Foundations of Nursing Review Questions
Course Introduction
Foundations of Nursing provides students with a comprehensive introduction to the essential principles and theories underpinning the nursing profession. The course covers fundamental concepts such as the nursing process, health assessment, basic patient care techniques, therapeutic communication, and ethical/legal responsibilities. Emphasizing the importance of evidence-based practice, it also explores the history and evolution of nursing, professional standards, and the role of nurses within the multidisciplinary healthcare team. Through a combination of theoretical learning and practical skill development, students gain a solid base necessary for safe, compassionate, and effective patient care.
Recommended Textbook
Medical Surgical Nursing Clinical Management for Positive Outcomes Single Volume 8th Edition
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82 Chapters
1873 Verified Questions
1873 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Health Promotion and Disease Prevention
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse explains that the client's ability to cope with stress dynamically will play a significant role in the client attaining maximum potential. This approach is most consistent with the model of A) King.
B) Leninger.
C) Levine.
D) Neuman.
Answer: A
Q2) Suggestions that a home health nurse could make to an elderly client with cataracts to reduce the risk of falls in his home would include
A) arranging scatter rugs to prevent slipping on the hardwood floor.
B) using lower-illumination bulbs to prevent eyestrain.
C) using night lights in every room.
D) wearing soft-soled house shoes indoors.
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Health Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Inspection
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Answer: C
Q2) A client had surgery yesterday and is complaining of pain. The best action by the nurse is to
A) ask the patient which pain medication she/he took last.
B) do a complete assessment of the pain.
C) prepare to administer the ordered pain medication.
D) record the client's complaints thoroughly and get the pain medication.
Answer: B
Q3) To assess precipitating factors, the nurse interviewer would ask
A) "Do you remember the first time you had this problem?"
B) "How many times has the problem been related to activity?"
C) "What measures relieve this problem for you?"
D) "What were you doing when you first noticed the problem?"
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Critical Thinking
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse with 6 year's labor and delivery experience is floated to the intensive care unit. In this situation, the nurse would most likely function at the level of A) advanced beginner.
B) competent.
C) novice.
D) proficient.
Answer: C
Q2) A nurse is confused about the best way to confirm placement of a small flexible feeding tube before giving a bolus feeding. Colleagues on the unit suggest several different methods. The best process by which to determine a policy outlining the appropriate course of action is
A) critical reasoning.
B) evidence-based practice.
C) problem solving.
D) professional judgment.
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Complementary and Alternative Therapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is planning a comprehensive health promotion program to help clients with stress and healthy lifestyle choices. A CAM practice that could be included that would help clients with relaxation and stress reduction is A) Ayurveda.
B) biofeedback.
C) shamanism.
D) yoga.
Q2) The nurse reminds a client that the Dietary Supplement and Health Act of 1994 prevented manufacturers of dietary supplements from A) making specific therapeutic claims for the product on their labels.
B) manufacturing products that are not tested or proven.
C) offering products for sale except through pharmacies.
D) publishing outrageous claims for the product on promotional materials.
Q3) The nurse cautions that, when consumed in large quantities, antioxidants can become pro-oxidants, which
A) absorb large quantities of free radicals.
B) can produce free radicals.
C) create a free radical "shield."
D) enhance the immune system.
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Chapter 5: Ambulatory Health Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) After each telehealth communication the nurse should
A) immediately document the content of the call in the client's record.
B) inform the physician of the information or teaching given.
C) schedule a later call to check on the client's progress.
D) send the client a written form of the pertinent information.
Q2) Ambulatory care centers include
A) care available 24 hours a day, 7 days a week.
B) care for short-term medical-surgical procedures.
C) services for those unable to provide self-care after a procedure.
D) sleeping accommodations for a family member.
Q3) The purpose of the mutual recognition model (MRM), implemented through an interstate contract, is to
A) ensure an increasing supply of nurses entering the work force.
B) monitor the number of nurses working in more than one field of specialty.
C) provide educational incentives for nurses to continue working full-time.
D) reduce barriers to interstate nursing practice.
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Chapter 6: Acute Health Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) A registered nurse (RN) is considering delegating some tasks to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which of the following things should the nurse consider when making this decision? (Select all that apply.)
A) Does the task have exact, unchanging directions?
B) Does the UAP want to do the task?
C) Is an RN or other licensed personnel required to do this task?
D) Is the UAP competent to perform this task?
E) Is there a licensed provider, such as an RN, available to supervise?
Q2) A client for whom the nurse would provide post-acute care is the
A) 38-year-old following cesarean birth.
B) 40-year-old recovering from kidney stone removal.
C) 60-year-old receiving a regulated regimen of anti-hypertensive medication.
D) 76-year-old needing rehabilitation after cardiac surgery.
Q3) A planned program of loss prevention and liability control best defines
A) client satisfaction.
B) clinical pathway.
C) quality assurance.
D) risk management.
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Chapter 7: Critical Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) The population that is increasingly using critical care units and needing specialized nursing care is the population of
A) elderly.
B) middle-age adults.
C) underserved pregnant women.
D) uninsured.
Q2) The nurse admitting clients to an intensive care unit understands that research demonstrates best client outcomes when clients
A) are in an area that allows liberal family visitation.
B) have consistent nurses caring for them.
C) have state of the art physiologic monitoring.
D) receive multidisciplinary care led by an intensivist.
Q3) Critical care units (CCUs) have been developed in almost all hospitals because such units
A) allow for concentration of expert personnel.
B) can offer special services to the family.
C) contain costs.
D) separate the seriously ill from the other clients.
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Chapter 8: Home Health Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) A home health nurse has a client with permanent left-sided weakness after a stroke; the client is cared for by his wife and daughter. The nurse will design the plan of care to
A) help the wife manage the home.
B) limit input from the wife and daughter.
C) reduce the impact of the client's health care beliefs.
D) stimulate the client to become independent.
Q2) Consumer need and demand for home health care have increased dramatically in recent years because of (Select all that apply)
A) the advent of Medicare reimbursement for home care.
B) the closing of acute care hospital beds.
C) escalating health care costs.
D) increased consumer demand.
E) lack of services available in the hospital.
Q3) The component that is not part of the Omaha System is
A) Intervention Scheme.
B) Problem Classification Scheme.
C) Problem Rating Scale for Outcomes.
D) Rating Scale for Client Satisfaction.
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Chapter 9: Long-Term Care
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12 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Historically, European countries in the 1700s housed older persons in institutions with A) farmers, who could use them as labor.
B) mentally ill persons.
C) older people of the same gender.
D) those of the same socioeconomic class.
Q2) The form of residential long-term care facility that offers the most personal freedom, as well as provision of meals, medication supervision, and personal care assistance, is A) adult day care center.
B) assisted living center.
C) nursing home.
D) transitional care setting.
Q3) The nurse admitting a new resident to a long-term care facility is mindful that after the resident is assessed, a care plan must be written within A) 1 day.
B) 3 days.
C) 5 days.
D) 7 days.
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Chapter 10: Rehabilitation
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Sample Questions
Q1) To set the stage for a successful rehabilitation experience, the rehabilitation nurse helps the client and the family conceptualize their definition of
A) activity participation.
B) independence.
C) quality of life.
D) wellness.
Q2) The rehabilitation nurse explains that the transdisciplinary approach to rehabilitation provides the client with
A) more efficient service at a greatly reduced cost.
B) reduced number of personnel with whom to interact.
C) reduced time spent on therapeutic modalities.
D) shortened stay in the rehabilitation unit.
Q3) The rehabilitation nurse stresses that the major focus in a rehabilitation setting is A) acquisition of services for the newly discharged client.
B) elimination of clinical manifestations.
C) prevention of disease progression.
D) skills' instruction for independence.
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Chapter 11: Clients with Fluid Imbalances
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17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client is taking an IV diuretic for fluid volume excess. Which of the following assessments should the nurse report to the physician?
A) Decrease in edema
B) Decrease in potassium level
C) Increase in urine output
D) Weight loss
Q2) A client has a serum sodium level of 115 mEq/L. The nurse has initiated a slow IV infusion of hypertonic saline solution per IV pump in a large vein. Which other intervention should the nurse implement as a priority?
A) Assess the client for dysphagia.
B) Have on-hand a calcium-channel blocker in case of overdose.
C) Initiate seizure and safety precautions.
D) Start a second IV in case the first one infiltrates.
Q3) The nurse anticipates that an order for an isotonic intravenous (IV) solution will read
A)0.45% sodium chloride.
