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Foundations of Nursing Practice Questions - 1027 Verified Questions

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Course Introduction

Foundations of Nursing Practice Questions

Foundations of Nursing introduces students to the essential principles, theories, and practices that form the basis of professional nursing care. This course covers the historical development of nursing, the nursing process, legal and ethical responsibilities, communication skills, patient safety, health assessment, and the promotion of holistic well-being. Through a blend of theoretical learning and practical lab experiences, students develop critical thinking, clinical reasoning, and the foundational skills needed to provide compassionate, evidence-based care to diverse patient populations across the lifespan.

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Introduction to Maternity and Pediatric Nursing 8th Edition by Leifer

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34 Chapters

1027 Verified Questions

1027 Flashcards

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Page 2

Chapter 1: The Past, Present, and Future

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30 Verified Questions

30 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) How does electronic charting ensure comprehensive charting more effectively than handwritten charting?

A) Provides a uniform style of chart

B) Requires certain responses before allowing the user to progress

C) All documentation is reflective of the nursing care plan.

D) Requires a daily audit by the charge nurse

Answer: B

Q2) What developments in the early 20th century encouraged women to seek hospitalization for childbirth? (Select all that apply. )

A) Use of specialized obstetric instruments

B) Use of anesthesia

C) Physicians' closer relationships with hospitals

D) Focus on family-centered care

E) Insurance coverage

Answer: A,B,C

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Chapter 2: Human Reproductive Anatomy and Physiology

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32 Verified Questions

32 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) How long does sperm remain viable in the female reproductive tract?

A) 12 hours

B) 1 day

C) 2 days

D) 4 days

Answer: D

Q2) Which hormone initiates the maturation of the ovarian follicle?

A) Estrogen

B) Follicle-stimulating hormone

C) Progesterone

D) Luteinizing hormone

Answer: B

Q3) The nurse has explained menstruation to a 13-year-old girl.What statement indicates the girl needs additional education?

A) "Periods last about 5 days."

B) "My cycle should get regular in 6 months."

C) "I should expect heavy bleeding with clots."

D) "Periods come about every 4 weeks."

Answer: C

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Page 4

Chapter 3: Fetal Development

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the embryonic membrane that contains fingerlike projections on its surface,which attach to the uterine wall?

A) Amnion

B) Yolk sac

C) Chorion

D) Decidua basalis

Answer: C

Q2) What are the functions of amniotic fluid? (Select all that apply. )

A) Maintaining an even temperature

B) Impeding excessive fetal movement

C) Lubricating fetal skin

D) Acting as a reservoir for nutrients

E) Acting as a cushion for the fetus

Answer: A,E

Q3) What organ does the ductus venosus shunt blood away from in fetal circulation?

A) Liver

B) Heart

C) Lungs

D) Kidneys

Answer: A

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Chapter 4: Prenatal Care and Adaptations to Pregnancy

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse recognizes which behavior characteristic(s)of women in their first trimester of pregnancy? (Select all that apply. )

A) Showing off her sonogram photos

B) Ambivalence about pregnancy

C) Emotional and labile mood

D) Focusing on her infant

E) Fatigue

Q2) A pregnant woman is experiencing nausea in the early morning.What recommendations would the nurse offer to alleviate this symptom?

A) Eat three well-balanced meals per day and limit snacks.

B) Drink a full glass of fluid at the beginning of each meal.

C) Have crackers handy at the bedside,and eat a few before getting out of bed.

D) Eat a bland diet and avoid concentrated sweets.

Q3) A pregnant woman inquires about exercising during pregnancy.What information should the nurse include when planning to educate this woman?

A) Exercise elevates the mother's temperature and improves fetal circulation.

B) Exercise increases catecholamines,which can prevent preterm labor.

C) A regular schedule of moderate exercise during pregnancy is beneficial.

D) Pregnant women should limit water intake during exercise.

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Page 6

Chapter 5: Nursing Care of Women With Complications

During Pregnancy

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Sample Questions

Q1) A woman who is 8 weeks pregnant becomes concerned when she has light vaginal bleeding accompanied by abdominal pain.An ectopic pregnancy is confirmed by ultrasound.Which statement indicates that the woman understands the explanation of an ectopic pregnancy?

A) "The chorionic villi develop vesicles within the uterus."

B) "The placenta develops in the lower part of the uterus."

