Foundations of Nursing Pre-Test Questions
Course Introduction
Foundations of Nursing introduces students to the fundamental principles and concepts essential for the practice of professional nursing. This course covers the historical development of nursing, ethical and legal considerations, communication skills, evidence-based practice, and the nursing process. Emphasis is placed on the development of critical thinking, clinical reasoning, and compassionate patient care within diverse healthcare environments. Students are provided with the theoretical groundwork needed to assess, plan, implement, and evaluate nursing interventions, enabling them to support the well-being of individuals, families, and communities.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations of Nursing 3rd Edition by Lois White
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Student Nurse Skills for Success
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nursing student received a failing score on the first exam.The student develops a plan to increase the score of the next exam by including which of the following activities?
(Select all that apply. )
A)understand each missed question and review related content
B)move on to the next area of content
C)wait until peers take the test and ask what was on it
D)stay home to have extra study time instead of attending class
E)attend test reviews
F)look for patterns among the mistakes
Answer: A,E,F
Q2) The student nurse demonstrates competence in medication administration.The competence in the activity performed by the student would be considered:
A)ability
B)perfectionism
C)talent
D)understanding
Answer: A
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Holistic Care
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Q1) The nurse is assisting a client to increase the practice of healthy habits such as exercise,adequate rest and sleep,and using proper body mechanics.This process is an example of which type of wellness?
A)intellectual
B)physical
C)psychological
D)spiritual
Answer: B
Q2) The needs of a client who is a homeless,elderly woman with no means of support would probably be at which level of Maslow's hierarchy of needs?
A)love and belonging
B)physiologic needs
C)safety and security
D)self-actualization
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Nursing History, Education, and Organizations
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Q1) As nursing graduates,students need to be aware of organizations that assist in governing and regulating nursing practice.Which of the following organizations fall in this category? (Select all that apply. )
A)National Council of State Boards of Nursing
B)Nightingale Training School for Nurses
C)National League for Nursing
D)baccalaureate nursing programs
Answer: A,C
Q2) Which nurse was appointed as Superintendent of the Female Nurses of the Army in 1861 and was the first woman to be appointed to an administrative position by the federal government?
A)Dorothea Dix
B)Lavinia Dock
C)Clara Barton
D)Lillian Wald
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Legal and Ethical Responsibilities
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Sample Questions
Q1) An incident report is completed by a nurse to include all pertinent information.Which action should take place NEXT?
A)The report is channeled to the facility's risk management department.
B)The nurse makes a verbal apology to the client.
C)The report is placed in the affected client's chart.
D)The nurse makes an appointment with the immediate supervisor.
Q2) Which of the following clients could NOT be treated without a guardian or parent giving consent?
A)10-year-old female brought in by an ambulance and who is bleeding from a puncture wound
B)14-year-old female requesting treatment for alcohol addiction
C)17-year-old male requiring MMR immunization for his college application health exam
D)32-year-old married male requesting HIV testing
Q3) What type of law concerns the individual's relationship to the state?
A)civil
B)contract
C)public
D)tort
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Chapter 5: The Health Care Delivery System
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Q1) In the future,home health services will continue to expand to meet the growing needs of which of these populations?
A)clients who are HIV-positive
B)clients who are rapidly discharged from the hospital
C)children with special needs
D)older adults
Q2) Preset flat fees based on membership in the health maintenance organization,and not on services provided,are called:
A)capitated rates
B)fee-for-service
C)prospective payment
D)single-payer funds
Q3) The activities of voluntary agencies are funded by membership dues,individual contributions,and:
A)the local government
B)the state government
C)the federal government
D)corporate philanthropy
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Chapter 6: Arenas of Care
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Q1) When caring for a client,the primary focus of the interdisciplinary health care team (IHCT)is on the:
A)client and family
B)nursing staff
C)health care provider(s)
D)physical and occupational therapist
Q2) For a client who has had a total knee replacement and requires additional therapy,which of these arenas would be MOST appropriate?
A)hospice
B)long-term care facility
C)subacute care unit
D)home
Q3) Nurses working in home health care must have all of the following skills and abilities.Which of these forms the foundation for all others?
A)ability to conduct ongoing client and family teaching
B)ability to work with the family to meet the client's needs
C)excellent assessment skills and a keen ability to identify problems
D)excellent nursing skills and creativity
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8
Chapter 7: Communication
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Q1) In addition to speaking,the nurse must be aware that verbal communication includes which method?
A)gestures and expressions
B)eye contact and touch
C)reading and writing
D)observing and perceiving
Q2) Which type of spatial distance is used for friends and coworkers and is effective for many nurses and clients involved in interviewing or gathering data?
A)intimate
B)personal
C)public
D)social
Q3) Which statement about social communication between the nurse and client is TRUE?
A)It is very informal.
B)It is highly structured to provide information.
C)It is nonthreatening and puts the client at ease.
D)It is a way to build lifelong friendships.
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9
Chapter 8: Client Teaching
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Q1) A client tells a nurse,"My discharge plan is too complicated! I'll never remember everything I'm supposed to do." To facilitate the client's learning,the nurse concludes the focus needs to be placed on:
A)maturation
B)organization
C)readiness to learn
D)participation
Q2) When providing client education,it is important to build upon previously learned information,moving from simple concepts to complex concepts.What is this learning principle called?
A)organization
B)reinforcement
C)relevance
D)repetition
Q3) Which of these strategies would BEST assist the nurse in evaluating client learning?
A)giving the client a written test about the content covered
B)requesting a peer to give feedback about the teaching session
C)asking the client questions during and after the session
D)sending a written follow-up questionnaire to the client after discharge
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Nursing Processdocumentationinformatics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these provide the basis for selecting nursing interventions to achieve the goals for which the nurse is accountable?