B)0.9% sodium chloride.
C) 3% sodium chloride.
D) 5% dextrose in water.
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Chapter 12: Clients with Electrolyte Imbalances
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21 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse caring for a client taking thiazide diuretics should be sure to observe for A) decreased urine output.
B) increased peristalsis.
C) neurologic depression.
D) neuromuscular irritability.
Q2) When giving IV potassium, the nurse takes the precaution of
A) agitating the bag to prevent bolus administration.
B) ensuring potassium dilution with glucose solution.
C) leaving the IV cannula inserted as long as possible.
D) using a large cannula for infusion.
Q3) Self-care teaching for a client with hypercalcemia should include
A) administering antidiarrheal medications.
B) decreasing sodium and calcium intake.
C) encouraging foods that increase urine acidity.
D) restricting fluid intake to less than 1 liter a day.
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Chapter 13: Acid-Base Balance
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client is brought to the emergency department in cardiac arrest. The nurse is aware that the associated acid-base imbalance that will require treatment is
A) both respiratory and metabolic acidosis.
B) both respiratory and metabolic alkalosis.
C) respiratory acidosis.
D) respiratory alkalosis.
Q2) A client has a blood pH of 7.30 and is being treated with an infusion of sodium bicarbonate. The nurse should assess this client for a possible delayed reaction of increasing levels of which component in the blood?
A) Bicarbonate
B) Calcium
C) Carbon dioxide
D) Glucose
Q3) The nurse performs Allen's test before obtaining an ABG specimen to determine
A) if an allergy to heparin is present.
B) if ulnar circulation is adequate.
C) the patency of the radial artery.
D) the presence of neuromuscular weakness.
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Chapter 14: Clients Having Surgery
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) To lessen the postoperative complication of thrombophlebitis, the nurse would
A) assist the client to sit up in bed after surgery.
B) maintain the legs in an elevated position.
C) massage the client's legs.
D) remind the client to exercise the legs and feet.
Q2) Important actions the nurse takes to avoid "wrong site surgery" include (Select all that apply)
A) asking the surgeon to initial the marked site and operate through the initials.
B) calling a time-out to verify right client, right surgical site before starting the operation.
C) having the client mark the surgical site with permanent marker.
D) involving multiple surgeons in the case to check each other.
Q3) A client calls the Telehealth nurse on the third postoperative day and describes a "giving way" sensation in the abdomen that occurred after coughing. To assess for a possible evisceration, the nurse asks if
A) bright-red bleeding from the wound edges is seen.
B) fascia or internal organs are visible.
C) fecal material is draining from the wound site.
D) large amounts of pus are draining.
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Chapter 15: Perspectives in Genetics
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse counseling a couple about genetic disorders explains that Tay-Sachs disease is a genetically linked disorder seen in 7% of the
A) African-American ethnic group.
B) Ashkenazi Jewish ethnic group.
C) Hispanic ethnic group.
D) Northern European ethnic group.
Q2) A nurse explains to a family that if a man has a recessive gene on his X chromosome, that characteristic can be passed on to A) any child of either gender.
B) his daughters.
C) his sons.
D) no child as it is a random mutation.
Q3) Autosomes are the chromosomes that A) are common to males and females.
B) are inherited from the paternal side.
C) determine gender.
D) exist in paired forms.
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Chapter 16: Perspectives in Oncology
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Sample Questions
Q1) After discussing the difference between benign and malignant tumors with a client, the nurse would know that the client understood the discussion when the client says
A) "A benign tumor does not invade other tissue."
B) "Malignant tissue is not found far from the original site of the tumor."
C) "Malignant tumors do not respond well to chemotherapy."
D) "The control of growth is impaired only in malignant tissue."
Q2) The number of new cancer cases diagnosed has increased steadily since 1900. The nurse explains to a client that one of the reasons for this increase is that
A) cancer is related to most birth defects.
B) many false-positive cancer results are reported.
C) people who live longer are less prone to cancer.
D) statistical analysis and reporting are more accurate.
Q3) A nurse is administering IV chemotherapy. What personal protective equipment (PPE) should the nurse use when doing this task?
A) A gown and gloves
B) Gloves and a mask
C) No special PPE is needed
D) Only gloves
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Chapter 17: Clients with Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse caring for a client with cancer of the thyroid gland has a tumor classified as T2, N1, M0. The nurse explains that the "T" in this classification schema represents A) number of years the tumor has been present.
B) site of the tumor.
C) size of the tumor.
D) virulence of malignancy.
Q2) A 32-year-old client who has a history of familial polyposis but no manifestations still wants to explore the possibility of preventive surgery. The most appropriate response the nurse can make is
A) "Cancer is not always hereditary, and you should change risk factors in your life."
B) "It is an overreaction to seek radical treatment before you develop symptoms."
C) "Monthly rectal smears may allay your anxiety without surgery."
D) "Subtotal colectomy is a procedure you might seek further information about."
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Chapter 18: Clients with Wounds
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Sample Questions
Q1) On a client's admission to the hospital, the nurse notes that the client has a yellow sacral decubitus ulcer. The nurse anticipates that the most appropriate wound treatment would be
A) applying antibiotic ointment.
B) surgical removal of eschar.
C) using wet-to-dry dressings.
D) vigorous cleansing with a Water Pik.
Q2) A client is being discharged with a large wound on the right ankle that has cellulitis. The client is obese, smokes 2 packs of cigarettes a day, and is sedentary. In the discharge instructions, which lifestyle modification would be most important for the nurse to include? The client should
A) drink more water.
B) lose weight.
C) start an exercise routine.
D) stop smoking.
Q3) The nurse who is using an enzymatic debridement ointment will
A) apply the ointment liberally over large areas.
B) keep the area moist after application.
C) medicate the client before applying ointment to viable tissue.
D) use the ointment cautiously on neoplastic ulcers.
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Chapter 19: Perspectives on Infectious Disease and Bioterrorism
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse working on a community initiative to respond to pandemic flu would design priority interventions that would
A) bolster the communication network with the federal government.
B) educate the public on what to do in a pandemic.
C) limit person-to-person transmission.
D) provide antiviral medications to every person in the community.
Q2) The nurse collaborating on a community committee designing responses for a bioterrorism attack would understand that an attack by smallpox (Select all that apply)
A) can be perpetuated through contact with infected items.
B) could be made with only a small amount of the virus.
C) is predicted to be deadly because there is no vaccine available.
D) will create terror because there is no effective treatment for smallpox.
E) would be hard to control because of the long time between infection and illness.
Q3) The nurse can best instruct a client to avoid the acquisition of hookworm by
A) advising the client not to eat raw pork products.
B) advising the client to drink only bottled water when traveling.
C) encouraging the client to wear shoes outdoors.
D) teaching the client good hand-washing technique.
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Chapter 20: Clients with Pain
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client who has been in chronic pain after an automobile accident successfully reduces his pain through a combination of biofeedback and meditation. The conclusion the nurse may draw from his success is that the A) pain was acute in nature.
B) pain was psychological in nature.
C) placebo effect occurred.
D) therapy caused physiologic changes.
Q2) The client who had a right below-the-knee amputation 2 days ago is requesting pain medication for pain in his right foot. The nurse should A) administer the prescribed analgesic.
B) elevate the stump on pillows and apply ice.
C) offer an alternative therapy such as a massage.
D) tell the client that he cannot be medicated for pain in the absent foot.
Q3) The client with neuropathic pain develops allodynia, which A) can be relieved by daily doses of opioids.
B) is a vague pain that is difficult for the client to describe.
C) is pain due to a stimulus that does not normally cause pain.
D) responds to NSAIDs taken several times a day.
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Chapter 21: Perspectives in Palliative Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a bedtime routine for a palliative care client who is having difficulty falling asleep, the least helpful intervention to incorporate would be
A) black tea with sugar.
B) massage.
C) progressive muscle relaxation.
D) warm milk.
Q2) A client using a new opioid analgesic for pain becomes drowsy after the first two doses. The nurse explains to the client and family that the dose may be too high if this persists for more than A) 1 day.
B) 2 to 3 days.
C) 5 to 7 days.
D) 7 to 10 days.
Q3) The hospice nurse requests the drug temazepam (Restoril) for a client who has difficulty in A) falling asleep.
B) falling asleep and staying asleep.
C) sleeping without nightmares.
D) staying asleep.
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Chapter 22: Clients with Sleep and Rest Disorders and Fatigue
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Sample Questions
Q1) The substance produced in the body that acts a strong sleep inducer is A) acetylcholine.
