysfunction
E) Old age: decreased sexuality
Q2) An emergency department (ED) manager wants to improve care for victims of sexual assault. What action by the manager is best?
A) Designate a private area of the ED for examinations.
B) Establish a SART team for the department.
C) Ask nurses to volunteer to be advocates for these patients.
D) Have victims examined immediately, rather than waiting their turn.
Q3) A male patient takes a medication known to cause erectile dysfunction. What action by the nurse is best?
A) State, "If this medication has bad side effects, talk to your doctor."
B) Ask, "Are you having any sexual problems in your life right now?"
C) Give the patient written information on the side effects of the drug.
D) State, "Many men have erectile dysfunction on this drug."
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Q1) The nurse displays an understanding of high-risk populations for MRSA when identifying which group as the lowest risk?
A) Prison inmates
B) College dorm residents
C) Team athletes
D) Food service workers
Q2) The nurse is providing education to a cardiac patient who has multiple life stressors that are impacting the patient's health. Which of the following statements by the patient indicate he has a good understanding of actions he can take to reduce his stressors?
(Select all that apply.)
A) "I should change my job."
B) "I should plan some downtime."
C) "I should meet with a financial counselor."
D) "I should talk with my family about my situation."
E) "I should make my family go to counseling with me."
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Q1) The nurse's stethoscope most correctly represents which possible link in the chain of infection?
A) Source
B) Portal of exit
C) Portal of entry
D) Mode of transmission
Q2) The nurse is preparing to perform suctioning on a new tracheostomy with the potential for forceful expulsion of secretions. What PPE should be worn?
A) Gloves and eyewear
B) Gloves, gown, and mask
C) Eyewear and gown
D) Eyewear, mask, gown, gloves
Q3) The nurse knows that which of the following skills does not require the use of sterile technique?
A) NG tube insertion
B) Foley catheterization
C) Tracheostomy care
D) PICC line insertion
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Q1) The nurse is preparing to give a patient a complete bed bath. What area of the body should be bathed first?
A) Hands
B) Eyes
C) Face
D) Arms
Q2) Which tool is used to determine risk for impaired skin integrity?
A) Braden scale
B) Glasgow scale
C) Vanderbilt scale
D) MMSE scale
Q3) The nurse is bathing a patient and notes reddened skin above the coccyx. Which action by the nurse is appropriate? (Select all that apply.)
A) Apply a barrier cream and massage the area.
B) Document and describe the area and report to the physician.
C) Wash and dry the area and position patient without pressure on coccyx.
D) Report the area to the charge nurse.
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Q1) The nurse appropriately delegates care of her patient to the properly trained UAP when she: (Select all that apply.)
A) assigns the UAP to reposition the patient.
B) assigns the UAP to complete the MORSE falls risk scale.
C) assigns the UAP to provide range-of-motion exercises.
D) assigns the UAP to ambulate the patient in the hallway.
Q2) The nurse is preparing to reposition the patient in bed. What is the first step in this process?
A) Position the patient's arms across his/her chest.
B) Lower the side rails.
C) Grasp the draw sheet.
D) Raise the bed to a working height.
Q3) The nurse is correctly assisting the patient in using a cane when the patient demonstrates the following: (Select all that apply.)
A) The top of the cane is level with the patient's bent elbow.
B) The patient holds the cane on his/her weaker side.
C) The patient moves the cane forward first.
D) The patient's arm is comfortably bent when walking.
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Q1) The nurse knows that a hydrocolloid dressing is appropriate for the following type of wound:
A) A wound with a large amount of drainage
B) A wound that is tunneling
C) A postsurgical incision with staples
D) A wound with a moderate amount of drainage
Q2) The nurse is performing a wet/damp to dry dressing change when the patient begins to complain of severe pain. What should the nurse do first?
A) Notify the physician.
B) Notify the wound care nurse.
C) Stop the procedure.
D) Give the patient pain medication.
Q3) The nurse knows a stage III pressure ulcer is:
A) a pressure ulcer that involves exposure of bone and connective tissue.
B) a pressure ulcer that does not extend through the fascia.
C) a pressure ulcer that does not include tunneling.
D) a partial-thick wound that involves the epidermis.
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Q1) The nurse knows that a deficiency in vitamin C can result in the following conditions: (Select all that apply.)
A) Stiff joints
B) Osteopenia
C) Petechiae
D) Loose teeth
E) Bleeding gums
F) None of the above
Q2) The nurse is planning dietary education for her patient. What food labeling consideration should she be aware of when planning her education? (Select all that apply.)
A) Ask patients if they read food labels.
B) Assess their level of understanding of food labels.
C) Encourage them to read the food labels.
D) Explain to them all food labels are different.
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Q1) The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a patient with visual alterations. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further education?
A) "I should make sure the passageways are wide."
B) "I should remove all the throw rugs."
C) "I should keep the lights dim."