A)medical diagnosis
B)nursing diagnosis
C)nursing process
D)specific orders
Q2) The nurse performs an initial assessment of a client's physiologic needs followed by assessment of higher-level needs.This is an example of:
A)the body systems model
B)functional health patterns
C)the hierarchy of needs
D)human response patterns
Q3) The nurse is gathering data about the client through physical examination and observation.This is an example of:
A)comprehensive data
B)thorough data
C)objective data
D)subjective data
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11
Chapter 10: Life Span Development
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Q1) Which of these statements about fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS)is TRUE?
A)The effects of FAS are usually reversible.
B)FAS is a leading cause of spontaneous abortion.
C)Alcohol consumption is most dangerous during the first 3 months of pregnancy.
D)The incidence of FAS is decreasing.
Q2) Which of these phases of development is characterized by rapid cell division and implantation of the fertilized egg in the uterine wall?
A)embryonic
B)fetal
C)germinal
D)neonatal
Q3) According to Fowler's theory of faith development,the late adolescent and young adult will:
A)assume responsibility for their own attitudes and beliefs
B)integrate others' perspectives about faith into their own definition of truth
C)make concepts of love and justice tangible
D)question values and religious beliefs in an attempt to form their own identity
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12
Chapter 11: Cultural Considerations
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Q1) Which of the following statements about religious support systems in the health care setting is TRUE?
A)They may not recognize the client's spiritual needs.
B)They are part of the client's health care team.
C)They consist exclusively of ministers,priests,and rabbis.
D)They provide religious freedom for the client.
Q2) A nurse is caring for a client who does not speak English and finds it difficult to communicate with the client.Which of these actions should the nurse take?
A)Ask the health care provider to explain client-care routines to the client.
B)Request the supervisor to change assignments.
C)Find an interpreter either in the client's family or from the facility resource pool.
D)Refrain from speaking to the client,as to prevent confusion.
Q3) In which of these cultural groups is the husband/father considered the dominant family member?
A)Hispanic
B)Asian
C)Native American
D)African American
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Chapter 12: Stress, Adaptation, and Anxiety
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Q1) When stressors evoke an ineffective response in a person,what is the result?
A)anxiety
B)catharsis
C)distress
D)eustress
Q2) A client is using confrontations with a stepchild as opportunities to teach the child,rather than allowing discussions to become personally disturbing.This situation is an example of which process?
A)adaptation
B)cognitive reframing
C)conditioning
D)maladaptive measures
Q3) What happens when a person uses all of his or her adaptive energy?
A)The body defends itself through the fight-or-flight response.
B)Stress-avoidance measures are evoked.
C)Illness,disease,or even death may occur.
D)Unconscious operations begin to defend the mind from anxiety.
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14
Chapter 13: Loss, Grief, and Death
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Q1) After the family has viewed the body of the deceased and the nurse has placed the identification tags,the next step in postmortem care before transporting the body to the morgue or mortuary is to:
A)bathe the body and dress it in a clean gown
B)close the client's eyes
C)place the body in a shroud
D)remove all tubes and dressings
Q2) What is the nurse's FIRST priority when implementing care for a client who is dying?
A)providing technically proficient care to the client
B)supporting the client's family
C)communicating caring to the client and family
D)assisting the family in making funeral arrangements
Q3) The loss of someone or something,such as the death of a loved one or the theft of one's property,represents what kind of loss?
A)actual
B)anticipated
C)situational
D)perceived
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Chapter 14: Wellness Concepts
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Q1) What is the leading cause of death in the United States that can be controlled by controlling risk factors?
A)heart disease
B)AIDS
C)suicide
D)kidney disease
Q2) The nurse explains to the client that when optimal health occurs,an individual maximizes human potential,moves toward integration of human functioning,and takes responsibility for health.The nurse acknowledges that this is an example of:
A)health
B)health promotion
C)illness prevention
D)wellness
Q3) Over which factors affecting health does the individual have no control?
A)environmental influences
B)genetics and human biology
C)health care
D)personal behavior
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Chapter 15: Self-Concept
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Q1) Which of the following nursing interventions is one method of improving a client's self-esteem?
A)administer antidepressant medications as ordered
B)empower the client
C)refer to social service
D)notify the physician of negative ideation
Q2) When interviewing a client,the nurse asks the client to describe him-or herself to understand his or her identity.The MOST appropriate rationale for obtaining this information is:
A)to influence client's identity
B)to enhance client's self-concept
C)to gain insight if client is comfortable with his or her identity
D)to recall memories of success
Q3) When teaching a client to keep a journal,the nurse recognizes that the client needs further teaching if he or she explains the purpose is a way to:
A)assist with issues of confidence
B)assist to bridge a person's thoughts and feelings
C)assist with exploring attitudes toward self
D)assist with discharge planning
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Spirituality
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Q1) According to Stoll's guidelines for spiritual assessment,the MOST appropriate question asked by the nurse would be:
A)"What is your source of strength?"
B)"Do you pray?"
C)"Do you attend religious services?"
D)"Does your family have the same beliefs?"
Q2) The acronym FICA for spiritual assessment represents:
A)faith,importance or influence,community,and address
B)family,importance or influence,community,and address
C)faith,importance or influence,caring,and attitude
D)faith,importance or influence,caring,and address
Q3) Which of the following would be the MOST appropriate evaluation criteria for a client experiencing spiritual distress?
A)The client shared thoughts,feelings,and beliefs.
B)The client does not have religious affiliation.
C)The client verbalized anger at God for the current medical problem.