C) "The fetus dies in the uterus during the first half of the pregnancy."

D) "The embryo is implanted in the fallopian tube."

Q2) What symptom presented by a pregnant women is indicative of abruptio placentae?

A) Painless vaginal bleeding

B) Uterine irritability with contractions

C) Vaginal bleeding and back pain

D) Premature rupture of membranes

Q3) The nurse teaches a woman who is 8 weeks pregnant about how rubella can affect the developing fetus.What can result from maternal rubella during pregnancy?

A) Facial abnormalities

B) Mental retardation

C) Liver failure

D) Limb deformities

Page 7

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Chapter 6: Nursing Care of Mother and Infant During Labor and

Birth

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Sample Questions

Q1) What does meconium-stained amniotic fluid indicate when the infant is in a vertex presentation?

A) Fetal distress

B) Fetal maturity

C) Intact gastrointestinal tract

D) Dehydration in the mother

Q2) What contraction duration and interval does the nurse recognize could result in fetal compromise?

A) Duration shorter than 30 seconds,interval longer than 75 seconds

B) Duration shorter than 90 seconds,interval longer than 120 seconds

C) Duration longer than 90 seconds,interval shorter than 60 seconds

D) Duration longer than 60 seconds,interval shorter than 90 seconds

Q3) What are the advantages of a freestanding birth center? (Select all that apply. )

A) Homelike setting

B) Designed for high-risk pregnancies

C) Lower costs

D) Attended by certified obstetricians

E) Immediate emergency access

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Chapter 7: Nursing Management of Pain During Labor and Birth

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Sample Questions

Q1) What breathing techniques would the nurse teach the prenatal patient to help her focus during labor in order to reduce pain? (Select all that apply. )

A) First-stage breathing

B) Abdominal breathing

C) Fourth-stage breathing

D) Modified paced breathing

E) Patterned paced breathing

Q2) A nurse is teaching a childbirth preparation class.The group is discussing individual expression of labor pain.What statement is accurate about a patient's expression of pain?

A) It reduces the patient's perception of pain.

B) It is intensified by the vertex position of the fetus.

C) It is influenced by culture.

D) It can be completely controlled by nonpharmacological techniques.

Q3) What is the Dick-Read method of childbirth preparation based on?

A) Mild sedation throughout labor

B) Relaxation techniques

C) Skin stimulation

D) Deep massage

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Chapter 8: Nursing Care of Women With Complications

During Labor and Birth

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Sample Questions

Q1) What complications of overstimulation of uterine contractions may occur? (Select all that apply. )

A) Water intoxication

B) Impaired placental exchange of oxygen and nutrients

C) Increased blood pressure

D) Convulsions

E) Uterine rupture

Q2) What nursing care should be provided to a woman with a third-degree laceration immediately after delivery?

A) Warm compresses to the perineum

B) Cold pack to the perineum

C) Warm sitz bath

D) Elevation of hips to prevent edema

Q3) A woman who is 24 weeks pregnant is placed on an intravenous infusion of magnesium sulfate.What side effect should the nurse inform the patient that she might experience?

A) Nausea and vomiting

B) Headache

C) Warm flush

D) Urinary frequency

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Chapter 9: The Family After Birth

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Sample Questions

Q1) In what situation will the physician order RhoGAM?

A) An unsensitized Rh-negative mother has an Rh-positive infant.

B) An Rh-negative mother becomes sensitized.

C) A sensitized infant has a rising bilirubin level.

D) An unsensitized infant exhibits no outward signs.

Q2) After delivery,the nurse's assessment reveals a soft,boggy uterus located above the level of the umbilicus.What is the most appropriate nursing intervention?

A) Notify the physician.

B) Massage the fundus.

C) Initiate measures that encourage voiding.

D) Position the patient flat.

Q3) What would the nurse expect to find when assessing the fundus of the uterus immediately after delivery?

A) Well-contracted with its upper border at or just below the umbilicus

B) Well-contracted with its upper border three or four fingerbreadths above the umbilicus

C) Relaxed with its upper border level with the umbilicus

D) Relaxed with its upper border two or three fingerbreadths below the umbilicus

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Chapter 10: Nursing Care of Women With Complications

Following Birth

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Sample Questions

Q1) Three weeks after delivering her first child,a woman tells the nurse,"I waited so long for this baby and now that she is here,I can't believe how different my life is from what I expected." What is the best nursing response to the woman's statement?

