

Foundations of Nursing Practice
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
Foundations of Nursing Practice introduces students to the essential principles, knowledge, and skills necessary for beginning nursing practice. The course covers the history and evolution of nursing, ethical and legal considerations, and fundamental concepts such as health, wellness, and patient-centered care. Students will learn about communication, safety, documentation, and infection control, as well as basic clinical skills including vital sign assessment and hygiene procedures. Through a blend of theoretical instruction and practical experience, this course prepares students to deliver safe, compassionate, and competent care to patients in diverse healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Introduction to Medical Surgical Nursing 6th Edition by Linton
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56 Chapters
1705 Verified Questions
1705 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1277

Page 2

Chapter 1: The Health Care System
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25231
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse explains that skilled nursing facilities are mandated to staff their facility with:
A) Licensed health professionals around the clock
B) RN in charge on each shift
C) RNs to supervise the patient care given by aides
D) Only RNs to provide complex care
Answer: A
Q2) The nurse explains that physicians prefer to use e-prescription systems to:
A) Process drug request more efficiently.
B) Prevent drug duplications.
C) Use less expensive drugs.
D) Identify contraindications for a drug.
E) Label both the generic and trade names.
Answer: A,B,D
Q3) A voluntary health care agency is one that:
A) Is supported by tax dollars.
B) Is governed by boards made up of community members.
C) Receives no fee for its services.
D) Uses volunteers as health care providers.
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Patient Care Settings
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25232
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse assesses a patient who needs to be reminded to take premeasured oral medications,wash,go to meals,and undress and come to bed at night,but coming and going as he pleases is considered safe for him.The nurse determines that the appropriate placement would be in a facility that features:
A) Skilled care
B) Intermediate care
C) Sheltered housing
D) Domiciliary care
Answer: D
Q2) The nurse clarifies to a new patient in a rehabilitation center that rehabilitation means that the patient will:
A) Return to his previous level of functioning.
B) Be counseled into a new career.
C) Develop better coping skills to accept his disability.
D) Attain the greatest degree of independence possible.
Answer: D
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4

Chapter 3: Legal and Ethical Considerations
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a student asks the instructor to define the philosophic stand of utilitarianism,the instructor gives the example of:
A) An army officer sacrifices six paratroopers to save 100 prisoners of war.
B) A priest burns down his church because it was defiled by Satanists.
C) A mother jumps off a cliff with her baby to avoid being captured by Indians.
D) A soldier murders captured enemies to prevent their divulging military secrets.
Answer: A
Q2) The LPN/LVN explains to a patient that the hospital has an Institutional Ethics Committee whose main function is to:
A) Preside over policy implementation
B) Revoke the license of someone who violates the law
C) Solve personnel disputes
D) Ensure that hiring adheres to ethnic equality
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: The Leadership Role of the Licensed Practical Nurse
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The task to which nurse aides may be delegated is:
A) Updating a nursing care plan
B) Developing a teaching plan
C) Weighing a patient
D) Evaluating pain medication responses
Q2) The recognition and use of the LPN/LVN began because of RN shortages and a reevaluation of LPN/LVNs as team leaders.The approximate date of this change in staffing occurred in the:
A) 1940s
B) 1950s
C) 1960s
D) 1970s
Q3) Planning,organizing,directing,and controlling are major functions of ____________________.
Q4) Laissez-faire leadership is the opposite of:
A) Authoritarian
B) Bureaucratic
C) Democratic
D) Participative
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Chapter 5: The Nurse-Patient Relationship
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25235
Sample Questions
Q1) The newly admitted resident to a long-term care facility tells the nurse that he misses his dog.The most therapeutic response by the nurse would be:
A) "You need to get a stuffed dog to keep you company."
B) "Have you made friends with Buddy, our facility's mascot?"
C) "Yes, dogs are a great deal of company."
D) "What do you miss about your dog?"
Q2) Which would be the most appropriate greeting to Mrs.Brown,a newly admitted 80-year-old with hemiplegia who is fully alert?
A) "Good morning, Mrs. Brown. My name is Ann, and I am your nurse today."
B) "I am your nurse. Today is bath day. You will get yours right after breakfast."
C) "Hello there, sweetie. We need to get to work on getting your breakfast so we can get your shower."
D) "My name is Ann. You are my patient today."
Q3) The patient says,"I am sick of being sick." The most therapeutic response is:
A) "I can't believe you really feel that way."
B) "I don't think that attitude is very helpful."
C) "I think you sound pretty frustrated."
D) "I want you to feel more positive."
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7