D)The client demonstrated lack of interest when clergy visited.
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Chapter 17: Complementary Alternative Therapies
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Q1) Amino acids that are produced in the brain and other body sites and act as chemical communicators are called:
A)antioxidants
B)neuropeptides
C)neurotransmitters
D)phytochemicals
Q2) Therapeutic use of concentrated essences or essential oils that have been extracted from plants and flowers is known as:
A)aromatherapy
B)imagery
C)phytochemical therapy
D)odorology
Q3) What is the fundamental concept of reflexology?
A)The foot is the microcosm of the entire body.
B)Various body zones control a person's health status.
C)Foot massage can cure many acute health problems.
D)Taking good care of the feet prolongs life.
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Chapter 18: Basic Nutrition
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Questions
Q1) A client has had dentures for 2 years but rarely uses them at mealtimes.Which of these actions should the nurse request from the health care provider?
A)Prescribe a mechanical soft or edentulous diet.
B)Order a dental consult to correct the client's problem.
C)Order a dietary consult to assist the client in making educated food choices.
D)Prescribe a liquid diet.
Q2) A client who has been treated for gastric ulcers will have which of these dietary prescriptions?
A)fat controlled
B)liberal bland
C)low residue
D)regular
Q3) The client who has a deficiency of water is experiencing:
A)anhydrous
B)dehydration
C)ketosis
D)perspiration
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20
Chapter 19: Rest and Sleep
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Q1) The nurse is caring for a client with restless leg syndrome.Assessment data for this client would include which of the following? (Select all that apply. )
A)legs jumping involuntarily
B)itching of the legs and feet
C)paralysis of the feet
D)decrease in pulse in the feet
E)tingling of the legs and feet
F)deep aching in the feet
Q2) Somnambulism and bruxism are the MOST common manifestations of which sleep disorder?
A)hypersomnia
B)narcolepsy
C)parasomnia
D)periodic limb movement disorder
Q3) A client who has been experiencing sleep disturbance should be encouraged to:
A)take a 1-hour nap at midday
B)sleep whenever possible
C)go to bed as early as possible
D)use bedtime rituals consistently
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Chapter 20: Safety-Hygiene
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Q1) The nurse is caring for a client in restraints.Which of the following would the nurse ensure was included in the documentation for this client? (Select all that apply. )
A)type of restraint used
B)client's response to the restraints
C)assessment for the need of the restraint
D)position of the bed
E)client's age
F)notification of the family
Q2) To reduce bathroom hazards,a nurse should teach a client to do which of the following?
A)Position throw rugs around tubs,showers,and sinks.
B)Use hot water liberally.
C)Install grab bars near the tub or shower.
D)Keep extra toilet tissue within easy reach.
Q3) Which of the following would pose a safety hazard in a hospital environment?
A)Side rails are raised for clients of all ages.
B)An incontinent client has urinated on the floor.
C)A dietary tray is left on a bedside table.
D)The door to a client bathroom is open.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Infection Controlasepsis
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Q1) To eliminate pathogens from a stethoscope,between client contacts,which of these actions should the nurse take?
A)Cleanse it with alcohol.
B)Scrub it with a soft bristle brush and detergent.
C)Wash it with cold water only.
D)Wash it with soap and water.
Q2) Which of the following procedures requires the nurse to practice surgical asepsis?
A)handling or disposing of infectious waste
B)performing noninvasive procedures
C)wound or intravenous site dressing changes
D)tearing down a sterile field
Q3) In preventing the spread of infection,the MOST important intervention for health care professionals is:
A)client education
B)hand hygiene
C)proper use of isolation techniques
D)universal precautions
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Chapter 22: Standard Precautions and Isolation
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Q1) The nurse's responsibility in reducing the client's risk for infection includes which of the following? (Select all that apply. )
A)hand hygiene for all who enter the room
B)proper protective equipment
C)not allowing visitors
D)keeping environment clean
E)follow isolation policy
Q2) A client with pneumonia has a repeat chest X-ray in the radiology department.The nurse places which of the following on the client for transport?
A)a face shield
B)a surgical mask
C)an N-95 respirator
D)gloves and a gown
Q3) A client who has sustained extensive burns will require what type of isolation precautions?
A)barrier
B)reverse
C)standard
D)transmission-based
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Chapter 23: Bioterrorism
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Q1) Which statement is TRUE regarding purpose of the Stafford Act?
A)It provides medical supplies to communities with disasters.
B)It provides provisions for the development of disaster plans.
C)It provides medical personnel to communities with disasters.
D)It provides federal monies to communities with disasters.
Q2) Which priority actions would the first responder take when suspecting a victim has had exposure to ricin? (Place in order,starting with the highest priority. )
____ remove from exposed area or get outside
____ seek medical attention
____ do not remove clothing over head,cut off and double bag
____ wash the entire body with large amounts of soap and lukewarm water
____ remove contacts or glasses and rinse eyes
Q3) When monitoring a client for the first symptoms of radiation sickness,the nurse expects to note:
A)anorexia,vomiting,and diarrhea
B)nausea,vomiting,and diarrhea
C)vomiting,fatigue,and weight loss
D)fatigue,weight loss,and bone marrow suppression
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Chapter 24: Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Balance
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Q1) Which of these terms refers to the maintenance of the body's internal environment within narrow limits?
A)homeostasis
B)osmosis
C)diffusion
D)elimination
Q2) The nurse is caring for a client experiencing respiratory alkalosis.Which of these conditions is a causative agent?
A)pneumonia
B)brain injury
C)anxiety
D)emphysema
Q3) Where is phosphate mostly found in the body?