B) melanin.
C) melatonin.
D) serotonin.
Q2) Most sleeping time is spent in A) REM sleep.
B) stages 1 and 2 sleep.
C) stage 4 sleep.
D) very light sleep.
Q3) A client with severe emphysema had a myocardial infarction and is hospitalized on the telemetry unit. The night nurse notices that the client has frequent dysrhythmias. The priority action for the nurse would be to check the client's
A) cardiac enzymes.
B) electrocardiogram.
C) electrolyte values.
D) oxygen saturation.
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Chapter 23: Clients with Psychosocial and Mental Health
Concerns
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse questions a client with panic disorder about whether a parent or sibling also has a panic disorder. This nurse is using a
A) behavioral approach.
B) biologic approach.
C) psychoanalytic approach.
D) psychodynamic approach.
Q2) A home health nurse is visiting a client living with his parents who has severe depression and is considered at risk of suicide. When the client refuses to sign a "no harm" contract, the most appropriate action by the nurse is to
A) call 911, explaining that there is a psychiatric emergency.
B) instruct family members to keep a close watch on the client.
C) schedule another visit for the following day.
D) telephone the physician for a referral to a psychiatric nurse.
Q3) The nurse explains that although uncomfortable, mild anxiety under normal circumstances usually
A) interferes with problem solving.
B) is short-lived.
C) is repressed and forgotten.
D) spirals into panic.
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Clients with Substance Abuse Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The theory that describes substance abuse as a learned behavior is called the A) biologic model.
B) family system model.
C) psychological model.
D) sociocultural model.
Q2) The assessment by the nurse that would be significant to help prevent a complication from amphetamine use is to
A) check oxygen levels frequently.
B) keep the lights on continuously.
C) measure intake and output.
D) perform neurologic assessments.
Q3) The school nurse is called into an art class by the teacher to observe a student who is smiling and giggling as he sprays fixative on his charcoal picture. The student's eyes and nose are red, and he is coughing. The school nurse assesses that the student may be experiencing
A) a seasonal cold.
B) an allergic reaction.
C) inhalant abuse.
D) use of an opioid.
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Chapter 25: Assessment of the Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse preparing a client for a dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) test explains that the purpose of this test is to measure
A) amount of joint deformity.
B) degree of bone loss.
C) degree of fracture healing.
D) presence of bone infection.
Q2) A client describes ripping sounds in his knee during a fall while skiing. The nurse explains to the client that the diagnostic test that will provide the best data is a(n) A) arthrogram.
B) bone scan.
C) myelogram.
D) x-ray film.
Q3) A client with a new cast for his fractured ulna tells the nurse that he cannot feel his fingers. The nurse should initially
A) check for capillary refill in the client's fingers.
B) notify the physician immediately.
C) reassure the client that this is normal.
D) remove the padding around the fingers to increase space.
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Chapter 26: Management of Clients with Musculoskeletal Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client has been diagnosed with early osteoarthritis (OA) in the hips. The nurse explains that the first medical treatment that will be tried is administration of A) acetaminophen (Tylenol).
B) celecoxib (Celebrex).
C) misoprostol (Citotec).
D) nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).
Q2) A nurse admitting a 22-year-old client with septic arthritis in the knees would inquire about recent infection with A) a respiratory tract virus.
B) gonorrhea.
C) strep throat.
D) urinary tract manifestations.
Q3) The nurse teaching a class on osteoarthritis (OA) stresses that this disorder is best described as
A) degeneration of articular cartilage in synovial joints.
B) enzymatic breakdown of tissue in non-weight-bearing joints.
C) joint destruction caused by an autoimmune process.
D) overproduction of synovial fluid, resulting in joint destruction.
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Chapter 27: Management of Clients with Musculoskeletal
Trauma or Overuse
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse assesses a client in the emergency department who complains of shoulder pain and is unable to abduct or externally rotate the right arm. From these observations the nurse suspects injury to the A) anterior cruciate ligament. B) meniscus.
C) tendonitis.
D) rotator cuff.
Q2) The nurse explains that the rationale for LMW (low-molecular-weight) heparin therapy after open reduction of a fractured femur is to
A) decrease hematoma at the fracture site.
B) decreases the threat of thrombus.
C) increase blood supply at the fracture site.
D) increase platelet formation.
Q3) The assessment that would alert the nurse to the possibility of cast syndrome in a client with a spica cast is A) abdominal distention.
B) diminished pulses in the foot.
C) "hot spot" felt on cast.
D) musty, unpleasant odor to cast.
Page 29
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Chapter 28: Assessment of Nutrition and the Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client has been admitted with a diagnosis of primary starvation. The nurse explains to the family that this means the client
A) has a possible problem with the GI tract.
B) has not been eating enough calories and other nutrients.
C) is not eating, absorbing, or using micronutrients.
D) is over-excreting specific nutrients.
Q2) A hospitalized client has lost several pounds in the last week. The nurse reviews the client's lab results understanding that which test is the best indicator of acute nutritional changes?
A) Albumin level
B) Pre-albumin level
C) RBC count
D) Total protein level
Q3) Before determining the absence of bowel sounds, the nurse must auscultate the abdomen for
A) 1 minute.
B) 5 minutes.
C) 10 minutes.
D) 20 minutes.
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Chapter 29: Management of Clients with Malnutrition
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4027
Sample Questions
Q1) Before administering enteral feeding, the nurse can ensure proper tube placement by
A) asking the client to swallow.
B) auscultating the stomach as 10 ml of water is injected.
C) extracting stomach contents from the tube.
D) holding the end of the tube under water to check for bubbling.
Q2) The nurse explains that in the administration of total parenteral nutrition (TPN), options for infusion do not include which of the following?
A) Central venous access device inserted through the jugular vein
B) Peripheral IV catheter in the back of the hand
C) PICC line inserted peripherally and threaded to the subclavian vein
D) Totally implanted ports or external tunneled central venous catheters
Q3) A client who is diagnosed with bulimia would be most likely to manifest the psychosocial alteration of A) denial.
B) depression.
C) self-mutilation.
D) social withdrawal.
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Chapter 30: Management of Clients with Ingestive Disorders
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4028
Sample Questions
Q1) For a client with diverticula of the esophagus, the nurse would tell the client to avoid
A) deep-breathing exercises after meals.
B) ingestion of carbonated drinks.
C) sleeping with the head of the bed elevated.
D) vigorous exercise after eating.
Q2) Priority nursing interventions for a client immediately after glossectomy include measures to
A) assist with body image issues.
B) maintain a patent airway.
C) monitor for hemorrhage.
D) provide analgesia.
Q3) The nurse would assess the client with an early mechanical obstruction of the esophagus for
A) aspiration.
B) coughing.
C) dysphagia.
D) vomiting.
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Page 32
Chapter 31: Management of Clients with Digestive Disorders
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4029
Sample Questions
Q1) A client with acute gastritis is admitted to the emergency department for GI bleeding. The nurse would anticipate the client's history will include
A) alcohol abuse.
B) anorexia.
C) high-carbohydrate, high-fat diet.
D) recent use of oral penicillin.
Q2) A client is taking cortisone. The nurse schedules the medication with food because cortisone can have which effect on gastric mucosa when given on an empty stomach? Cortisone will cause
A) dramatically increased gastric pH.
B) increased amount of GI secretions.
C) increased transit time of GI contents.
D) susceptibility of the mucosa to injury.
Q3) A nurse is assessing a client with a history of a duodenal ulcer. Which finding is consistent with the nurse's knowledge about this condition?
A) Certain types of food increase gastric distress.
B) Eating nearly any food causes pain.
C) Pain may awaken the client in the middle of the night.
D) The client complains of spitting up blood.
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Page 33
Chapter 32: Assessment of Elimination
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4030
Sample Questions
Q1) A client has an oral intake of 1500 ml and a urine output of 350 ml in a 24-hour period. The nurse can correctly chart that the client is
A) anuric.
B) hematuric.
C) oliguric.
D) polyuric.
Q2) Inspection
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Q3) A client is complaining of "arthritis" in the hands and wrists. The nurse questions the client about bowel habits and the client asks why. The best response by the nurse is
A) "All the Motrin you are taking for your symptoms can cause other problems."
B) "Arthritis complaints often go along with inflammatory bowel conditions."
C) "Often bowel habits change with a change in physical activity."
D) "The stress from your arthritis can cause you to have diarrhea."
