Foundations of Nursing Practice Practice Exam
Course Introduction
Foundations of Nursing Practice introduces students to the core principles, concepts, and skills essential for professional nursing. This course explores the history and evolution of nursing, ethical and legal aspects, professional standards, and the roles of nurses within diverse healthcare settings. Emphasis is placed on the nursing process, critical thinking, therapeutic communication, patient safety, and basic clinical skills. Through a combination of classroom instruction, simulation, and hands-on experiences, students develop a strong groundwork for advanced nursing courses and clinical practice.
Recommended Textbook
Goulds Pathophysiology for the Health Professions 5th Edition by VanMeter
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28 Chapters
1204 Verified Questions
1204 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Pathophysiology
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pathophysiology involves the study of:
A) the structure of the human body.
B) the functions of various organs in the body.
C) functional or structural changes resulting from disease processes.
D) various cell structures and related functions.
Answer: C
Q2) A type of cellular adaptation in which there is a decrease in cell size is referred to as:
A) hypertrophy.
B) metaplasia.
C) anaplasia.
D) atrophy.
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following is considered a systemic sign of disease?
A) Swelling of the knee
B) Fever
C) Pain in the neck
D) Red rash on the face
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Imbalances
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50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Prolonged diarrhea results in:
A) loss of fluid and bicarbonate ions, leading to metabolic acidosis.
B) increased fluid and serum bicarbonate ions, leading to metabolic acidosis.
C) loss of chloride ions only, leading to metabolic alkalosis.
D) surplus bicarbonate ions, leading to respiratory alkalosis.
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following is a typical sign of dehydration?
A) Rapid, strong pulse
B) Low hematocrit
C) Increased urine output
D) Rough oral mucosa
Answer: D
Q3) Choose the correct proportion of blood (to body weight) in an adult male's body:
A) 30%
B) 20%
C) 10%
D) 4%
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: Introduction to Basic Pharmacology and Other Common Therapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the unique, simple, and official name assigned to a specific drug for worldwide use?
A) Trade name
B) Chemical name
C) Proprietary name
D) Generic name
Answer: D
Q2) Which is the route of administration by which the largest proportion of the drug dose is likely lost before reaching the site of action?
A) Oral
B) Intramuscular
C) Sublingual
D) Intravenous
Answer: A
Q3) After they are metabolized, most drugs are excreted through the:
A) lungs.
B) pancreas.
C) kidneys.
D) large intestine.
Answer: C
To
Page 5
Chapter 4: Pain
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20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a characteristic of acute pain but not of chronic pain?
A) Depression and debilitation
B) A perception of increased generalized pain and discomfort
C) Fatigue and lower pain tolerance
D) Severe but short term
Q2) Which of the following is a characteristic of chronic pain?
A) It usually initiates a physiological stress response.
B) It always involves a strong emotional response such as high anxiety.
C) It is more difficult to diagnose and treat than is acute pain.
D) It involves tissue damage to a specific organ.
Q3) A headache that results from pressure on the meninges surrounding the brain is referred to as a/an:
A) intracranial headache.
B) intrameningeal headache.
C) migraine headache.
D) cerebral headache.
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Chapter 5: Inflammation and Healing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement applies to the recommended emergency care for burns?
A) Drop and lie completely still on your back.
B) Call a neighbor for help if the burn appears to be extensive.
C) Apply lotion and cover burn tightly with a sheet or towel.
D) Cover the burn area with clean, cool, or tepid water and remove nonsticking clothing.
Q2) The term leukocytosis means :
A) increased white blood cells (WBCs) in the blood.
B) decreased WBCs in the blood.
C) increased number of immature circulating leukocytes.
D) significant change in the proportions of WBCs.
Q3) Causes of inflammation include:
A) direct physical damage such as cuts and sprains.
B) allergic reactions.
C) infection.
D) All the above
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Chapter 6: Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary pathological effect of influenza virus is:
A) destruction of the mucosa in the lower respiratory tract.
B) replication of the virus in respiratory secretions.
C) destruction of leukocytes and macrophages in the lungs.
D) inflammation and necrosis of the upper respiratory epithelium.
Q2) A bacterial endospore can:
A) also be classified as an acid-fast bacterium.
B) exist in latent form inside a host cell.