A)blood,plasma,and lymph
B)bone and teeth
C)cardiac muscle
D)smooth muscle and nerve tissue
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Chapter 25: Medication Administration and IV Therapy
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Q1) In addition to age,weight,and height,which of these factors can influence drug action?
A)developmental status
B)physical characteristics
C)amount of body fat
D)psychological maturity
Q2) Before delivering a drug through an enteral tube,it is MOST important for the nurse to do which of the following?
A)Assess the client's bowel sounds.
B)Check the tube patency.
C)Check the tube placement.
D)Instill 5 mL of water to rinse the tube.
Q3) The nurse explains to a client that the drug administration of a medication is to placed between the gum and jaw.By which route is the nurse administering this medication?
A)buccal
B)oral
C)sublingual
D)topical
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Chapter 26: Assessment
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Q1) When a client has an order for "daily weight," when should the nurse weigh the client?
A)after breakfast each morning
B)at the same time each morning,on the same scale,wearing the same type of clothing
C)at the staff's convenience between the hours of 7 A.M.and 7 P.M.on the unit scales
D)before bedtime each evening
Q2) When a nurse asks a client to focus on an object in the distance and then move her gaze to a nearby object,what process is the nurse assessing?
A)accommodation
B)direct light reflex
C)pupil shape test
D)pupil size test
Q3) Convert between Fahrenheit and Celsius temperatures.
36.5 degrees Celsius
Q4) A mother called the physician's office,reporting that her son had a temperature of 102.6 degrees Fahrenheit.The nurse is to record the information as a Celsius temperature.What should the nurse document?
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Chapter 27: Pain Management
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Q1) Which theory of pain proposes that pain can be relieved by blocking the transmission of pain impulses to the brain by physical modalities and altering the individual's thought processes,emotions,or other behaviors?
A)gate control theory
B)Kussmaul's theory
C)perception modulation
D)transduction
Q2) Which of the following may occur as a side effect when administering opiates?
A)anxiety
B)diarrhea
C)palpitations
D)respiratory depression
Q3) In providing pain medication for the postoperative client,what is the preferred route of administration when the client is NPO
A)epidural
B)intramuscular
C)intravenous
D)oral
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29
Chapter 28: Diagnostic Tests
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the MOST common sites for bone marrow aspiration?
A)long bones of the lower extremities
B)pelvis and floating ribs
C)sternum and iliac crest
D)ulna and radius
Q2) What does urine specific gravity measure?
A)acidity or alkalinity of urine
B)actual weight of urine in g/mL
C)number of solutes in a solution
D)presence or absence of bacteria in the urine
Q3) A client is scheduled to have an alpha-fetoprotein test drawn today.The nurse recognizes that the client MUST be:
A)between 16 and 18 weeks' gestation
B)taking oral contraceptives
C)at least 15 years of age
D)taking a hormone replacement drug
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Chapter 29: Basic Procedures
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Q1) When performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation on an adult client,what compression-to-ventilation rate should be maintained?
A)1 compression and 1 ventilation
B)5 compressions and 1 ventilation
C)10 compressions and 2 ventilations
D)15 compressions and 2 ventilations
Q2) A client is to be transferred from bed to stretcher,and maximum assistance is required.Which of these steps is essential when two nurses are performing this transfer?
A)Place a lift sheet under the client's back,trunk,and upper legs after logrolling the client to one side.
B)Have both nurses on the same side of the bed at all times.
C)Place pillows on the stretcher before the client is transferred.
D)Clamp any drainage tubes to prevent spills.
Q3) Which of these statements about obtaining a stool specimen for occult blood is TRUE?
A)The client must use a bedpan for specimen collection.
B)If possible,the client should void before and after specimen collection.
C)Only a representative sample of stool is required.
D)The entire stool is placed in the appropriate collection cup.
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Page 31
Chapter 30: Intermediate Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a nurse is replacing a client's tracheostomy ties,which of these steps is correct?
A)Hold the neck plate firmly with one hand while untying and removing soiled tapes.
B)Remove soiled tapes,cleanse the neck plate,and replace with clean tapes.
C)Suction the tracheostomy,perform tracheostomy cleaning,cut the soiled tapes,and replace with clean tapes.
D)Sedate the client,remove soiled tapes,perform tracheostomy cleaning,and apply clean tapes.
Q2) Before a nurse administers an enteral feeding,it is essential to take which of the following actions?
A)Determine if the client has had a bowel movement in the past 24 hours.
B)Ask the client about any feeling of gastric fullness.
C)Weigh the client and compare with previous weight.
D)Auscultate for bowel sounds to determine gastric motility.
Q3) When preparing a unit dose tablet for administration,the nurse should:
A)open the package and place it in the medicine cup
B)take the package to the client and have the client open it
C)place the tablet directly in the medicine cup without opening it
D)check the order with another nurse before placing it in the medicine cup
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Page 32
Chapter 31: Advanced Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)guidelines,IV solutions must be changed every 24 hours and IV catheters must be changed every:
A)12 hours
B)24 hours
C)48 to 72 hours
D)3 days
Q2) When changing a central venous dressing,the nurse would include which of the following actions? (Select all that apply. )
A)explaining the procedure to the client
B)applying gauze dressing
C)putting on a mask
D)using sterile gloves for removing dressing
E)cleansing the exit site in a circular manner
F)labelling with date and time of dressing change
Q3) According to the CDC guidelines,IV tubing must be changed every:
A)12 hours
B)24 hours
C)48 hours
D)3 days
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Page 33
Chapter 32: Anesthesia
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client's preanesthetic preparation for surgery in which general anesthesia will be administered includes which of the following? (Select all that apply. )
A)being admitted to the hospital the day prior to the surgery
B)withholding of food and fluids for at least 8 hours before the procedure
C)signing a form indicating informed consent for administration of anesthesia
D)taking regularly scheduled medications on the day of surgery with a minimal amount of water
E)limiting visitors to reduce stress and anxiety prior to surgery
Q2) When caring for a client who has undergone general anesthesia,the nurse's immediate priority interventions would include which of the following? (Select all that apply. )
A)monitoring respirations and blood pressure
B)monitoring for level of consciousness
C)repositioning client frequently
D)encouraging deep breathing
E)providing fluids and missed meal
F)encouraging ambulation
G)keeping the client warm
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Chapter 33: Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Infants who undergo surgery are at greater risk than adults for which of these possible complications?