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34
Chapter 33: Management of Clients with Intestinal Disorders
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4031
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is caring for a postoperative client who has developed peritonitis. An assessment finding that would require immediate action would be
A) a decrease in blood pressure of more than 15 mm Hg.
B) an increase in urine output of more than 300 ml/day.
C) pulse deficit of more than 20 beats/minute.
D) weight gain of more than 5 pounds.
Q2) The nurse is instructing a client with a new colostomy on its care and notes that the stoma is large and dusky. The most appropriate nursing intervention at this time is to
A) assess the client's reaction to the ostomy site.
B) assist the client to irrigate the colostomy.
C) notify the surgeon immediately.
D) reassure the client that the stoma will decrease in size.
Q3) When a client is admitted to the emergency department with a hernia, the classification of hernia that would represent a surgical emergency is
A) incisional.
B) inguinal.
C) reducible.
D) strangulated.
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Chapter 34: Management of Clients with Urinary Disorders
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4032
Sample Questions
Q1) For a client experiencing urinary retention with overflow, the factor in the client's history that would prompt the nurse to question an order for a cholinergic medication is
A) bladder outlet obstruction.
B) diabetes mellitus.
C) frequent UTIs.
D) multiple pregnancies.
Q2) A male client is scheduled for radical bladder surgery for advanced cancer. He appears very anxious and is making sexually inappropriate jokes to the nursing staff. The most appropriate nursing diagnosis for this client is
A) Fear related to threat to biologic integrity
B) Impaired coping related to poorly-developed coping mechanisms
C) Knowledge deficit related to amount of pre-operative education needed
D) Risk for Disturbed body image related to possible sexual dysfunction
Q3) Nursing care for a client with urinary bladder calculi should include
A) checking for abdominal distention.
B) collecting a 24-hour urine specimen for calcium.
C) encouraging fluid intake up to 4000 ml/day.
D) maintaining bed rest.
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36
Chapter 35: Management of Clients with Renal Disorders
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4033
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse assessing a client with a renal abscess would expect to find
A) bacteria in the urine.
B) high fever.
C) hypertension.
D) oliguria.
Q2) A client has renal cancer and is scheduled for a nephrectomy. Preoperatively, the nurse finds the client very quiet with a worried facial expression. Which statement by the nurse would be most appropriate?
A) "Chemotherapy has very good results when given after surgery."
B) "Don't worry; only about 35% of clients have advanced disease when diagnosed."
C) "Most people are worried before they go to surgery to remove cancer."
D) "You look concerned. Are you worried about having only one kidney?"
Q3) For a client after nephrectomy and based on the location of the incision, the nurse would formulate the nursing diagnosis of
A) Acute Pain related to surgery
B) Anxiety related to long-term outcome
C) Risk for Impaired Skin Integrity related to immobility
D) Risk for Injury: Postoperative Complications related to surgical procedure
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Chapter 36: Management of Clients with Renal Failure
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4034
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse teaching a client about continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) would include the information that
A) a small, lightweight pump must be carried in a pocket or on a belt.
B) CAPD eliminates the need for strict aseptic technique when handling the catheter.
C) the procedure involves instilling 250 to 500 ml of fluid at a time.
D) there are four daily cycles with an 8-hour dwell for one cycle during the night.
Q2) The nurse explains to a client with chronic renal failure that the rationale for receiving calcium carbonate is that it
A) binds with phosphorus to eliminate it from the body.
B) binds with potassium to eliminate it from the body.
C) helps prevent constipation.
D) helps prevent ulcer formation.
Q3) The nurse explains that a cation exchange resin such as Kayexalate will
A) decrease diastolic blood pressure.
B) stimulate diuresis by osmosis.
C) increase appetite by decreasing insulin degradation.
D) increase gastrointestinal potassium excretion.
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Chapter 37: Assessment of the Reproductive System
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4035
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse informs a client that the factor that places her at risk for cancer of the cervix is
A) a mother who took diethylstilbestrol when pregnant with the client.
B) having a mother of Mediterranean heritage.
C) riding horseback since the client was a child.
D) using herbal remedies for her fertility problems.
Q2) The client who has a prostate-specific antigen (PSA) density of 0.13 ng/ml is considered to have
A) a contaminated specimen.
B) the presence of cancer cells.
C) the need for a follow-up examination.
D) no risk for prostate cancer.
Q3) The nurse obtaining a health history from a male client with a history of hypertension should ask the client about
A) renal functioning.
B) sexual functioning.
C) testicular problems.
D) voiding problems.
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Chapter 38: Management of Men with Reproductive Disorders
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4036
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse explains that if left untreated, BPH could result in (Select all that apply).
A) bladder cancer.
B) prostatic cancer.
C) renal failure.
D) upper urinary tract infection.
Q2) After a transurethral resection, the nurse notices that the client's urine in the Foley catheter bag is bright red, has numerous clots, and is viscous. The priority nursing action at this time is to
A) add fluid to the balloon end of the catheter.
B) call the physician immediately.
C) force fluids for the next 8 hours.
D) irrigate the catheter with sterile saline.
Q3) Considering the potential long-term side effects of a radical prostectomy, the nurse would make the nursing diagnosis of
A) Deficient Fluid Volume
B) Impaired Urinary Elimination
C) Risk for Sexual Dysfunction
D) Social Isolation
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Chapter 39: Management of Women with Reproductive Disorders
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4037
Sample Questions
Q1) A woman is scheduled to have a vulvectomy for vulvar cancer. Important interventions by the nurse to help her cope with this diagnosis and treatment include (Select all that apply)
A) encouraging her and her partner to discuss sexuality.
B) encouraging her to see that being a "woman" means more than having genitals.
C) helping her adapt by limiting talk about grief and mourning.
D) providing a referral to a qualified sex therapist.
E) suggesting alternative forms of sexual pleasure.
Q2) The nurse would determine that a client with menorrhagia is at risk for significant blood loss if the client reports changing the perineal pad or tampon at least every
A) 1 to 2 hours.
B) \( 2 \frac{1}{2} \) to 3 hours.
C) 4 to 5 hours.
D) 6 to 8 hours.
Q3) The nurse would assess a client with leiomyoma for a history of A) abnormal vaginal discharge.
B) amenorrhea.
C) excessive uterine bleeding.
D) severe menstrual pain.
Page 41
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Chapter 40: Management of Clients with Breast Disorders
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4038
Sample Questions
Q1) After a modified radical mastectomy, the action by the client that would indicate to the nurse that the client is developing a positive body image is
A) asking about a prosthesis.
B) looking at the incision.
C) talking about her feelings.
D) wearing make-up and her own nightgown.
Q2) In a client receiving chemotherapy for breast cancer, the nurse would assess for A) back pain.
B) confusion.
C) infection.
D) weight gain.
Q3) In caring for a client with post-mastectomy breast reconstruction using a subpectoral implant, the nurse would stress that the client can prevent capsule formation by
A) using daily heat applications.
B) keeping the implant very soft.
C) not wearing a bra until the implant drops.
D) wearing a bra at all times.
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Chapter 41: Management of Clients with Sexually
Transmitted Infections
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4039
Sample Questions
Q1) A client with uncomplicated gonorrhea who is treated with ceftriaxone and doxycycline asks if a follow-up examination and culture will be necessary. The most appropriate response by the nurse is
A) "No, because the disease cannot recur."
B) "No, because treatment failure with these medications is rare."
C) "Yes, because monthly cultures are now recommended."
D) "Yes, because reinfection is very probable."
Q2) A client has developed salpingitis as a complication of gonorrhea. The nurse explains that this problem could lead to
A) a shortened latency period.
B) chlamydial infection.
C) infertility.
D) reinfection.
Q3) The nurse is counseling a client with herpes simplex virus (HSV) infection. Which of the following would best meet most clients' needs in coping with this diagnosis?
A) Contact information for a support group
B) Information about promising drug trials
C) Websites containing STD information
D) Written information about the disease and treatment
Page 43
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Chapter 42: Assessment of the Endocrine and Metabolic Systems
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4040
Sample Questions
Q1) A client is complaining of abdominal pain described as dull, aching, and cramping. The nurse would record this pain as A) parietal.
B) referred.
C) spasmodic.
D) visceral.
Q2) A client is having a physical examination and the nurse notes that the client's hands and feet are large compared to the rest of the body. The nurse should suspect A) acromegaly.
B) congenital disorders.
C) diabetes.
D) muscle deformity.
Q3) As an indication that the safety needs of a client scheduled for an angiography are being addressed, the nurse would ask
A) "Are you allergic to any seafood?"