C) reproduce very rapidly.
D) survive high temperatures and a dry environment.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT classified as a protozoan agent of disease?
A) Plasmodium vivax
B) Trichomonas vaginalis
C) Tinea pedis
D) Entamoeba histolytica
Q4) Which of the following is normally considered sterile?
A) Urine
B) Pharynx
C) Distal urethra
D) Vagina
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Immunity
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35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An autoimmune disease is:
A) excessive formation of antibodies following exposure to foreign material.
B) an extreme response to normally harmless material in the environment.
C) an abnormal response to ingested food and drugs.
D) failure of the immune system to distinguish self from nonself.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a cause of immunodeficiency?
A) Hypoplasia of the thymus
B) Delayed hypersensitivity
C) Immunosuppressive drugs
D) Atrophy of the lymph nodes
Q3) Which of the following is an effect of cytokines? They:
A) activate and stimulate proliferation of B and T lymphocytes.
B) destroy antigens quickly.
C) increase the rate of mitosis in tumors.
D) cause immediate pain.
Q4) Which of the following causes anaphylaxis?
A) A severe, systemic allergic reaction
B) Type III hypersensitivity
C) Cell-mediated hypersensitivity
D) Immune complex deposits in many tissues
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Skin Disorders
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30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which disease is considered an autoimmune disorder?
A) Pemphigus
B) Erysipelas
C) Contact dermatitis
D) Scleroderma
Q2) How are antiviral drugs effective in treating a viral infection?
A) They destroy the virus if administered for at least 2 weeks.
B) They limit the acute stage and viral shedding.
C) They prevent any systemic effects of viruses.
D) They prevent any secondary bacterial infection.
Q3) Which of the following best describes the typical lesion of psoriasis?
A) Purplish papules that can erode and become open ulcers
B) Firm, raised pruritic nodules that can become cancerous
C) Moist, red vesicles, which develop into bleeding ulcers
D) Begins as a red papule and develops into silvery plaques
Q4) What causes the pruritus associated with scabies?
A) An allergic reaction to the causative microbe due to endotoxins
B) Mites burrowing into the epidermis and reaction to their feces
C) Bleeding and injected toxin from bites of the larvae
D) Neurotoxins secreted by mites on the skin surface
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Chapter 9: Musculoskeletal Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) What limits joint movement in osteoarthritis?
A) The osteophytes and irregular cartilage surface
B) The wider joint space
C) Decreased amount of synovial fluid in the cavity
D) Fibrosis involving the joint capsule and ligaments
Q2) Which of the following is true about Duchenne's muscular dystrophy?
A) There is difficulty climbing stairs or standing up at 2 to 3 years of age.
B) It involves only the legs and pelvis.
C) Skeletal muscle atrophy can be seen in the legs of a toddler.
D) It cannot be detected in any carriers.
Q3) Systemic effects of rheumatoid arthritis are manifested as:
A) nodules in various tissues, severe fatigue, and anorexia.
B) headache, leukopenia, and high fever.
C) swelling and dysfunction in many organs.
D) progressive damage to a joint.
Q4) What is the likely immediate result of fat emboli from a broken femur?
A) Additional ischemia in the broken bone
B) Nonunion or malunion of the fracture
C) Pulmonary inflammation and obstruction
D) Abscess and infection at a distant site
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Chapter 10: Blood and Circulatory System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the common early signs of aplastic anemia?
A) Painful joints and skeletal deformity
B) Abdominal discomfort and splenomegaly
C) Excessive bleeding and recurrent infections
D) Palpitations and chest pain
Q2) Which of the following applies to the condition disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?
A) It is usually a secondary complication.
B) It is always initiated by excessive bleeding.
C) It results in an inability of platelets to adhere.
D) It is not life threatening.
Q3) What causes numbness and tingling in the fingers of individuals with untreated pernicious anemia?
A) Persistent hyperbilirubinemia
B) Increasing acidosis affecting metabolism
C) Vitamin B<sub>12 </sub>deficit causing peripheral nerve demyelination
D) Multiple small vascular occlusions affecting peripheral nerves
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12
Chapter 11: Lymphatic System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Multiple myeloma is a neoplastic disease of unknown etiology occurring in older adults and involving:
A) plasma cells.