A)hyperthermia
B)cardiac arrest
C)fluid overload
D)prolonged wound healing
Q2) What is the primary reason that electrocardiograms (EKGs)are routinely performed in middle-aged and older adult clients undergoing surgery?
A)Most insurance coverage dictates that they be performed.
B)The client's cardiac health must be evaluated because of the physical stress of surgery.
C)Ischemic heart disease is prevalent in these age groups.
D)A baseline study for comparison is needed should subsequent EKGs be needed.
Q3) A client who is 24 hours postoperative has an oral temperature of 101.8 degrees Fahrenheit.Which of these actions is indicated FIRST?
A)administering antipyretics as ordered
B)lowering the room temperature and providing cool washcloths
C)notifying the surgeon
D)providing light covers and clothing
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Oncology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is monitoring a client receiving intravenous (IV)chemotherapy.The nurse knows that the treatment would be discontinued if which sign appears?
A)blood return in the tubing
B)itching at the infusion site
C)client anxiety
D)pain or swelling at the infusion site
Q2) When teaching a male client about the screening tools is used for prostate cancer,the nurse would include screening for which of the following in the teaching plan?
A)urine screen for protein
B)PSA-serum level
C)serum testosterone
D)complete blood count
Q3) Nursing care of a client receiving internal radiation would include which of these approaches?
A)having one primary nurse care for the client
B)having the client perform personal care activities without assistance
C)limiting time of exposure to the client
D)wearing gown and gloves when in the client's room
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Chapter 35: Respiratory System
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Q1) What is the function of type I alveolar cells?
A)diffusion
B)gas exchange
C)production of surfactant
D)ventilation
Q2) When the nurse assesses the function that provides the body with a means of gas exchange,it includes an evaluation of:
A)diffusion
B)perfusion
C)respiration
D)ventilation
Q3) Which of the following medications may be used to treat a relatively small pleural effusion?
A)aerosol treatments
B)narcotics such as morphine
C)corticosteroids such as prednisone
D)diuretics such as Lasix and Bumex
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Chapter 36: Cardiovascular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client is receiving thrombolytic therapy following myocardial infarction.The nurse would monitor the client for evidence of which complications?
A)dysrhythmias and agitation
B)fever,dyspnea,and tingling in arms and hands
C)hematemesis and tarry stools
D)chest and foot pain
Q2) Which type of medication would be used FIRST in treating hypertension (HTN)?
A)angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE)inhibitors
B)beta-adrenergic blocking agents
C)diuretics
D)vasodilators
Q3) When the left ventricle is unable to effectively pump blood to body systems,as in left-sided heart failure,what is the impact on the right ventricle?
A)It continues to pump adequate quantities of blood.
B)It is unable to pump adequate quantities of blood.
C)It works harder,and hypertrophy of the right ventricle eventually results.
D)It works harder and initially results in no changes in cardiac output.
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Chapter 37: Hematologic and Lymphatic Systems
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Q1) When a nurse suspects a client is having a transfusion reaction,which action must the nurse take immediately?
A)Call the blood bank or laboratory and report findings.
B)Call the health care provider and report findings.
C)Continue to observe the client closely.
D)Stop the infusion.
Q2) Which of these statements about white blood cells (WBCs)is TRUE?
A)They are responsible for the exchange of O2 and CO2.
B)They are active in the clotting mechanism of the body.
C)They are produced by the liver according to the demand of the body.
D)They are responsible for fighting infection and assisting with immunity.
Q3) Which type of anemia is due to decreased or absent function of the bone marrow?
A)acquired hemolytic
B)hypoplastic
C)iron deficiency
D)sickle cell
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Chapter 38: Gastrointestinal System
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Q1) The client with cirrhosis may develop portal hypertension,which is associated with which of these conditions?
A)clotting disorders
B)esophageal varices
C)hypoglycemia
D)malnutrition
Q2) The nursing student is aware that the cause of peptic ulcers is related to:
A)acid/pepsin imbalance
B)erosive gastritis that starts to bleed
C)impaired mucosal defenses
D)high secretion of HCl (hydrochloric acid)
Q3) A nurse is caring for a client who has esophageal varices.A difference of how many mmHg in orthostatic blood pressure could indicate a change in fluid volume and possible recurrence of varix bleeding?
A)10
B)20
C)30
D)40
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Chapter 39: Urinary System
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Q1) A nurse is palpating the hemodialysis access site and does not feel a "thrill." Which of these steps should the nurse take next?
A)Administer a heparin flush to the cannula.
B)Place an absorbent dressing over the site.
C)Check the site with a Doppler stethoscope to confirm finding.
D)Notify the health care provider.
Q2) Extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy (ESWL)is administered to a client to treat urolithiasis.Which of these aspects should the client anticipate following this treatment?
A)IV fluids for 72 hours
B)remaining NPO for 12 hours
C)normal skin appearance
D)bloody urine for 1 to 2 days
Q3) A client who has multiple sclerosis develops total urinary incontinence.What initial treatment should the nurse tell the client to expect?