B) "Have you gained or lost weight in the last 2 months?"
C) "What is your age and marital status?"
D) "When was the date of your last tetanus booster?"
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Chapter 43: Management of Clients with Thyroid and Parathyroid Disorders
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4041
Sample Questions
Q1) A client just returned from surgery for a thyroid disorder and complains that his/her mouth has an odd sensation. Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering?
A) Calcium gluconate
B) Epinephrine
C) Potassium chloride
D) Rectal aspirin
Q2) In the assessment of a client with hypothyroidism, the nurse would include A) serum calcium levels.
B) serum cholesterol levels.
C) urine glucose levels.
D) urine specific gravity.
Q3) Self-care measures the nurse should teach a client with hypoparathyroidism include eating a
A) high-calcium, low-phosphorus diet.
B) high-phosphorus, high-calcium diet.
C) low-calcium, low-protein diet.
D) low-protein, high-calorie diet.
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Chapter 44: Management of Clients with Adrenal and Pituitary Disorders
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4042
Sample Questions
Q1) In making the care plan for a client with Cushing's disease, the nurse would choose which diagnosis as a priority?
A) Activity Intolerance
B) Pain, Chronic
C) Risk for Fluid Volume Deficit
D) Risk for Injury
Q2) For a client with a pheochromocytoma, the most critical assessment by the nurse is A) abdominal girth.
B) blood pressure.
C) daily weight.
D) pulse quality.
Q3) Health promotion activities a school nurse could teach the student athletes that will help them avoid endocrine problems in the future include
A) avoiding alcohol.
B) getting plenty of rest.
C) not smoking.
D) not using steroids.
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Page 46
Chapter 45: Management of Clients with Diabetes Mellitus
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44 Verified Questions
44 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client is having a second amputation on the same leg for a nonhealing wound. He is visibly upset and states "With one leg, I am not a man anymore and won't be able to provide for my family." Which response by the nurse best demonstrates caring communication?
A) "Have you spoken to your wife about how you feel?"
B) "I can call a social worker to talk to you about vocational rehabilitation."
C) "I am sorry this is happening to you. I can sit with you for a while."
D) "Many war veterans have amputations and still consider themselves men."
Q2) A nurse warns a newly-admitted diabetic client that to avoid injury related to a common diabetic complication, the client should
A) always call for help before getting up.
B) keep needed items within easy reach.
C) only ambulate with assistance.
D) wear house shoes while out of bed.
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Chapter 46: Management of Clients with Exocrine
Pancreatic and Biliary Disorders
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4044
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse planning the care of a client admitted with severe pancreatitis would anticipate the diet order of A) clear liquids.
B) enteral feedings.
C) NPO with TPN.
D) soft, low fat.
Q2) A client who underwent laparoscopic cholecystectomy asks the nurse how soon he/she can return to work. The nurse would respond that the final decision is up to the surgeon, but that clients can usually resume work after A) 24 hours.
B) 3 to 4 days.
C) 5 to 7 days.
D) 2 weeks.
Q3) The nursing diagnosis that would serve as the primary guide when providing care to a client with cystic fibrosis (CF) is
A) Constipation
B) Fluid Volume Excess
C) Ineffective Airway Clearance
D) Swallowing, Impaired
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Chapter 47: Management of Clients with Hepatic Disorders
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4045
Sample Questions
Q1) In caring for a client who has an esophageal tamponade, the nurse would be alerted that the tamponade is inadequate with the assessment of A) diarrhea.
B) increased abdominal girth.
C) increasing jaundice.
D) rising ammonia level.
Q2) The nurse caring for a client with jaundice would assess for other findings frequently associated with this condition, such as
A) a change in the texture of the hair.
B) clay-colored stools.
C) excess pigmentation to the hands.
D) friable, ridged nails.
Q3) A client with massive ascites had a paracentesis. The site continues to leak through several layers of dressings, despite the nurse holding pressure. Which intervention should the nurse do first?
A) Call the physician and request the puncture site be sutured.
B) Have the client lie on the side with the puncture site.
C) Obtain a urostomy pouch and apply it at the puncture site.
D) Use a roll of Kerlex to hold the dressing in place.
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Page 49
Chapter 48: Assessment of the Integumentary System
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4046
Sample Questions
Q1) In a highly pigmented client, the nurse would best assess for erythema by A) follicular accentuation.
B) induration.
C) reddening of the skin.
D) striation.
Q2) The nurse caring for a child with impetigo notes that some of the lesions on the child's skin appear elevated and contain purulent material. Secondary lesions are also present and are honey colored. The nurse would document these lesions as
A) cysts and bullae.
B) nodules and scales.
C) pustules and crusts.
D) vesicles and excoriations.
Q3) After a client's surgical excisional biopsy, the nurse would apply
A) antibiotic ointment and a dry dressing.
B) Band-Aids only.
C) hydrocolloid dressing only.
D) petrolatum gauze and paper tape.
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Chapter 49: Management of Clients with Integumentary Disorders
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4047
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is working with a client suffering from chronic pruritus. The client is angry and frustrated. The nurse should incorporate actions into the care plan that acknowledge A) multiple treatments may be tried before finding one that works.
B) the lack of any effective treatments for pruritus.
C) the major impact pruritus has on quality of life.
D) that pruritus is very expensive to treat.
Q2) A client is returning to the nursing unit after an intermaxillary wiring to treat a facial fracture. What equipment is vital for the nurse to have at the bedside? (Select all that apply)
A) Scale
B) Suction set-up
C) Thermometer
D) Wire cutters
Q3) When providing topical treatment of lesions for a client with intertrigo, the nurse would avoid the use of
A) Burrow's solution.
B) cornstarch.
C) talc-containing powder.
D) topical steroids.
Page 51
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Chapter 50: Management of Clients with Burn Injury
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4048
Sample Questions
Q1) When admitting a client who has sustained a burn injury, the nurse would inoculate against tetanus if the client has
A) been inoculated in the last 6 years.
B) open wounds with copious debris embedded.
C) second-degree burns with broken blisters.
D) third-degree burns.
Q2) The nurse would know that goals for the diagnosis Disabled Family Coping have been met when the family of a burn-injured client
A) asks frequent questions of all the staff.
B) begins to interact with the local burn support group.
C) insists on participating in the client's care.
D) only comes to visit when the client requests.
Q3) Using the Curreri formula to compute daily caloric needs of a 200-pound client with a 20% burn, the nurse-practitioner would compute the client's daily caloric needs to be A)2272.
B)2580. C)2872. D)3072.
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Chapter 51: Assessment of the Vascular System
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12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) For a client admitted to the hospital with chronic venous disease, the nurse's assessment of the client's legs would most likely reveal
A) decreased pulses.
B) erythema.
C) overgrowth of hair.
D) reduced muscle mass.
Q2) The nurse tests the capillary refill on a client's lower extremity and notes that it takes 4 seconds for the color to return to baseline. It would be most important for the nurse to then check for
A) constricting clothing.
B) other indicators of peripheral perfusion.
C) presence of venous ulcers.
D) prior surgery on this extremity.
Q3) Age-related changes the nurse incorporates into interpreting the physical assessment for vascular disorders include (Select all that apply)
A) blood pressure readings are often inaccurate in older people.
B) dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses may be more difficult to palpate.
C) peripheral vascular disease is common among the elderly.
D) skin changes, such as dependent rubor, are often seen in people over 65.
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Page 53
Chapter 52: Management of Clients with Hypertensive Disorders
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4050
Sample Questions
Q1) For a hypertensive client who reports being "really fired up" about losing weight, the nurse would recognize the need for more education on hearing the client's plan to A) abruptly eliminate sugar from the diet.
B) lose 1 pound a week.
C) use over-the-counter appetite suppressants.
D) walk and climb stairs.
Q2) When a client diagnosed with primary hypertension asks the nurse what causes this disease, the nurse's best response would be "High blood pressure is caused by A) a decrease in plasma renin levels."
B) a number of factors, not just one cause."
C) arteriosclerotic vessel disease."
D) a kidney problem."
Q3) In an exercise program for weight reduction in a hypertensive client, the nurse would discourage the use of heavy weights because this may cause
A) lactic acid buildup.
B) muscle strain.
C) rapid vasodilation.
D) vasovagal response.
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Chapter 53: Management of Clients with Vascular Disorders
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4051
Sample Questions
Q1) Important health promotion measures a nurse could teach a client in order to avoid another episode of DVT include (Select all that apply)
A) avoiding prolonged sitting.