B) T cells.
C) NK cells.
D) monocytes.
Q2) Elephantiasis, caused by the obstruction of lymphatic vessels by parasitic worms, is an example of the condition known as:
A) plasma cell myeloma.
B) diverticulitis.
C) lymphedema.
D) obstructive vessel disorder.
Q3) The spleen has a number of important functions, which include:
A) lymph production, hematopoiesis, platelet production.
B) hematopoiesis, destruction of old erythrocytes, blood reservoir.
C) defense from infection, metabolism of vitamins, platelet production.
D) lipid metabolism, production of hemoglobin, water absorption.
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13
Chapter 12: Cardiovascular System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT true of the drug nitroglycerin?
A) It decreases myocardial workload by causing systemic vasodilation.
B) It may be administered sublingually, transdermally, or by oral spray.
C) Dizziness or syncope may follow a sublingual dose.
D) It strengthens the myocardial contraction.
Q2) Uncontrolled hypertension is most likely to cause ischemia and loss of function in the:
A) kidneys, brain, and retinas of the eye.
B) peripheral arteries in the legs.
C) aorta and coronary arteries.
D) liver, spleen, and stomach.
Q3) The most common cause of death immediately following a myocardial infarction is:
A) cardiac arrhythmias and fibrillation.
B) ruptured ventricle or aorta.
C) congestive heart failure.
D) cerebrovascular accident.
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14
Chapter 13: Respiratory System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Choose the correct information applying to laryngotracheobronchitis:
A) Viral infection in infant under 12 months
B) Viral infection in child, 3 months to 3 years
C) Bacterial infection in infant under 6 months
D) Bacterial infection in child, 3 to 7 years
Q2) What is a common indicator of cystic fibrosis in the newborn?
A) Infant respiratory distress syndrome
B) Failure to excrete meconium
C) Taste of ammonia on the skin
D) Lack of bile secretions
Q3) Carbon dioxide is primarily transported in the blood:
A) as dissolved gas.
B) attached to the iron molecule in hemoglobin.
C) as bicarbonate ion.
D) as carbonic acid.
Q4) Destruction of alveolar walls and septae is a typical change in:
A) chronic bronchitis.
B) acute asthma.
C) emphysema.
D) asbestosis.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Neurological Disorders
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105 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The stroke scale used to rapidly diagnose a stroke includes:
A) capacity for speech, level of consciousness, motor skills, eye movements.
B) motor skills, spatial awareness, time awareness, facial recognition.
C) short-term memory, cognitive skills, speech, name recognition.
D) hand-eye coordination, problem solving, ability to stand or walk, consciousness.
Q2) Brain injury where the brain is injured when it bounces off of the skull due to sudden acceleration or deceleration is referred to as a/an:
A) linear fracture
B) contusion
C) basilar injury
D) contrecoup injury
Q3) What characteristic is common to all individuals with cerebral palsy?
A) Some loss of cognitive function
B) One or more types of seizure
C) Serious multiple communication difficulties
D) Some degree of motor disability
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16
Chapter 15: Disorders of the Eye, Ear, and Other Sensory Organs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is often the first sign of ototoxicity from drugs or chemicals?
A) Sudden total loss of hearing
B) Tinnitus
C) Severe pain in ear
D) Fluid exudate draining from ear
Q2) Which of the statements apply to infection of the eye by Staphylococcus aureus?
1) It involves the conjunctiva.
2) It is highly contagious.
3) It is commonly known as "pinkeye."
4) It usually causes keratitis and permanent visual loss.
A) 1, 3
B) 2, 3
C) 2, 4
D) 1, 2, 3
Q3) Which disorder is manifested by loss of peripheral vision?
A) Retinal detachment
B) Chronic (wide-angle) glaucoma
C) Cataract
D) Macular degeneration
17
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Chapter 16: Endocrine System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Diabetic retinopathy results from:
A) degeneration of large blood vessels supplying the eye.
B) abnormal metabolism in the lens of the eye.
C) neuropathy affecting the optic nerve.
D) obstruction or rupture of retinal blood vessels.
Q2) Which of the following indicates hypoglycemia in a diabetic?