A) "How is your partner adjusting to the change?"

B) "I hear this from a lot of first-time mothers."

C) "Have you told anyone else about your feelings?"

D) "Tell me how things are different."

Q2) After a prolonged labor,a woman vaginally delivered a 10-pound,3-ounce infant boy.What complication should the nurse be alert for in the immediate postpartum period?

A) Cervical laceration

B) Hematoma

C) Endometritis

D) Retained placental fragments

Q3) The nurse weighs a saturated perineal pad and finds it to weigh 15 grams.The nurse is aware that this indicates a blood loss of _____ mL.

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Page 12

Chapter 11: The Nurses Role in Womens Health Care

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Sample Questions

Q1) A woman diagnosed with endometriosis reports "painful intercourse." What is the appropriate medical term for the nurse to document when describing this symptom?

A) Dyspnea

B) Dysmenorrhea

C) Dyspareunia

D) Dysrhythmia

Q2) A 21-year-old college student has come to see the nurse practitioner for treatment of a vaginal infection.Physical assessment reveals inflammation of the vagina and vulva,and vaginal discharge has a cottage cheese appearance.With what are these findings consistent?

A) Candidiasis

B) Trichomoniasis

C) Bacterial vaginosis

D) Chlamydia

Q3) What should a woman expect after insertion of an intrauterine device (IUD)?

A) Menstrual flow will be lighter.

B) Menstrual cramps will be eliminated.

C) A string should be felt in the vagina.

D) The device should be changed every 2 years.

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Page 13

Chapter 12: The Term Newborn

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Sample Questions

Q1) The mother of a 4-day-old calls the pediatrician's office because she is concerned about her infant's skin.Which finding needs to be reported promptly to the child's pediatrician?

A) The hands and feet feel cooler than the rest of the body.

B) Skin is peeling on several parts of the infant's body.

C) There is a small pink patch on the left eyelid and one on the neck.

D) Today,the infant's skin has a yellowish tinge.

Q2) Which assessment of the newborn should be reported?

A) Head circumference is 5 cm greater than the chest circumference.

B) Hands and feet are warm with a blue color.

C) Temperature is 36.6° C (97.8° F).

D) Head has a longer than normal shape to it.

Q3) What action does the nurse implement to protect newborns from infection while in the nursery?

A) Keep the newborn dressed warmly.

B) Adjust room temperature between 23.8° C (75° F)and 26.6° C (80° F).

C) Wash hands before touching each infant.

D) Wear a disposable gown when giving infant care.

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14

Chapter 13: Preterm and Postterm Newborns

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Sample Questions

Q1) How will the nurse safely ensure tube placement when preparing to initiate a gavage feeding?

A) Check tube placement by injecting air into the stomach.

B) Weigh the infant before the feeding.

C) Aspirate stomach contents.

D) Check serum glucose level.

Q2) When assessing a neonate born at 38 weeks of gestation,the nurse records his weight as 8 pounds,10 ounces.What will the nurse consider this newborn?

A) Term

B) Small for gestational age

C) Large for gestational age

D) Late preterm

Q3) Why does a 4-day-old infant born at 33 weeks of gestation possibly need to be fed by gavage during the first few days of life?

A) Weak or absent sucking or swallowing reflex

B) Inability to digest food properly

C) Refusal to take formula by mouth

D) Need for a larger quantity of formula at each feeding

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Chapter 14: The Newborn With a Perinatal Injury or Congenital

Malformation

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Sample Questions

Q1) After delivery,a mother asks the nurse about newborn screening tests.The nurse explains that what is the optimal time for testing for phenylketonuria?

A) In the first 24 hours of life

B) After 2 to 3 days

C) At 4 to 6 weeks of age

D) At 2 months of age

Q2) A newborn was just admitted to the neonatal intensive care unit with a meningomyelocele.What is the priority preoperative nursing care of this newborn?

A) Keep the sac dry.

B) Diaper snugly.

C) Position prone in an incubator.

D) Move from side to side every hour.

Q3) What assessment made by the nurse would lead the nurse to suspect hip dysplasia?