Chapter 6: Cultural Aspects of Nursing Care
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25236
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse has scheduled a specific time for a group of Latino patients who are diabetic to come for diabetic teaching,but the group does not come until almost an hour later.The culturally competent nurse is aware that:
A) Language barrier caused a miscommunication.
B) Denial about the disease has delayed arrival.
C) Their culture places little significance on the concept of time.
D) Timely arrival is rude, because it may inconvenience the hostess.
Q2) Transcultural nursing care is expected for every patient.To provide this type of care,the nurse needs to understand the practices of the predominant cultures of those groups in the health care geographic area that would require the nurse to be aware that:
A) Culture influences beliefs about health, illness, and health practices.
B) All members of an ethnic group have the same beliefs about health practices.
C) A patient's culture rather than individual assessments can be the basis of care.
D) Members of subcultures must be encouraged by nurses to adopt the dominant culture.
Q3) The Asian theory of hot and cold as a source of illness is based on the imbalance of the four ____________________.
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Chapter 7: The Nurse and the Family
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25237
Sample Questions
Q1) The current view of the family as a unit would generally best be described as:
A) Functioning together to provide security and support to its members
B) Functioning to meet the needs of society and support its members
C) A unit of two or more that shares common goals and mutual support
D) A unit of two or more joined together by mutual bonds and identity
Q2) The patient who was recently diagnosed with cancer tells the nurse that she is so grateful for her children and family because she does not know what she would do without them.Your patient is exhibiting which one of the following coping responses?
A) Internal family
B) External family
C) Family communication
D) Social support
Q3) The nurse includes the family in patient care to maintain the family's
Q4) The family is an important unit in society primarily because it:
A) Offers unconditional love and acceptance.
B) Provides emotional support and security.
C) Is essential to life and society.
D) Promotes cultural values and attitudes.
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Chapter 8: Health and Illness
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25238
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse assesses that smoking,drinking alcohol,and exercising compulsively,which may occur as responses to a stressful situation,are which one of the following types of responses?
A) External
B) Withdrawal
C) Denial
D) Internal
Q2) The nurse points out that a physiologic response to stress involves the total body and is referred to as which syndrome?
A) General adaptation
B) Local adaptation
C) Negative feedback
D) Total adaptation
Q3) The nurse explains that according to Maslow,the abilities to solve problems,to maintain self-confidence,and be willing to accept criticism are incorporated in:
A) Safety and security
B) Self-esteem
C) Self-actualization
D) Love and belonging
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Page 10

Chapter 9: Nutrition
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25239
Sample Questions
Q1) The function of protein in the body is to:
A) Provide the main source of energy.
B) Serve as a catalyst for fat catabolism.
C) Slow the rate of digestion and absorption of nutrients.
D) Furnish amino acids to build and repair tissue.
Q2) The nurse calculates the needed kilocalories (kcal)for a 150-pound moderately active person to be ____________________.
Q3) Just as energy balance is measured by weight gain or weight loss,protein balance is measured by:
A) Nitrogen
B) Weight
C) Muscle development
D) Carbon
Q4) The nurse explains that the characteristics of vitamins:
A) Are necessary in large doses.
B) Have the ability to be manufactured by the body.
C) Regulate metabolic functions in the cells.
D) Exist in multiple forms and are called vitamers.
E) Are classified as macronutrients.
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Chapter 10: Developmental Processes
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25240
Sample Questions
Q1) The older person's ability to remember,dream,and exercise behavioral control is a factor most related to:
A) Biologic age
B) Psychologic age
C) Social age
D) Chronologic age
Q2) Middle adulthood is defined as the period from:
A) 45 to 65 years
B) 20 to 35 years
C) 65 to 75 years
D) 30 to 50 years
Q3) The leading causes of death in the older aged adult include:
A) Vehicular accidents and suicide
B) Cardiovascular disease and diabetes mellitus
C) Alcoholism and cirrhosis
D) Cancer and strokes
Q4) The nurse assesses that the 22-year-old woman who is totally committed to her career and who does not date or socialize is experiencing the Eriksonian crises of
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Chapter 11: The Older Patient
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25241
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse explains that the effects of aging on the nervous system result in:
A) Accelerated loss of neurons in the brain.
B) Gradually declining loss of intellectual capability.
C) Decreased conduction speed of neurons.
D) Loss of long-term memory.
Q2) The nurse cautions family members that the final developmental stage is ego integrity.According to Erikson,if this stage is not mastered,the older adult will:
A) Have to repeat a previous stage.
B) Experience despair.
C) Be unable to advance past his or her present stage.
D) Experience disappointment.
Q3) Chemosensory changes that are observed in the older adult:
A) Are directly related to the aging process.
B) Are most often caused by disease.
C) Begin in the fifth decade of life.
D) Affect more women than men.
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13
Chapter 12: The Nursing Process and Critical Thinking
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25242
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse auscultating the patient's chest will:
A) Use the diaphragm for assessing breath sounds.
B) Use the bell for assessing murmurs.
C) Apply earpieces pointing toward the ears.
D) Wet the chest hair with a cloth.
E) Press the diaphragm very firmly against the chest wall.
Q2) Characteristics of critical thinking include:
A) Interpretation, analysis, and evaluation
B) Patient-centered criteria and problem solving
C) Realistic outcomes and frequent evaluation
D) Data gathering and assessment
Q3) In PIE documentation,a type of POMR,the acronym PIE stands for
and