D) "I can use a cane to feel for objects in front of me."
Q2) A nurse is caring for a patient with a stroke that has impacted her ability to see. Which area of the brain was likely impacted by the stroke that is responsible for visual function?
A) Parietal lobes
B) Frontal lobes
C) Occipital lobes
D) Temporal lobes
Q3) The nurse is caring for a patient with depression. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further education?
A) "Depression can be caused by chemical changes in the brain."
B) "Depression is always treated with medication."
C) "Depression is a mood disorder."
D) "Depression can have a rapid onset."
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Q1) The nurse is seeing a patient during a follow-up visit after discharge in which the patient had a nursing diagnosis of Ineffective coping. Which statement by the patient would be a cause for concern?
A) "I am sleeping better most nights."
B) "I feel less anxious."
C) "I do not need to do the relaxation exercises anymore."
D) "I am continuing my exercises every day."
Q2) The nurse is assessing the patient's use of coping skills in response to stressful situations. Which of the following questions is the most useful?
A) "Have you been evaluated for stress?"
B) "Do you have someone you can go to for help when you are stressed?"
C) "How have you managed stressful situations in the past?"
D) "Does stress cause you to experience muscle tension or headaches?"
Q3) The nurse knows that one theory explaining the variation in response to stress among individuals is called:
A) stress appraisal.
B) sense of coherence.
C) allostasis.
D) homeostasis.
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Q1) The nurse knows that dyssomnias are: (Select all that apply.)
A) difficultly getting to sleep.
B) stages of sleep.
C) inability staying asleep.
D) being excessively sleepy.
E) falling asleep during the day.
Q2) The nurse knows the following interventions will help improve sleep quality during hospitalization: (Select all that apply.)
A) Maintaining sleep routines
B) Minimizing disruptions
C) Providing light snacks
D) Using sleep medications
E) Using relaxation measures
Q3) The nurse knows the following changes in sleep patterns occur in the older adult: (Select all that apply.)
A) Sleep increases to approximately 8 to 10 hours a night.
B) REM sleep is shorter.
C) Stage 4 NREM is decreased.
D) The use of medication may interfere with sleep.
E) Older adults awaken more at night.
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Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who is to have a noncontrast MRI scan performed. Which assessment finding leads the nurse to report that the patient may not be able to have the test?
A) The patient has an implanted insulin pump.
B) The patient is breastfeeding her newborn infant.
C) The patient is severely allergic to iodine and latex.
D) The patient has profound hearing loss.
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient who has a deep leg wound that is badly infected. Which laboratory test results will the nurse expect to find in the patient's chart?
A) C-reactive protein (CRP) 6.5 mg/dL
B) Serum creatinine 0.8 mg/dL
C) Serum bilirubin 0.5 mg/dL
D) Prothrombin time (PT) 11.5 sec
Q3) The nurse is caring for a patient who recently had a liver biopsy. To whom must the nurse give the results?
A) The patient
B) The patient's physician
C) The patient's insurance provider
D) The patient's spouse
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Q1) During discharge teaching, the nurse is to give the patient a signed, dated, and timed prescription from the physician for medications to be taken at home. Which prescription drug order needs to be corrected before it is given to the patient?
A) Warfarin (Coumadin) 5 mg PO daily before dinner
B) Methotrexate (Trexall) 8 tablets PO once weekly on Saturdays
C) Levothyroxine (Synthroid) 137 mcg PO daily before breakfast
D) Zolpidem (Ambien) 5 mg PO at bedtime as needed for sleep
Q2) The nurse administers a medication to the patient. Which symptoms indicate that the patient is having an allergic reaction rather than a side effect?
A) Hair loss and sweaty skin
B) Nausea and constipation
C) Heartburn and nasty taste in the mouth
D) Itchy rash and difficulty breathing
Q3) Which medication has the highest potential for abuse?
A) Methylphenidate (Ritalin) - schedule II
B) Alprazolam (Xanax) - schedule IV
C) Acetaminophen & codeine (Tylenol #3) - schedule III
D) Diphenoxylate & atropine (Lomotil) - schedule V
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Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who has been taking ibuprofen (Advil, Motrin) 800 mg TID for the last several months to relieve arthritis pain in her knees. Which assessment finding must be reported to the physician promptly?
A) The patient has abdominal pain and pale skin.
B) The patient has constipation and takes stool softeners daily.
C) The patient enjoys a glass of wine every Friday and Saturday evening.
D) The patient has gained 15 lb in the last 3 months.
Q2) What is the priority nursing assessment for a patient who his receiving postoperative epidural analgesia with hydromorphone (Dilaudid)?
A) Respiratory rate, depth, and pattern
B) Skin underneath the epidural dressing
C) Bladder scanning to check for urinary retention
D) Itching on the trunk and/or extremities
Q3) Which patient is best suited for PCA analgesia?