A) Asymmetrical gluteal folds

B) Limited adduction of the affected side

C) Foot turned inward

D) Deep inguinal creases

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Chapter 15: An Overview of Growth, Development, and Nutrition

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Sample Questions

Q1) How do children differ from adults? (Select all that apply. )

A) Higher metabolic rate

B) Greater surface area in relation to their weight

C) Less mature organ systems

D) More fluid reserves

E) Continuously changing growth and development pattern

Q2) What should the nurse avoid when demonstrating a bath procedure to parents of Vietnamese origin?

A) Talking directly to the mother

B) Exposing the child's genitals

C) Touching the child's head

D) Using cool water

Q3) The nurse has discussed with a mother the process of introducing solid foods to her 6-month-old infant.What statement by the mother leads the nurse to determine that learning has taken place?

A) "I will give my infant rice cereal first."

B) "I will give my infant yellow vegetables first."

C) "I will give my infant egg yolks first."

D) "I will give my infant fruits first."

Page 17

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Chapter 16: The Infant

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the earliest age at which the infant should be able to walk independently?

A) 8 to 10 months

B) 12 to 15 months

C) 15 to 18 months

D) 18 to 21 months

Q2) The nurse is assessing development in a 9-month-old infant.What would the nurse expect to observe?

A) Speaking in 2-word sentences

B) Grasping objects with palmar grasp

C) Creeping along the floor

D) Beginning to use a spoon rather sloppily

Q3) Parents of an infant inform the nurse they are planning home preparation of solid foods.What directions should the nurse provide? (Select all that apply. )

A) Boil foods in a large amount of water.

B) Do not freeze foods.

C) Add 1 teaspoon of salt per cup.

D) Puree food in electric blender.

E) Add sugar sparingly.

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18

Chapter 17: The Toddler

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Sample Questions

Q1) The parent of a toddler tells the nurse,"My daughter's appetite has decreased.Thank goodness she loves to drink milk." What is the most appropriate response by the nurse?

A) "Has your daughter been sick recently?"

B) "How much milk does she drink in a day?"

C) "Has she become a fussy eater,too?"

D) "Have you tried offering her finger foods?"

Q2) The nurse assessing a 2-year-old is satisfied to see that the present weight of the child is _____________ times their birth weight.

Q3) Why does day care for the toddler differ from that of the preschooler?

A) Toddlers have a shorter attention span.

B) Toddlers need more group play.

C) Toddlers are less prone to environmental dangers.

D) Toddlers require less outdoor space.

Q4) How would the nurse advise a parent who states,"I never know how much food to feed my child"?

A) Serving sizes should not exceed 1 teaspoon of each type of food.

B) Food quantities must be carefully measured to avoid overfeeding.

C) Use 1 tablespoon of each food for each year of age as a guideline.

D) A toddler should eat three balanced meals.Snacks are not necessary.

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Chapter 18: The Preschool Child

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the nurse's best advice to a parent about a preschooler's "imaginary friend"?

A) Having imaginary friends is a sign that the child has low self-esteem.

B) It is common for preschoolers to have imaginary friends.

C) Preschoolers invent an imaginary friend when they feel overwhelmed.

D) The best approach to dealing with an imaginary friend is to ignore them.

Q2) When planning an activity for a 3-year-old child,the nurse bases the plan on the average attention span of _____ minutes.

Q3) A preschool child is asked,"Why do trees have leaves?" Which response would be an example of animism?

A) "So I can have shade over my sandbox."

B) "Because God made them that way."

C) "To hide behind when they are scared."

D) "For the squirrels to play in."

Q4) What will children who are unable to express themselves with words often do?

A) Become reclusive and introspective.

B) Develop other methods of verbal communication.

C) Engage in more creative play.

D) Have tantrums and act out.

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Page 20

Chapter 19: The School-Age Child

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Sample Questions

Q1) A school-age child becomes frustrated with a school assignment and says,"I can't do this!" What is the most developmentally supportive response from the parent?

A) Ask,"What is it that is so difficult?"

B) Allow the child to quit the effort.

C) Call in older siblings to help.

D) Finish the project for them.

Q2) A 10-year-old child with disabilities is begging her parents for a dog.When at the pediatric clinic,the parents inquire about possible benefits pet ownership may provide to their child.What benefits of pet ownership should the nurse indicate? (Select all that apply. )

A) Decrease the need for physical therapy

B) Lower blood pressure

C) Improve communication

D) Foster trust

E) Ease path to socialization

Q3) The nurse is aware that by the age of _____,the first permanent teeth erupt.