A)anticholinergic medications
B)indwelling catheter to a collection bag
C)intermittent self-catheterization of the urinary bladder
D)surgery to create a permanent ileal conduit
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Chapter 40: Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these medications will be prescribed to relieve pain for the client who has osteoarthritis?
A)aspirin or NSAIDs
B)steroids
C)narcotics
D)muscle relaxants
Q2) A client has a closed below-the-knee amputation of the left leg.The nurse recognizes the client will be scheduled to spend some time in the prone position each day to:
A)increase muscle strength of the thigh muscles
B)prevent contractures of the hip
C)prevent edema of the stump
D)prevent thrombophlebitis
Q3) A client who has severe and prolonged osteoporosis may experience loss of:
A)height
B)joint function
C)muscle mass
D)weight
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Chapter 41: Neurological System
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Q1) A nurse is caring for a client who has a spinal cord injury and develops signs of autonomic dysreflexia.Which action should the nurse take immediately?
A)Assess the client's blood pressure every few minutes until within normal limits.
B)Assess the client's respiratory function,and institute intubation procedures,if necessary.
C)Place client flat in bed.
D)Administer client's prescribed analgesic.
Q2) The chemical substance that excites,inhibits,or modifies the response of another neuron is an example of:
A)cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
B)myelin
C)a neurotransmitter
D)white matter
Q3) Alzheimer's disease (AD)can be definitively diagnosed by which test?
A)brain biopsy on autopsy
B)brain scan
C)serum acetylcholine level
D)thyroid function
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43
Chapter 42: Sensory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The client has inflammation of the conjunctiva resulting from invasion by bacterial,viral,or rickettsial organisms,and is causing pain and redness.The nurse explains that this problem is:
A)uveitis
B)conjunctivitis
C)keratitis
D)iriditis
Q2) The client has a disorder that causes the lens or its capsule to lose its transparency or become opaque.The nurse is aware that the client has which of the following conditions?
A)cataract
B)chalazion
C)glaucoma
D)keratitis
Q3) The nurse should include in client teaching that the MOST common type of conductive hearing loss is:
A)acoustic neuroma
B)Ménière's disease
C)otitis media
D)otosclerosis
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Chapter 43: Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which nursing diagnosis is MOST appropriate for a client who has hyperthyroidism?
A)Anxiety related to complications of hyperthyroidism
B)Risk for injury related to potential for hypertensive crisis
C)Imbalanced nutrition,less than body requirements
D)Impaired swallowing related to goiter
Q2) A client newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus has a nursing diagnosis of Knowledge deficit: diabetes,medical regimen,diet,exercise,and self-care management skills.Which nursing goal is appropriate for this client?
A)to maintain current weight
B)to maintain vital signs within normal limits
C)to use the food pyramid for meal planning
D)to relate the importance of an exercise program
Q3) A client is receiving radioactive iodine for the treatment of hyperthyroidism.Which precaution should the nurse initiate?
A)Avoid close contact with the adult family members.
B)Use disposable eating utensils.
C)Restrict fluids for the 2 days before and after administration.
D)Institute airborne precautions.
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45
Chapter 44: Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a client with a possible diagnosis of fibrocystic breast disease.The client asks,"What symptoms should I watch for?" The BEST response by the nurse would include which of the following? (Select all that apply. )
A)cysts that are painless with palpation
B)green,sticky nipple discharge
C)decreased estrogen levels
D)white,sticky nipple discharge
E)cysts that are more tender as the menstrual period approaches
Q2) If a client who has an inflammatory disorder of the male reproductive system,such as orchitis or prostatitis,begins to experience nausea,what should the nurse recognize about the client's condition?
A)It is deteriorating.
B)It is to be expected.
C)Recuperation is in progress.
D)The acute stage of the illness is still present.
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Chapter 45: Sexually Transmitted Diseases
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Q1) It is MOST important to remind a pregnant woman being treated for chlamydia to:
A)take the prescribed medication with milk
B)prepare for treatment of the baby after delivery
C)notify her health care provider if symptoms reoccur
D)repeat cultures when treatment is complete
Q2) Which population group is MOST at risk for developing human papillomavirus (HPV)infection?
A)males between the ages of 17 and 25 years old
B)males or females in their early 20s who have had multiple sexual partners
C)teenage girls or young women in their 20s
D)females in their mid-20s to 30s
Q3) In addition to prior treatment for sexually transmitted infections (STIs)and sexual orientation,which of the following is a pertinent part of a client history when screening for sexually transmitted diseases?
A)year of first sexual intercourse
B)racial origin
C)attendance at sex education classes
D)number of sexual partners over the last 6 months
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Chapter 46: Integumentary System
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Q1) What is considered the BEST treatment for a port-wine angioma?
A)surgical debridement
B)cosmetics
C)radical surgical excision
D)skin grafting over the lesion
Q2) A basic rule for the nurse when caring for clients who are experiencing impaired skin integrity related to an infectious disorder of the skin would be to:
A)avoid the use of soaps due to their drying effect
B)cleanse the skin with comfortably hot water to facilitate removal of crusts and ointment residues
C)massage the skin in an outward circle to facilitate healing
D)wear gloves
Q3) Which of these statements about the characteristics of malignant melanoma is TRUE?
A)It begins as a preexisting mole or nevus.
B)The nevus is regular in shape.
C)The nevus is a uniform light-brown color.
D)The nevus is smaller than 6 millimeters in diameter.