A) Deep, rapid respirations
B) Flushed dry skin and mucosa
C) Thirst and oliguria
D) Staggering gait, disorientation, and confusion
Q3) Which of the following may occur with a pituitary adenoma?
A) Low blood pressure and bradycardia
B) Headache and seizures
C) Vomiting and diarrhea
D) Loss of vision in one eye
Q4) Which of the following results from a deficit of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)?
A) Inappropriate ADH syndrome
B) Gigantism
C) Diabetes insipidus
D) Myxedema
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Digestive System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The visceral peritoneum:
A) lines the abdominal wall.
B) hangs from the stomach over the loops of small intestine.
C) contains many pain receptors.
D) forms the outer covering of the stomach.
Q2) In peptic ulcer disease, which of the following does NOT decrease the resistance of the mucosal barrier?
A) Prolonged vasoconstriction
B) Excessive glucocorticoid intake
C) Proteases and cytotoxins from H. pylori
D) Decreased vagal stimulation
Q3) Pancreatic cancer may be diagnosed early if obstruction of bile or pancreatic secretions develops when the tumor is located:
A) at the head of the pancreas.
B) in the body of the pancreas.
C) in the tail of the pancreas.
D) in the endocrine glands of the pancreas.
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19
Chapter 18: Urinary System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a respiratory infection with high fever is present in the body, how would the kidney tubules maintain normal pH of body fluids?
A) Increase the flow of filtrate.
B) Secrete more acids and reabsorb more bicarbonate ions.
C) Excrete a larger volume of more dilute urine.
D) Retain more potassium ions in exchange for sodium ions.
Q2) The normal pH of urine is:
A) 7.35-7.45.
B) 4.5- 8.0.
C) 1.5-7.5.
D) 1.0-7.0.
Q3) What is the primary reason for hypocalcemia developing during end-stage renal failure or uremia?
A) Decreased parathyroid hormone secretion
B) Insufficient calcium in the diet
C) Excessive excretion of calcium ions in the urine
D) A deficit of activated vitamin D and hyperphosphatemia
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Chapter 19: Reproductive System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Adjuvant chemotherapy and radiation may be used in cases of breast cancer in order to:
A) slow the growth of the primary tumor.
B) destroy any micrometastases.
C) prevent the removal of any lymph nodes.
D) reduce the need for a mastectomy.
Q2) Which of the following infections may be transmitted from the mother to the fetus during delivery?
A) Gonorrhea
B) Chlamydia
C) Herpes simplex
D) All of the above
Q3) Which statement about spermatogenesis is TRUE?
A) The complete process takes about 28 days.
B) Maturation of sperm takes place in the seminal vesicles.
C) It is controlled by follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and testosterone.
D) The process is initiated after each ejaculation.
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21
Chapter 20: Neoplasms and Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why does ovarian cancer have a poor prognosis?
A) The ovaries are inaccessible for examination.
B) Specific signs rarely appear until after secondary tumors have developed.
C) The same tumor markers are present with many types of cancer.
D) No effective treatment is available.
Q2) Which of the following does paraneoplastic syndrome refer to?
A) The effects of substances such as hormones secreted by the tumor cells
B) Severe weight loss and cachexia associated with advanced cancer
C) The decreased resistance to infection resulting from malignant tumors
D) The effects of multiple metastatic tumors
Q3) The development of neutropenia during chemotherapy for cancer means :
A) the cancer cells are being destroyed quickly.
B) the patient is likely to hemorrhage.
C) higher doses of chemotherapy could be tolerated by this patient.
D) the patient is at high risk for infection.
Q4) Identify the common dose-limiting factor for chemotherapy:
A) Alopecia
B) Bone marrow depression
C) Nausea and vomiting
D) Weight loss
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Congenital and Genetic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following can easily pass through the placental barrier?
A) Many viruses
B) Some heavy metals
C) Certain chemicals
D) All of the above
Q2) The cellular division process that produces the chromosomes that are in the sperm and ova is called:
A) meiosis.
B) mitosis.
C) organogenesis.
D) polysomy.
Q3) When genetic influences combine with environmental factors to cause an abnormality, the result is called a:
A) chromosomal disorder.
B) developmental disorder.
C) multifactorial disorder.
D) single-gene disorder.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Complications due to Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Adolescent pregnancy is often considered high risk because of:
A) inadequate prenatal care.