Q4) The nurse advises the parents of a 6-year-old child to try and ensure at least ______ hours of sleep daily for the child.

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Page 21

Chapter 20: The Adolescent

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Sample Questions

Q1) What does adolescent acne result from?

A) Ineffective sweat glands

B) Oily skin

C) Inadequate hygiene

D) A poor diet

Q2) What are the best breakfast choices for the nurse to point out prior to a big exam,to provide high levels of alertness and increased memory? (Select all that apply. )

A) Pancakes and syrup

B) Coffee and chocolate-covered donuts

C) Bacon and fried eggs

D) Whole grain cereal and yogurt

E) Oatmeal and sliced apples

Q3) What does an adolescent's peer group serve as related to development?

A) Social outlet

B) Association to blur personal identity

C) Platform for "group think"

D) Initial separation from family

Q4) The nurse stresses the need for using a sunscreen with a sun protection factor (SPF)of at least _____.

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Chapter 21: The Childs Experience of Hospitalization

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Sample Questions

Q1) The parents of a hospitalized toddler are upset because she seems more interested in her toys when they come to visit her.In which stage of separation anxiety is the toddler?

A) Protest

B) Despair

C) Denial

D) Attachment

Q2) The mother of a hospitalized toddler states,"He cries when I visit.Maybe I should just stay away." What is the nurse's best response?

A) "Perhaps you are right.He only gets upset when you have to leave."

B) "It is important that you are here.This is a common reaction in children when they are separated from their parents."

C) "It might be easier for your child if you would stay with him,but this decision is up to you."

D) "We take good care of him and he seems fine when you are not here."

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23

Chapter 22: Health Care Adaptations for the Child and Family

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Sample Questions

Q1) Gentamicin ear drops are prescribed for a 4-year-old child.How would the nurse position the auricle when administering the ear drops?

A) Up and back

B) Down and back

C) Up and out

D) Down and out

Q2) Which intervention will the nurse implement when suctioning a tracheostomy?

A) Suction for two to three breaths.

B) Clear the catheter with water after suctioning for reuse.

C) Apply suction for no more than 15 seconds.

D) Establish a regular schedule for suctioning.

Q3) The order reads,"Give ampicillin oral suspension 400 mg PO every day." The vial reads,"Ampicillin 125 mg/5 mL." The nurse will give a dose of ______ mL.

Q4) Which strategy might the nurse use when administering oral medications to a young child who is reluctant?

A) Mix the medication with chocolate milk.

B) Tell the child that the medication is candy.

C) Give the medication quickly if the child is crying.

D) Offer the child fruit juice after the medication is swallowed.

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Chapter 23: The Child With a Sensory or Neurological Condition

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Sample Questions

Q1) What assessment does the school nurse recognize as the cardinal sign of a hyphema?

A) Opacity of the lens

B) A yellow-white reflex on the pupil

C) A dark-red spot in front of the iris

D) Inflamed mucous membranes of the eyelids

Q2) Which situation would cause the nurse to suspect a hearing impairment?

A) 3-month-old infant with a positive Moro (startle reaction)reflex

B) 15-month-old toddler who is babbling

C) 18-month-old toddler who is speaking one-syllable words

D) 24-month-old toddler who communicates by pointing

Q3) The nurse urges the mother of a 6-month-old child to get her child inoculated with Haemophilus influenzae type B.What does this immunization protect against?

A) Encephalitis

B) Influenza

C) Bacterial meningitis

D) Otitis media

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Page 25

Chapter 24: The Child With a Musculoskeletal Condition

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which intervention would be helpful in relieving morning discomfort associated with juvenile rheumatoid arthritis?

A) Wearing splints at night to prevent extension contractures

B) Applying moist heat packs upon awakening

C) Taking a warm tub bath the evening before

D) Sleeping with two pillows under the head

Q2) A child hospitalized for treatment of osteomyelitis complains that he is tired of being sick and wants to know when the antibiotic protocol will end.How long will the nurse indicate that antibiotic therapy will probably last?

A) 2 weeks

B) 6 weeks

C) 2 months

D) 3 months

Q3) Why does a child's fracture heal more rapidly than the adult's?

A) A child's bones are less porous than adult bone.

B) A child's bones are covered by a thicker periosteum.

C) A child's bones are not affected by bone overgrowth.

D) A child's bones have faster callus formation.