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Chapter 47: Immune System
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Q1) The nurse is caring for a client with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE).The nurse plans care for this client,knowing that this disorder is which of the following? (Select all that apply. )
A)a local rash that occurs as a result of allergy
B)an inflammatory disease of collagen contained in connective tissue
C)a disease frequently affecting women of childbearing age
D)a disease caused by the continuous release of histamine in the body
Q2) How is active acquired immunity obtained?
A)by antibodies produced by another human being or an animal
B)by exposure to a disease itself or its vaccine
C)by innate resistance to illnesses specific to other species
D)by transmission of antibodies through fetal circulation
Q3) In addition to careful observation for signs of rejection,which of these nursing interventions is appropriate for clients who have undergone a heart transplant?
A)weighing the client weekly
B)supporting frequent visits from family members
C)encouraging intake of fresh fruits and vegetables
D)placing the client in reverse isolation
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Chapter 48: Mental Illness
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Q1) What are the MOST common types of hallucinations?
A)auditory and visual
B)olfactory and tactile
C)tactile and visual
D)visual and olfactory
Q2) An older adult client has been taking lithium for several months.The nurse should recognize that the client's age increases susceptibility to which of these potential complications?
A)"breakthrough" episodes despite appropriate medical management
B)developing lithium toxicity
C)noncompliance with drug regime
D)sodium depletion
Q3) A client who is taking lithium to control bipolar disorder should understand the need to have which of these done monthly?
A)complete blood count,bleeding time,and hepatic function studies
B)lithium tolerance test
C)serum lithium level
D)24-hour urine creatine clearance test
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Chapter 49: Substance Abuse
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these drugs when mixed with alcohol is known as the "date rape drug"?
A)Valium
B)Librium
C)Rohypnol
D)Seconal
Q2) Over a 12-month period,a client has been arrested twice for driving while intoxicated.The client is able to perform activities of daily living (ADLs)without the use of alcohol and restricts drinking to weekend social situations.This client meets the criteria for:
A)alcohol withdrawal syndrome
B)personal bad judgment
C)substance abuse
D)substance dependence
Q3) An adolescent has been using lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD).The nurse is aware that this drug is classified as:
A)barbiturates
B)hallucinogens
C)steroids
D)opiates
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Page 51
Chapter 50: The Older Adult
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Sample Questions
Q1) How often should a nurse encourage most older adults to bathe or shower?
A)daily
B)every other day
C)two or three times a week
D)weekly
Q2) Which theory of aging projects that an individual's life span is programmed within the body cells and predetermines the speed with which the person ages and eventually dies?
A)collagen theory
B)immunity theory
C)programmed aging
D)stress theory
Q3) Which of these respiratory changes occurs as part of the normal aging process?
A)Effectiveness of the cough mechanism lessens,increasing risk of lung infection.
B)Muscles of respiration become less flexible,increasing vital capacity of the lungs.
C)Presence of diseases such as tuberculosis and respiratory tract infections is expected.
D)Chest pain accompanies any respiratory deficit.
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Chapter 51: Ambulatory, Restorative, and Palliative Care in Community Settings
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Q1) When performing the Functional Independence Measure (FIM),the nurse is aware the purpose of this tool is to:
A)assess the physical and psychosocial abilities in relation to the amount of assistance needed to complete activities of daily living (ADLs)
B)assess the cognitive and psychosocial abilities in relation to the amount of assistance needed to complete ADLs
C)assess the cognitive and motor function in relation to the amount of assistance needed to complete ADLs
D)assess the motor function and physical abilities in relation to the amount of assistance needed to complete ADLs
Q2) When caring for a client experiencing social isolation,which is the MOST appropriate nursing intervention?
A)provide distractional activities such as television
B)encourage client to participate in facility activities
C)request a consultation with a psychiatrist
D)allow the client to remain in his or her room
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Chapter 52: Responding to Emergencies
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Q1) The initial focus of the nursing management of clients who are in shock is to:
A)identify the type of shock
B)initiate appropriate interventions quickly
C)discuss client status with the family
D)administer medications as ordered
Q2) A client arrives in the emergency department undergoing CPR after being rescued from submersion in cold water.The nurse should recognize that CPR should be continued until the client's:
A)core temperature reaches 94 degrees Fahrenheit and cardiac status is evaluated
B)electrocardioversion can be attempted
C)family member can authorize "do not resuscitate" orders
D)reason for being in cold water is determined
Q3) A disaster can BEST be described as:
A)a consequence of natural or man-made events
B)a situation or event posing a serious threat to public health
C)the result of conditions beyond the scope of normal emergencies
D)a legal term related to unexplained situations with unpredictable outcomes
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Chapter 53: Integration
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 45-year-old female client who has a history of alcohol abuse develops severe jaundice and confusion;she also complains of nausea and indigestion.The client's blood pressure is elevated,both lower extremities are edematous,and the liver is enlarged.The client is admitted for treatment with a medical diagnosis of cirrhosis.What nursing diagnoses and interventions would be appropriate for this client?
Q2) A 45-year-old male client with a history of hypertension for 5 years develops symptoms of congestive heart failure (CHF)and renal failure.What are some of the possible reasons the client has developed CHF and renal failure? Describe the areas in which nursing intervention with this client could have helped prevent development of these complications.
Q3) A nurse is reviewing the health records of assigned clients.The nurse plans care knowing that which client is likely at risk for the development of third-spacing? (Select all that apply. )
A)the client with cirrhosis
B)the client with diabetes mellitus
C)the client with sepsis
D)the client with renal failure
E)the client with pneumonia
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Chapter 54: Prenatal Care
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Q1) During a physical examination,the fetal heart rate is considered to be tachycardia.How many beats per minute would the nurse expect to hear?