B) elevating the legs when sitting.
C) maintaining an ideal body weight.
D) remaining hydrated.
Q2) A client is scheduled for discharge to home after repair of an abdominal aortic aneurysm. As an acceptable activity during the first 6 to 12 weeks after surgery, the nurse would suggest
A) mowing the lawn.
B) vacuuming the floor.
C) walking.
D) washing windows.
Q3) The nurse reading the admission note for a client who has an arterial leg ulcer would anticipate that the ulcer will be characterized A) as being surrounded by atrophic tissue.
B) as producing minimal pain.
C) by a deep-red base.
D) by irregular borders.
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Chapter 54: Assessment of the Cardiac System
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30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4052
Sample Questions
Q1) Women with heart disease often present with which symptom? (Select all that apply.)
A) Chest pain
B) Dyspnea
C) Fatigue
D) Nausea
E) Palpitations
Q2) The nurse evaluating the head and neck of a client would assess the carotid arteries by
A) asking the client to bear down and hold the breath while observing the arteries.
B) auscultating the arteries with the diaphragm of the stethoscope.
C) instructing the client to lie down and examining the arteries with oblique lighting.
D) palpating the arteries simultaneously, comparing amplitudes, rates, and rhythms.
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Chapter 55: Management of Clients with Structural
Cardiac Disorders
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When performing cardiac auscultation on a client with mitral valve prolapse, the nurse would anticipate hearing a
A) harsh, systolic murmur.
B) loud S2 heart sound.
C) midsystolic click.
D) prominent S4 heart sound.
Q2) The physician has expressed concern about the development of rheumatic fever in a client with a throat infection. The nurse would explain to the client that the organism causing the infection is
A) a respiratory virus.
B) beta-hemolytic streptococcus.
C) Escherichia coli.
D) Streptococcus pneumoniae.
Q3) In counseling a client who is considering a heart transplant, the nurse would know the client has an accurate perception of this treatment option when the client says
A) "Less than half of those who survive a heart transplant live 10 years."
B) "People under 75 years of age may have a heart transplant."
C) "The survival rate for patients having a heart transplant is about 80%."
D) "This is an experimental treatment, but I want to take the chance."
Page 57
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Chapter 56: Management of Clients with Functional
Cardiac Disorders
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4054
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse would advise a group of diabetic clients that primary prevention for CHD can be achieved by keeping their fasting blood sugar levels below A) 56 mg/dl.
B) 72 mg/dl.
C) 105 mg/dl.
D) 126 mg/dl.
Q2) The nurse explains that in addition to having a PTCA to clear the artery, the client will also have plaque vaporized by the use of
A) anticoagulant therapy.
B) intracoronary stent.
C) laser ablation.
D) transmyocardial revascularization.
Q3) Reporting that a client's total cholesterol reading is 230, the nurse would know this result indicates a reading that is A) low.
B) borderline high.
C) high.
D) very high.
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Chapter 57: Management of Clients with Dysrhythmias
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4055
Sample Questions
Q1) To prevent possible complications from cardioversion, before administering the shock, the nurse would ensure that the (Select all that apply)
A) emergency equipment is nearby and in working order.
B) joules are set to 50-100 joules initially on a monophasic machine.
C) machine is set to synchronize with the client's QRS complex.
D) the Code Blue team has arrived and is prepared.
Q2) The client who is to receive cardioversion in 3 days for treatment of continuous atrial fibrillation has laboratory values of Na 139 mEq/L, K 4.0 mEq/L, and Cl 98 mEq/L and is receiving digoxin 0.125 mg daily. Before the procedure the nurse would
A) confirm an order for a digoxin level before cardioversion.
B) monitor blood pressure more frequently.
C) notify the physician regarding the potassium level.
D) proceed with preparation for cardioversion.
Q3) Before a client receives cardioversion, the nurse should ensure that the client
A) ate only a light breakfast.
B) has signed a consent form.
C) is not wearing jewelry.
D) skipped today's digoxin dose.
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Chapter 58: Management of Clients with Myocardial Infarction
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse would remind a client that the cause of sudden death after myocardial infarction is usually
A) congestive heart failure.
B) dysrhythmias.
C) myocardial ischemia.
D) stroke.
Q2) After instructing a client with stable angina, the nurse would evaluate that the client has a proper understanding of the condition when the client says
A) "Angina pain usually feels like being stabbed with a knife."
B) "Each time I have angina, my heart is damaged."
C) "If I have chest pain, then I'm probably having another heart attack."
D) "My chest pain can occur if I overexert myself."
Q3) The nurse would explain to a client that the most common site for MI is the
A) anterior wall of the left ventricle.
B) anterior wall of the right ventricle.
C) inferior (diaphragmatic) surface.
D) posterior wall of the left ventricle.
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Page 60
Chapter 59: Assessment of the Respiratory System
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17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse would explain to a client with complaints of wheezing and chest tightness that wheezing occurs when
A) air is passing through a narrowed airway.
B) air is trapped in the alveoli.
C) an allergic reaction is taking place.
D) sputum production is increased.
Q2) A client with pulmonary disease appears more comfortable after respiratory therapy but still feels short of breath. To measure the client's respiratory improvement, the nurse would use a
A) Candle Scale.
B) pulmonary function test.
C) Treadmill test.
D) Visual Analogue Scale.
Q3) The nurse reviews the results of the arterial carbon dioxide tension (PaCO<sub>2</sub>) of a client with asthma to obtain information relative to the A) contribution of gas exchange.
B) effectiveness of alveolar ventilation.
C) evidence of atelectasis.
D) presence of respiratory alkalosis.
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Page 61
Chapter 60: Management of Clients with Upper Airway Disorders
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The priority nursing intervention for a client experiencing a laryngospasm would be
A) administering 100% oxygen.
B) calling the resuscitation team.
C) positioning the client in high-Fowler position.
D) starting in IV with a large-bore catheter.
Q2) During a community screening event, the nurse would identify that the client at highest risk for development of laryngeal cancer is
A) a 30-year-old man who smokes one pack of cigarettes per day.
B) a 60-year-old woman who smokes occasionally and is easily fatigued.
C) a 70-year-old man with a 40-year history of alcohol use and heavy smoking.
D) an 80-year-old man who has a very high intake of caffeinated beverages.
Q3) Noting the need to use 8 ml rather than 5 ml to inflate the tracheostomy cuff sufficiently, the nurse would
A) ask the client to swallow, and then cough.
B) completely deflate the cuff to relieve the dilation.
C) notify the physician to have an x-ray film obtained.
D) replace the entire tracheostomy tube with a larger size.
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Page 62
Chapter 61: Management of Clients with Lower Airway and Pulmonary Vessel
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client experiencing severe chest pain from a pulmonary embolism has been medicated for pain but appears anxious and restless. The additional nursing measure that most likely would assist the client in dealing with fear is
A) asking the client not to focus on the pain.
B) explaining the monitoring devices to the client.
C) reassuring the client the pain medication will work soon.
D) remaining at the bedside with the client.
Q2) The nurse caring for a client with asthma would place the client in the
A) Fowler position.
B) lithotomy position.
C) side-lying position.
D) supine position.
Q3) A nurse evaluates that goals for self-care teaching have been met when the client with asthma states
A) "Coughing at night is an expected side effect of bronchodilators."
B) "Follow up visits with the doctor every year are important for monitoring."
C) "I won't change the dosages of my medications without talking to the doctor."
D) "If my peak flow measurements drop I will increase my medications."
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Chapter 62: Management of Clients with Parenchymal and Pleural Disorders
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34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client has an interstitial lung disease (ILD) and has questions related to the disease process. The best explanation by the nurse is that ILD A) causes alveolar walls to thicken and become nonfunctional.
B) is a highly contagious disease and close contacts need treatment. C) is caused by a recurrent fungal infection in the lung parenchyma.
D) leads to diffuse intrapulmonary cavity formation.
Q2) The nurse would become concerned about the risk of hemorrhage if, in the first 2 hours after surgery, the thoracotomy client's drainage exceeded A) 50 ml.
B) 100 ml.
C) 300 ml.
D) 750 ml.
Q3) The nurse writing an infection control policy for a home health care agency would include the information that the rise in TB cases in recent years is related to the A) aging of the U.S. population.
B) emergence of antibiotic-resistant bacteria.
C) increase in HIV infection.
D) rise in illegal drug use.