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26

Chapter 25: The Child With a Respiratory Disorder

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Sample Questions

Q1) What should the nurse explain to the parent of a child with exercise-induced asthma about when to inhale Cromolyn?

A) Before exercise to prevent attacks

B) At the initial onset of the attack

C) During the attack to relieve symptoms

D) As often as 4 times a day

Q2) The nurse would observe a child for frequent swallowing after a tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy (T&A).What might this indicate?

A) Bleeding from the surgical site

B) Pain at the incision area

C) Sore throat from postnasal drip

D) Potential vomiting

Q3) The nurse is caring for a toddler with acute laryngotracheobronchitis.Which assessment finding would indicate the child is experiencing increased respiratory obstruction?

A) Restlessness

B) Tachycardia

C) Brassy cough

D) Expiratory wheezing

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Chapter 26: The Child With a Cardiovascular Disorder

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Sample Questions

Q1) What does the nurse explain that a ventricular septal defect will allow?

A) Blood to shunt left to right,causing increased pulmonary flow and no cyanosis

B) Blood to shunt right to left,causing decreased pulmonary flow and cyanosis

C) No shunting because of high pressure in the left ventricle

D) Increased pressure in the left atrium,impeding circulation of oxygenated blood in the circulating volume

Q2) A child develops carditis from rheumatic fever.Which areas of the heart are affected by carditis?

A) Coronary arteries

B) Heart muscle and the mitral valve

C) Aortic and pulmonic valves

D) Contractility of the ventricles

Q3) What are the four structural heart anomalies that make up the tetralogy of Fallot?

(Select all that apply. )

A) Hypertrophied right ventricle

B) Patent ductus arteriosus

C) Ventral septal defect

D) Narrowing of pulmonary artery

E) Dextroposition of aorta

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Page 28

Chapter 27: The Child With a Condition of the Blood, Blood-Forming

Organs, or Lymphatic System

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Q1) How has synthetic recombinant antihemophilic factor improved the management of hemophilia? (Select all that apply. )

A) Eliminates the need for frequent transfusions.

B) Can be administered by family at home.

C) Prevents hemorrhage.

D) Reduces cost of care of the hemophiliac.

E) Reduces risk of HIV and hepatitis A and B transmission.

Q2) Why would the nurse urge the family of a dying 12-year-old boy to include his 8-year-old sister in care? (Select all that apply. )

A) She will feel less neglected by the parents.

B) She can make amends for past hostilities to her brother.

C) She will feel increased helplessness.

D) She can express her feelings through care.

E) She can experience being supportive of her parents and brother.

Q3) What is the result of a deficiency of factor IX?

A) Thalassemia

B) Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura

C) Hemophilia A

D) Christmas disease

Page 29

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Chapter 28: The Child With a Gastrointestinal Condition

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Q1) Which nursing interventions will be implemented for the mother of a 10-month-old infant with nonorganic failure to thrive?

A) Pointing out errors that the nurse observes when the mother is caring for the infant

B) Discussing negative characteristics of the infant with the mother

C) Having the nurse provide as much of the infant's care as possible

D) Teaching the mother about the developmental milestones to expect in the next few months

Q2) Parents ask the nurse how their infant developed a Meckel's diverticulum.What condition,will the nurse explain,is present causing this diagnosis?

A) The yolk sac remains connected to the intestine.

B) There is inflammation of the ileocecal valve.

C) A pouch forms when the vitelline duct fails to disappear.

D) There is a weakness in the abdominal wall.

Q3) Why are infants more vulnerable to fluid and electrolyte imbalances than adults?

A) They have a smaller surface area than adults in proportion to body weight.

B) Water needs and losses per kilogram are lower than those for adults.

C) A greater percentage of body water in infants is extracellular.

D) Infants have a lower metabolic turnover of water.

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Chapter 29: The Child With a Genitourinary Condition

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Q1) A 7-year-old child has a BUN of 25 mg/dL.What is the nurse aware this lab value might indicate? (Select all that apply. )

A) Dehydration

B) Renal disease

C) Need for steroid therapy

D) Diabetes

E) Pituitary malfunction

Q2) What is an appropriate intervention for the edematous child with reduced mobility related to nephrotic syndrome?

A) Reach the child to minimize body movements.

B) Change the child's position frequently.

C) Keep the head of the child's bed flat.

D) Keep edematous areas moist and covered.