A) A patient who is confused after a head injury
B) A patient recovering from total hysterectomy surgery
C) A patient who has severe psychogenic pain
D) A patient with arthritis who is unable to push the nurse call button
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Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient with advanced colon cancer. The patient is to have surgery to relieve a bowel obstruction that has been causing unrelenting vomiting and abdominal pain. What type of surgery will this patient undergo?
A) Palliative
B) Reconstructive
C) Diagnostic
D) Ablative
Q2) Which of the following patients would benefit from preoperative teaching about splinting of incisions to minimize discomfort? (Select all that apply.)
A) Patient having coronary bypass graft surgery
B) Patient having open breast biopsy
C) Patient having total hip replacement surgery
D) Patient having lumbar spine decompression surgery
E) Patient having surgery to repair retinal detachment
F) Patient having total abdominal hysterectomy
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Q1) The preceptor is working with a new nurse to suction a patient through his new tracheostomy. Which actions by the new nurse indicate need for additional teaching about the procedure? (Select all that apply.)
A) The suction is not applied to the catheter until it is being withdrawn.
B) The patient is placed in the supine position prior to suctioning.
C) The suction catheter is twirled side to side as it is being withdrawn.
D) Suction is applied continuously as the catheter is withdrawn.
E) The patient's oxygen is reapplied between suction attempts.
F) Water-soluble lubricant is applied to the suction catheter before insertion.
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient with a history of left-sided congestive heart failure who is acutely short of breath. The nurse hears fine crackles throughout both lung fields and notes that the patient's pulse oximetry is only 88% on 4 L of oxygen. What is the
priority intervention of the nurse?
A) Administer the ordered intravenous diuretic.
B) Prepare for insertion of a chest tube.
C) Suction secretions from the patient's respiratory tract.
D) Have the patient use the ordered incentive spirometer.
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Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who is to receive a transfusion of packed red blood cells. The patient has a 22-gauge IV in his arm with 0.9% normal saline infusing. What intervention will the nurse perform before obtaining the packed red blood cells from the blood bank?
A) Identify the blood group, type, and expiration date with another nurse.
B) Insert an 18- or 20-gauge angiocatheter into the patient's other arm.
C) Program the IV infusion pump so that the transfusion will complete within 4 hours.
D) Obtain a new microdrip tubing and extension tubing from the clean utility room.
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient who is admitted to the hospital with dehydration and gastroenteritis. The patient attempted to walk to the bathroom and fainted right after getting out of bed. Which is the most likely cause of the patient's collapse?
A) Orthostatic hypotension
B) Circulatory overload
C) Hemolytic reaction
D) Catheter embolism
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Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who has had a severe stroke and requires assistance to use the toilet. Which goal is the highest priority for this patient?
A) The patient will remain continent with no perineal skin breakdown.
B) The patient will state satisfaction with use of gait belt for toilet transfers.
C) The patient will regain ability to pull up clothing after using the toilet.
D) Privacy will be provided once the patient is properly positioned on the toilet.
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient who is to have testing for fecal occult blood. What step will the nurse perform during this testing?
A) Keep the patient on a clear liquid diet for 72 hours.
B) Send the samples to the laboratory while they are still warm.
C) Inform the patient that several stool samples will be needed.
D) Use a sterile container when collecting the stool samples.
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Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient with an indwelling urinary catheter caused by severe prostate enlargement. Which is the priority nursing diagnosis for this patient?
A) Risk for infection r/t indwelling urinary catheter
B) Disturbed body image r/t presence of catheter
C) Risk for contamination r/t potential leakage of urine on clothing
D) Urinary retention r/t blockage of bladder outlet
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient who is experiencing stress incontinence. Which goal is the most important for this patient?
A) The patient will carefully complete a voiding diary for the duration of 2 weeks.
B) The patient will not experience involuntary urination during coughing or sneezing.
C) The patient will be able to recognize and effectively manage perineal dermatitis.
D) The patient will demonstrate how to appropriately use urinary incontinence products.
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Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who is having difficulty coping after being in a motor vehicle accident in which her brother was killed. The patient was driving the car and blames herself for the accident. What is the priority nursing intervention of the nurse?
A) Check to make sure that the patient does not want to hurt or kill herself.
B) Educate the patient about available support systems for grief resolution.
C) Enhance the patient's coping skills to alleviate depression and anxiety.
D) Encourage the patient to meet with a spiritual leader for guidance.
Q2) The hospice nurse is caring for a father and his children following the death of their mother. The father is having difficulty taking on the responsibilities and duties that were previously done by his wife, especially relating to and communicating with his teenage daughters. Which nursing diagnosis best describes the family's situation at this time?
A) Impaired parenting r/t inappropriate child care arrangements
B) Ineffective denial r/t new and unpleasant reality of single parenting
C) Interrupted family processes r/t father's caregiving role changes
D) Disturbed thought processes r/t father's feelings of grief over loss of wife
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