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Chapter 63: Management of Clients with Acute Pulmonary Disorders
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client who underwent surgery is intubated and receiving mechanical ventilation. The client is receiving a neuromuscular blocking agent to stop spontaneous breathing that is not in synchrony with the ventilator. The appropriate approach by the nurse to the client's postoperative pain control would be
A) a sedative should be given with an anxiolytic and the neuromuscular blocker to control pain.
B) an analgesic is needed specifically for pain control and must be given as needed along with the neuromuscular blocker and a sedative or anxiolytic.
C) sedatives should be given with the neuromuscular blocking agent, and together these will control pain.
D) the neuromuscular blocking agent will prevent pain impulse transmission, so the prn analgesic order is unnecessary.
Q2) The nurse monitoring a client with adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) would closely assess for
A) atelectasis.
B) cor pulmonale.
C) pneumonia.
D) pulmonary edema.
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Chapter 64: Assessment of the Eyes and Ears
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse assessing a client with declining visual acuity would use gentle questioning and tact because (Select all that apply)
A) a client might not give accurate answers if he/she thinks driving will be restricted.
B) lack of a family history might mean a client has no risk of vision disorders.
C) social stigma accompanying blindness may cause the client anxiety.
D) vision disorders affect dependence and independence.
E) vocational barriers may force the client to seek different employment.
Q2) The nurse conducting a physical examination is assessing a client's pupillary reactions. To do this correctly, the nurse would
A) ask the client to open the eyes and stare into the penlight.
B) ask the client to stare straight ahead and then turn on the penlight.
C) bring the penlight up from the client's chin to shine directly over the pupil.
D) bring the penlight in from the side to shine directly over the pupil.
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Chapter 65: Management of Clients with Visual Disorders
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21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4063
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse talking with a client with open-angle glaucoma would instruct the client to make a behavior change based on the statement
A) "I take an aspirin a day to prevent any problems with clotting."
B) "I usually drink at least 8 to 10 glasses of water a day."
C) "Now that the allergy season is here, I take antihistamines on a regular basis."
D) "I like to eat hot, spicy foods."
Q2) A client has had an enucleation for ocular melanoma. Which of the following instructions takes priority when dismissing this client?
A) "Be extra cautious when going up or down stairs."
B) "If the plastic conformer comes out, wash it and replace it."
C) "Keep soap and water out of your eye socket."
D) "You can wear an eye patch sometimes, but not all of the time."
Q3) The nurse providing normal postoperative care to a client who underwent laser trabeculoplasty as part of glaucoma management would
A) give food and fluids immediately on arrival.
B) instruct the client to lie on the operative side.
C) maintain an eye patch and plastic shield in place.
D) tell the client to expect eye pain and nausea.
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Chapter 66: Management of Clients with Hearing and Balance Disorders
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23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) To provide appropriate instructions to a client who has an ear wick inserted to facilitate medication administration for external otitis, the nurse would advise the client to
A) apply ear drops directly to the wick.
B) eliminate milk from the diet.
C) shower frequently to remove ear secretions.
D) sleep with the affected ear on the pillow.
Q2) The nurse is aware that when speaking with a client who has impaired hearing in the right ear, the behavior that would make it more difficult for the client to understand the communication is
A) directing the voice toward the left ear.
B) speaking in a normal tone.
C) smiling while talking to seem friendly.
D) standing in front of the client.
Q3) When a client who underwent vestibular surgery complains of thirst, the nurse would avoid offering this client
A) cola.
B) ginger ale.
C) lemonade.
D) mineral water.
Page 68
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Chapter 67: Assessment of the Neurologic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which confidence shared by a female client would alter the decision to use magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) as a diagnostic modality?
A) "I was too embarrassed to tell my doctor that I've had my breasts enlarged."
B) "I didn't tell my doctor that I've had my stomach stapled."
C) "My doctor would think I'm silly to have had a 'tummy tuck,' so I didn't tell him."
D) "No one knows I wear dentures, not even my husband. My doctor doesn't either."
Q2) In assessing the function of CNs III, IV, and VI, the nurse would ask the client to
A) look straight ahead for examination with an ophthalmoscope.
B) move the eyes in six directions.
C) read a newspaper.
D) shut the eyes tightly.
Q3) If the client has adequate proprioception, the nurse would know that the client can A) bend over at a 90-degree angle and return to ab upright position.
B) stand steady with feet together.
C) touch nose with eyes closed.
D) touch top lip with tip of tongue.
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Page 69
Chapter 68: Management of Comatose or Confused
Clients
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse who is beginning oral feedings on a client who is returning to consciousness will
A) begin feedings with water.
B) place about 1 teaspoon of liquid in the front of the mouth.
C) position the client upright.
D) stroke the posterior neck to promote swallowing.
Q2) The nursing action contraindicated in the care of a client with a severe basilar skull fracture is
A) nasal suctioning.
B) pharyngeal suctioning.
C) raising the head of his bed.
D) tooth brushing.
Q3) The nurse points out the important difference between metabolically induced coma and structurally induced coma is that metabolically induced coma results in A) abnormal posturing.
B) absent corneal reflex.
C) exaggerated deep tendon reflexes.
D) symmetrical motor manifestations.
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Chapter 69: Management of Clients with Cerebral Disorders
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4067
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is teaching a client preventive strategies for migraine headaches. The nurse would evaluate that teaching goals have been met when the client says (Select all that apply)
A) "Do you know where I can learn relaxation techniques like yoga?"
B) "Eating on a regular schedule may help prevent some migraines."
C) "I should keep a headache diary to see if I can identify headache triggers."
D) "Small amounts of alcohol should not cause any headaches."
E) "There may be some foods that trigger my headaches that I should avoid."
Q2) An important age-related consideration the nurse should include in the care plan for an elderly client with a seizure disorder is
A) a decreased serum albumin level can increase the free plasma level of medications.
B) fortunately, seizure medications have very few drug-drug interactions.
C) older adults have very few choices when it comes to seizure medications.
D) the elderly rarely have seizure disorders, so community support for them is poor.
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Chapter 70: Management of Clients with Stroke
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28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a client who had a stroke several years ago. The client has indicators of being malnourished. The nurse would assess the client for which of the following?
A) Ability to throw the head back to propel the food
B) Embarrassment and frustration over trouble eating
C) Inability of the bowel to absorb nutrients
D) Positioning the head with a sideways' tilt
Q2) The nurse would assess the client with a history of TIAs for A) ataxia and dysarthria.
B) bouts of hypertension.
C) nausea and vomiting.
D) tingling in the extremities.
Q3) A client has received thrombolytic therapy for treatment of an ischemic stroke. Which intervention takes priority?
A) Assessing nutritional status and planning feeding
B) Consulting with the interdisciplinary stroke team
C) Providing client and family education
D) Stringent blood pressure control
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Chapter 71: Management of Clients with Peripheral Nervous
System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The point the nurse should stress in giving home instructions to the client regarding home care following carpal tunnel release surgery is
A) flex and extend the fingers every 4 hours while awake.
B) notify the physician if part of the hand becomes cold or tingly.
C) restrict lifting for 2 weeks.
D) wear a splint for 24 to 48 hours.
Q2) A client with acute disk herniation began using ice for analgesia along with medication therapy. The nurse explains that the client will be switched to heat therapy after
A) 24 hours.
B) 48 hours.
C) 72 hours.
D) 96 hours.
Q3) The nurse would assist the client with low back pain resulting from herniated lumbar disk into the position of
A) either to the right or left side with knees straight.
B) prone with a very small pillow under the head.
C) side-lying with knees flexed.
D) supine with head elevated 90 degrees.
Page 73
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Chapter 72: Management of Clients with Degenerative Neurologic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is performing an assessment on a client who is suspected of having MG. The complaint made by the client that reflects a manifestation commonly seen in clients with this disease is
A) "By the end of the day, my eyelids usually are drooping."
B) "I have a great deal of difficulty getting up after I rest for a while."
C) "I perspire more then I ever have in the past."
D) "When I have a cold, I usually have a strong cough with it."
Q2) A client with AD begins to tell the nurse about his early-married life. The nurse should A) assess orientation to time and place.
B) distract the client from this activity.
C) encourage the client to talk about recent memories.
D) listen to his stories.
Q3) A client is being treated in the clinic for an exacerbation of multiple sclerosis. The nurse would anticipate administering which drug?
A) Diazepam (Valium)
B) Interferon b1b (Betaseron)
C) Lioresal (Baclofen)
D) Methylprednisolone (Solu-Cortef)
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Chapter 73: Management of Clients with Neurologic
Trauma
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the client who has been in flaccid spinal shock dorsiflexes the great toe and fans the other toes when the sole of his foot is stroked, the nurse is
A) alarmed, because this indicates increased ICP.