A)60 to 90
B)91 to 100
C)110 to 160
D)170 to 180
Q2) A client's last menstrual period began on July 13.Using Naegele's rule,the nurse calculates the client's estimated date of delivery (EDD)as:
A)March 6
B)March 20
C)April 6
D)April 20
Q3) Which of these substances starts to form around week 16 and may be present in amniotic fluid if the fetus encounters hypoxic stress during the pregnancy,labor,or delivery?
A)blood
B)fetal hemoglobin
C)meconium
D)urine
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Page 56
Chapter 55: Complications of Pregnancy
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Q1) When a pregnant woman with phenylketonuria (PKU)has a poorly regulated phenylalanine level,it causes an increase in the incidence of which condition in the fetus or neonate?
A)pulmonary defects
B)intrauterine growth retardation (IUGR)
C)hydrocephalus
D)PKU
Q2) A client is receiving magnesium sulfate for HELLP syndrome.The nursing interventions for this client should include which of the following? (Select all that apply. )
A)monitor respirations (must be at least 12)
B)monitor deep tendon reflexes
C)monitor liver enzymes
D)monitor hemoglobin level
E)monitor urine output (at least 30 cc/hour)
Q3) What is often the first clue of a multiple pregnancy?
A)fundal height greater than expected for gestational weeks
B)an elevated alpha-fetoprotein level
C)more severe nausea and vomiting and other discomforts of pregnancy
D)two or more heartbeats heard
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Page 57
Chapter 56: The Birth Process
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Q1) Which client position is preferred during the active and transition phases of labor because it promotes uteroplacental blood flow?
A)semi-Fowler's
B)side-lying
C)supine
D)walking
Q2) Placing the labor client in the hands-and-knees position seems to facilitate which of these?
A)pain relief during the transition phase of labor
B)fetal rotation from an occiput posterior position to an anterior position
C)fetal progression through the pelvis
D)uteroplacental blood flow
Q3) The nurse is aware that the maternal passage of primary concern when a client is planning a vaginal birth would be:
A)cervix
B)true pelvis
C)uterus
D)vagina
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Chapter 57: Postpartum Care
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Q1) A postpartum client who is a primipara and her husband prepared for their baby's birth by taking Lamaze classes,but the client had to have an emergency cesarean delivery.According to Reva Rubin's restorative/adaptive phases,the nurse would expect this couple to experience the MOST difficulty during which phase?
A)letting go
B)taking hold
C)taking in
D)postpartum blues
Q2) If a nurse observes an increased pulse rate and decreased blood pressure in a new postpartum client,the nurse should suspect the client has developed which of these conditions?
A)positive Homans' sign
B)postpartum hemorrhage
C)dehydration
D)uterine distention
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Chapter 58: Newborn Care
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Q1) A newborn client has a positive Babinski's reflex upon admission to the nursery.Which of these actions should the nurse take?
A)No action should be taken,because it is considered a normal reflex until the child is about 12 to 18 months of age.
B)Inform the health care provider because it indicates a problem with the central nervous system.
C)Request an order for a blood glucose because it indicates hypoglycemia in the newborn.
D)Watch the newborn carefully because it indicates the possibility of a seizure disorder.
Q2) When a nurse is giving the first bath to a newborn,which of these actions is essential?
A)wearing gloves while bathing the newborn
B)bathing the newborn in a small tub
C)cleansing the newborn's ears with a cotton-tipped applicator
D)sponge-bathing the newborn under a radiant warmer
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Chapter 59: Basics of Pediatric Care
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44591
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following interventions would be appropriate for the pediatric client who has a nursing diagnosis of Anxiety related to planned surgery?
A)Arrange for the child to draw a picture of the hospital unit and the operating room.
B)Encourage caregivers to observe the surgery.
C)Provide a favorite blanket or toy for the child pre- and postoperatively.
D)Schedule caregiver visits during sleep to avoid overstimulating the child.
Q2) A nurse would expect a 4-year-old client to have which of these perceptions of death?
A)a concept of religious beliefs determining beliefs of death
B)an idea that death is final
C)a no clear concept
D)a view of death as a kind of "sleep" that is interchangeable with life
Q3) When a 4-year-old client is being examined,which of these measurements would the nurse take?
A)length,head circumference,and weight
B)height,weight,and circumferences of head,chest,and abdomen
C)height and weight only
D)length and chest circumference only
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Chapter 60: Infants With Special Needs: Birth to 12 Months
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44592
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the earliest manifestation of cystic fibrosis?
A)circumoral cyanosis
B)insufficient lecithin level
C)meconium ileus
D)salty-tasting skin
Q2) The main objective of treatment of hyperbilirubinemia is to reduce the amount of which element in the infant's blood?
A)conjugated bilirubin
B)lumirubin
C)unconjugated bilirubin
D)urobilinogen
Q3) What is the preferred treatment for the majority of children who have febrile seizures?
A)administrating anticonvulsants to reduce the number of subsequent seizures
B)teaching parents about seizure precautions
C)doing nothing,since most febrile seizures stop before the infant can be taken for medical attention
D)treating the underlying disease processes only
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Chapter 61: Common Problems: 1-18 Years
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44593
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is documenting immunizations on the child's immunization record,which of these aspects should be included?
A)generic and trade names of the vaccine
B)amount of vaccine remaining in vial or ampoule
C)route of vaccine administration
D)type and date of vaccine administration
Q2) A bite from which of these insects causes a necrotic ulcer that may take months to heal?
A)black widow spider
B)brown recluse spider
C)deer tick
D)tsetse fly
Q3) In addition to children's curiosity,which of these factors contributes to the high incidence of burns among children?
A)mental health problems among children
B)risk-taking behavior among children
C)access to matches
D)failure of caretakers to adequately supervise children
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