B) poor nutrition and lack of vitamin supplements.
C) iron deficiency anemia.
D) All of the above
Q2) What is the usual time period between the first day of the last menstrual period and the time of birth?
A) 38 weeks
B) Termed the gestation period
C) Referred to as gravidity
D) The embryonic period
Q3) During which time period do teratogens cause major developmental damage to organs?
A) First week following fertilization
B) First 2 months
C) Any time up to 6 months
D) During labor and delivery
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Chapter 23: Complications due to Adolescence
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Sample Questions
Q1) Obesity in adolescents is:
A) determined by calculating body mass index (BMI).
B) a significant factor in a teen's self-image.
C) related to increased intake of high fat and high carbohydrate snacks, "fast foods."
D) All of the above
Q2) What is a lateral curvature of the spine called?
A) Lordosis
B) Kyphosis
C) Scoliosis
D) Kyphoscoliosis
Q3) Acne vulgaris can best be described as an infection involving the:
A) sweat glands of the upper body.
B) dermis and epidermis of the skin.
C) apocrine glands.
D) sebaceous glands and hair follicles.
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Chapter 24: Complications due to Aging
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Sample Questions
Q1) Theories about the causes of aging include:
A) apoptosis.
B) wear and tear.
C) altered protein (amyloid) accumulation.
D) All the above
Q2) Lung expansion in the elderly may be reduced because of decreased:
1) tissue elasticity.
2) rib mobility.
3) control by the respiratory center.
4) skeletal muscle strength.
A) 1, 3
B) 1, 4
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 4
Q3) With advancing age, the major change in the cardiovascular system involves:
A) irregular impulse conduction in the heart.
B) a reduced number of collagen fibers to support cardiac muscle.
C) vascular degeneration, leading to arteriosclerosis and atherosclerosis.
D) the heart valves becoming thin and weak.
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Immobility and Associated Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a major factor predisposing to pulmonary infection in immobilized patients?
A) Decreased activity and demand for oxygen
B) Increased retention of CO<sub>2</sub>
C) Inability to sneeze forcefully
D) Stasis of secretions in the lungs
Q2) Paralysis of the lower part of the body is called:
A) hemiplegia.
B) paraplegia.
C) quadriplegia.
D) None of the above
Q3) Lack of weight-bearing and skeletal muscle activity for a prolonged period leads to: A) bone demineralization.
B) lengthening of tendons and ligaments.
C) decreased skeletal muscle mass.
D) A and C
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Chapter 26: Stress and Associated Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) A serious consequence of a major disaster, first recognized in war veterans is:
A) stress ulcers.
B) delayed tissue healing.
C) posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD).
D) cancer.
Q2) Hans Selye defined his general adaptation syndrome concept, which is also known as:
A) fight or flight.
B) compensate or compromise.
C) restrain or release.
D) avoid and flee.
Q3) The stress response involves the integrated action of the:
1) hypothalamus.
2) hypophysis.
3) sympathetic nervous system.
4) adrenal glands.
A) 1, 3
B) 2, 3
C) 1, 2, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
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Chapter 27: Substance Abuse and Associated Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is characteristic of alcohol?
A) It is primarily a CNS stimulant.
B) It may cause congenital defects in infants born to alcoholic mothers.
C) It does not interact with other drugs in the CNS.
D) It usually causes severe kidney damage.
Q2) What is a common indication of substance abuse?
A) Behavioral change
B) Weight gain
C) Depression
D) Loss of sensory function
Q3) Which of the following is a synthetic opioid that prevents withdrawal symptoms and improves function?
A) Antabuse
B) Methadone
C) Cocaine
D) Diazepam
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Chapter 28: Environmental Hazards and Associated Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Radiation damage may occur from repeated exposure to:
A) ultraviolet rays.
B) X-rays.
C) radioactive substances.
D) A, B, and C
Q2) Which of the following types of cells are most likely to be damaged by exposure to radiation?
A) Bone and cartilage
B) Skeletal and smooth muscle
C) Peripheral and central neurons
D) Epithelial tissue and bone marrow
Q3) Which of the following is considered carcinogenic?
A) Lead
B) Carbon monoxide
C) Inhaled particulates
D) Mercury
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