B) alerted, because this indicates possible meningeal irritation.
C) distressed, because this indicates deterioration.
D) pleased, because this indicates a reduction of spinal shock.
Q2) The emergency department nurse should position the client with cranial injuries
A) in high-Fowler position and knees elevated.
B) side-lying with head of bed elevated 20 degrees.
C) supine with head of bed elevated 30 degrees.
D) supine with the bed completely flat.
Q3) A male client with a spinal cord injury at the level of C5 is despondent relative to the termination of sexual relations because of his injury. The nurse counsels that erections are possible with
A) heat pack to the scrotum.
B) manual stimulation.
C) penile implant.
D) visual imagery.
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Chapter 74: Assessment of the Hematopoietic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client presents to the ambulatory care center seeking treatment for allergies. When questioning the client, the nurse would inquire about (Select all that apply)
A) a history of desensitization shots and their effectiveness.
B) presence of fatigue, headaches, or weakness.
C) previous anaphylactic reactions to food.
D) seasonal variation in manifestations.
E) triggers known to cause manifestations.
Q2) Several employees report allergic manifestations. The occupational health nurse would focus an investigation on the workplace's
A) food service vendor.
B) heating and cooling systems.
C) lighting.
D) water supply.
Q3) In evaluating a young woman, the following laboratory result the nurse recognizes as abnormal is
A) hemoglobin 13 g/dl.
B) platelet count 20,000/mm<sup>3</sup>.
C) red blood cell count 5 million/mm<sup>3</sup>.
D) white blood cell count 6000/mm<sup>3</sup>.
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Page 76
Chapter 75: Management of Clients with Hematologic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A child with hemophilia requires frequent emergency infusions of antihemophilic factor replacement therapy (AHF). The mother becomes distraught during one infusion and starts crying, saying "It's all my fault my child has to suffer so!" An appropriate intervention by the nurse would be to
A) call the social worker to come sit with the mother during the infusion.
B) explain to the mother that it was the father who gave the child hemophilia.
C) gently remind the mother that she cannot control genetics.
D) offer resources to teach the mother home AHF infusion technique.
Q2) The manifestation that would require immediate investigation in a client with infectious mononucleosis is
A) abdominal pain.
B) joint discomfort.
C) leukocyte count of 12,000/mm<sup>3</sup>.
D) sore throat.
Q3) The nurse can decrease the danger of transfusion reactions in a client by A) adding sterile saline to the blood transfusion.
B) forcing fluids.
C) infusing the blood slowly during the first 15 minutes.
D) monitoring the urine output.
Page 77
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Chapter 76: Management of Clients with Immune Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse reminds a client that a delayed inflammatory response can occur 2 to 8 hours after exposure to an allergen and is governed by A) basophils.
B) eosinophils.
C) mast cells.
D) T cells.
Q2) The nurse explains that in step 1 (sensitization) of becoming allergic, the body, A) develops immunoglobulin E (IgE) antibodies.
B) forms mast cells.
C) produces basophils.
D) reacts with rhinitis, urticaria, asthma, or gastrointestinal (GI) manifestations.
Q3) The home health care nurse who is teaching the client about home environment modifications to self-manage allergies would focus on eliminating allergens that are A) eaten.
B) inhaled.
C) injected.
D) transmitted by direct contact.
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Chapter 77: Management of Clients with Rheumatic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client has dermatomyositis. The nurse will include priority interventions in the care plan provisions to meet the problem of A) difficulty ambulating.
B) difficulty swallowing.
C) disorientation.
D) phlebitis.
Q2) The nurse caring for a client with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) should warn the client that the factor most likely to cause an exacerbation of this disorder is A) a diet high in saturated fats. B) changes in temperature.
C) exposure to the sun.
D) ingestion of aspirin.
Q3) The nursing assessment of clients with SLE should focus most intensely on the presence of the common and serious sequela of this disorder, which is A) difficulty swallowing. B) interruptions in skin integrity.
C) peripheral neuropathies.
D) renal failure.
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Chapter 78: Management of Clients with Acquired
Immunodeficiency Syndrome
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is assessing a client with AIDS for the presence of Kaposi's sarcoma (KS). The manifestation the nurse should look for is a
A) crusty lesion on the back and groin.
B) purple-red lesion on the body.
C) pustular lesion with yellow exudate.
D) thick, white exudate in the mouth.
Q2) The nurse counsels other co-workers that the suggested treatment for HIV exposure is
A) a single retroviral medication for 2 weeks.
B) combination retroviral medications for 2 weeks.
C) determined by the severity of the exposure and other factors.
D) "watching and waiting" for 12 weeks post-exposure.
Q3) A client with AIDS has the nursing diagnosis Imbalanced Nutrition: Less Than Body Requirements. The nurse should
A) encourage sweet foods and desserts that appeal to the taste.
B) encourage the client to dine alone to focus on food intake.
C) instruct the client to prepare meals, then divide and freeze them.
D) tell the client to eat large meals to result in greater intake.
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Chapter 79: Management of Clients with Leukemia and Lymphoma
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client with leukemia has the nursing diagnosis Imbalanced Nutrition: Less Than Body Requirements. Which food offered by the nurse would the client be least likely to want?
A) A sandwich
B) Cold applesauce
C) Hot soup
D) Vanilla milkshake
Q2) A client has been receiving MOPP (mechlorethamine, vincristine [Oncovin], procarbazine, prednisone) therapy for treatment of Hodgkin's disease. The treatment has changed to a protocol of ABVD (doxorubicin [Adriamycin], bleomycin, vinblastine, and dacarbazine). When the client asks the nurse for clarification about the change in protocol, the nurse's response will include that ABVD
A) can frequently produce a remission after only 1 cycle.
B) negates the need for radiation therapy.
C) prevents hypercalcemia.
D) reduces the risk of leukemia.
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Chapter 80: Management of Clients Requiring
Transplantation
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Q1) A client who had a liver transplant 4 days ago has developed a fever and decreased biliary tube drainage. The nurse anticipates an order for the client to have a
A) liver biopsy.
B) set of blood cultures.
C) ultrasound.
D) white blood cell count.
Q2) The nurse working with the family of a potential organ donor informs them that the Uniform Determination of Death Act (UDDA) includes in its definition of death irreversible cessation of activity in the entire brain
A) except in the situation of an ancephalic infant.
B) in a person in an irreversible vegetative state.
C) including the brain stem.
D) unless a vegetative state has exceeded 2 years.
Q3) The nurse explains that the law prohibiting the buying and selling of organs is the A) National Transplant Act.
B) Organ Procurement and Transplant Network.
C) Uniform Anatomical Gift Act.
D) United Network of Organ Sharing.
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Chapter 81: Management of Clients with Shock and Multisystem
Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse would assess the individual in the most serious stage of shock as a
A) 22-year-old man with a falling BP.
B) 35-year-old woman with a pulse pressure of 40.
C) 50-year-old woman with a MAP of 90.
D) 60-year-old man with a pulse rate of 100.
Q2) The nurse closely assesses clients who experience crushing injuries and are in shock because they are more prone than other clients to develop
A) adult respiratory distress syndrome.
B) disseminated intravascular clotting.
C) fat emboli and respiratory distress.
D) uncompensated metabolic alkalosis.
Q3) Nursing care for a client in hypovolemic shock caused by trauma should include
A) giving narcotics for pain relief.
B) maintaining a cool environment.
C) placing the client in Trendelenburg position.
D) providing nasogastric suctioning.
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Chapter 82: Management of Clients in the Emergency Department
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4080
Sample Questions
Q1) A client with a chest injury develops respiratory distress, distended jugular neck veins, and tracheal deviation. The nurse anticipates the client will receive immediate
A) chest tube insertion.
B) chest x-ray.
C) intubation.
D) needle thoracotomy.
Q2) A client has died from very disfiguring injuries received in an automobile accident. When the family arrives moments later, the nurse relays the news to the family and then should (Select all that apply)
A) allow the family to be alone to grieve.
B) give information related to the extent of the fatal injuries.
C) help the family to focus on decisions requiring immediate attention.
D) tell the family that it is best not to view the body.
Q3) A client is brought to the ED with a suspected neck injury. The nurse should
A) adjust the table to sit the client upright.
B) apply a hard cervical collar to the nuchal area.
C) check for full range of motion of the head.
D) place a rolled towel under the client's neck.
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