Q3) When asked about correcting the hypospadias of a newborn,what does the nurse explain about this condition?

A) No intervention is necessary as the defect will correct itself over time.

B) Surgical repair of the hypospadias is done before 18 months of age.

C) Corrective surgery is usually delayed until the preschool age.

D) Repairing the defect will increase the risk of testicular cancer.

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Page 31

Chapter 30: The Child With a Skin Condition

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Q1) Which allergy would contraindicate the use of silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene)as a topical agent for burns?

A) Penicillin

B) Iodine

C) Tetanus immunizations

D) Sulfa

Q2) A child is brought to the emergency department with burns on the face and chest.What is the nurse's first priority?

A) Assess respiratory status.

B) Administer pain medication.

C) Remove clothing.

D) Insert a Foley catheter.

Q3) What risk is increased with children who have been diagnosed with infantile eczema?

A) Pneumonia

B) Acne

C) Sun sensitivity

D) Asthma

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32

Chapter 31: The Child With a Metabolic Condition

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Q1) Which general dietary measure should the nurse include in a teaching plan for the child with type 1 diabetes mellitus?

A) Control intake of carbohydrates and consume fewer calories.

B) Focus on complex carbohydrates and eat foods high in fiber.

C) Obtain most calories from proteins and fats.

D) Eat a diet low in fat and low in complex carbohydrates.

Q2) What is an important consideration for the school-age child taking DDAVP for diabetes insipidus?

A) Observe for signs of water deprivation.

B) Restrict his physical education program.

C) Arrange for the child to use the bathroom when needed.

D) Limit fluid intake other than during the lunch period.

Q3) What occurs as a result of an inadequate secretion of insulin?

A) Protein synthesis is increased.

B) Increased fat breakdown leads to ketonemia.

C) Serum glucose levels are markedly decreased.

D) More rapid conversion and storage of carbohydrates to glucose occurs.

Q4) The nurse assessing a glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA?c)test is aware that this test can evaluate average glucose levels over a period of _____ to _____ months.

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Chapter 32: Childhood Communicable Diseases,

Bioterrorism, Natural Disasters, and the Maternalchild

Patient

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Q1) Which classification of medication would make a child most susceptible to an opportunistic infection?

A) Anticonvulsant

B) Beta-adrenergic agent

C) Antibiotic

D) Corticosteroid

Q2) What statement leads the nurse to determine that a child's parent understands information related to tick bites?

A) "I'll have my son wear dark clothing on his hike."

B) "We should all get the Lyme disease vaccine before our trip."

C) "I'll get a prescription for amoxicillin to take with us."

D) "We will wear long pants and long-sleeved shirts in the woods."

Q3) How would the nurse document a rash that has erythematous,circular raised lesions?

A) Macular

B) Papular

C) Vesicular

D) Pustular

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Chapter 33: The Child With an Emotional or Behavioral Condition

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Q1) Which substance puts a person at the greatest risk for HIV and hepatitis B?

A) Alcohol

B) Opiates

C) Cocaine

D) Marijuana

Q2) Which statement made by a parent of an adolescent with anorexia nervosa indicates an understanding of this condition?

A) "There really isn't anything to worry about.Don't they say you can never be too thin?"

B) "My daughter just doesn't have much of an appetite."

C) "She is just trying to punish me for divorcing her father."

D) "She seems to see herself as fat,even though her weight is below normal."

Q3) What role has the child of an alcoholic assumed if he tries to do everything perfectly?

A) Perfect child

B) Super coper

C) Flight

D) Helper

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Page 35

Chapter 34: Complementary and Alternative Therapies in Maternity and Pediatric Nursing

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Q1) Which child should not receive massage therapy?

A) 15-year-old with a fractured femur

B) 12-year-old with diabetes mellitus

C) 8-year-old with Down syndrome

D) 17-year-old with an eating disorder

Q2) What is the difference between complementary therapy and alternative therapy?

A) Complementary therapy must be administered by a medical doctor.

B) Complementary therapy is administered with conventional therapy.

C) Complementary therapy replaces conventional therapy.

D) Complementary therapy is administered to a group of patients at the same time.

Q3) A pregnant woman wishes to use aromatherapy during her labor and delivery.What is the most appropriate essential oil for the nurse to recommend?

A) Juniper

B) Wintergreen

C) Thyme

D) Citrus

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