Q4) Data collection consists of:
A) Information supplied by patient and family
B) Health history, physical assessment, and documentation
C) Health history and physical assessment
D) Assessment, patient records, and diagnostic tests
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Chapter 13: Inflammation, infection, and Immunity
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25243
Sample Questions
Q1) The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)has issued new guidelines for infection control.Nursing care plans for patients with infection mainly address which protocol?
A) Disease-specific precautions
B) Manner in which clean gloves are worn
C) Standard Precautions guidelines
D) Placement of needles and sharps
Q2) A patient has had several increasingly severe allergic reactions during last year's pollen season.This year,the patient comes regularly to the office to receive some antigen injections.The nurse teaches that these will:
A) Combat infection brought on by the allergic response.
B) Act as a steroid to lessen the allergic response.
C) Increase tolerance to the antigen.
D) Decrease the production of the antibodies.
Q3) Persons with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)have acquired Pneumocystis jiroveci (PCP),a serious pulmonary infection caused by ____________________.
Q4) The nurse reminds the patient who is to undergo hyperbaric oxygen therapy that the clothing worn into the chamber must be made of ____________________.
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Page 15

Chapter 14: Fluids and Electrolytes
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25244
Sample Questions
Q1) Hyperchloremia,as noted on a laboratory report,is usually associated with:
A) Metabolic acidosis
B) Metabolic alkalosis
C) Respiratory acidosis
D) Respiratory alkalosis
Q2) Each compartment of the body has a water-fluid distribution movement of its own.These fluids move and distribute themselves among these compartments via a process known as:
A) Active transport
B) Diffusion
C) Filtration
D) Osmosis
Q3) The patient's intravenous (IV)injection has been infusing at a very high rate,and now the patient appears to be in fluid volume overload,as indicated by:
A) Hypotension
B) Tachycardia
C) Pulmonary edema
D) Kidney failure
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16

Chapter 15: Pain Management
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25245
Sample Questions
Q1) The sensation of pain has been defined by the International Association for the Study of Pain as:
A) Unpleasant sensory and emotional experience
B) Whatever the person experiencing it says it is
C) Psychogenic response to tissue injury
D) Physical and psychogenic response to the need for drugs
Q2) The nurse is teaching a patient how to use a transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS)unit and how it works.Appropriate information for this patient would be:
A) "The stimulation of the skin seeks to localize the acute pain and will last for several minutes after the unit is applied."
B) "This unit stimulates both the skin and the underlying tissues to decrease the intensity of the pain."
C) "The mechanism for use of this unit is well known and can be read."
D) "During those days when using the TENS unit, no analgesic can be given."
Q3) The nurse explains that afferent pathways are activated by pain receptors called
Q4) ____________________ and ____________________ are natural opioid-like substances that block pain perception.
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Chapter 16: First Aid, emergency Care, and Disaster Management
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25246
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse follows the protocol of AMPLE when speaking to a victim of a fall in the parking lot of the hospital.The nurse knows that the P stands for:
A) Pills taken today
B) Personal physician
C) Past illnesses
D) Preference for emergency transportation
Q2) Six hours after a beach picnic on a hot afternoon,a young man enters the emergency department with nausea and vomiting,headache,and diarrhea.On interview,the patient says that he ate potato salad and tuna fish sandwiches.The nurse anticipates that the causative organism for these symptoms is:
A) Clostridium botulinum
B) Clostridium perfringens
C) Salmonella
D) Staphylococcus aureus
Q3) Assessment of a burn victim leads the nurse to suspect an inhalation injury.The observation that would indicate such an injury would be ____________________.
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Chapter 17: Surgical Care
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25247
Sample Questions
Q1) The circulating nurse is responsible for:
A) Assisting the surgeon with the procedure
B) Setting up the surgical room
C) Scrubbing in to handle instruments
D) Maintaining patient safety
E) Documenting nursing care
Q2) The postanesthesia care nurse is evaluating the patient for possible transfer to the surgical unit.The following assessment would prevent the patient's transfer:
A) Blood pressure: 126/78 mm Hg
B) Pulse rate: 82 beats per minute
C) Pulse oximeter reading: 85%
D) Respirations: 22 breaths per minute
Q3) To prevent the effects of postoperative immobility on the gastrointestinal system,the nurse suggests that the patient:
A) Avoid taking antibiotics.
B) Increase her fluid intake.
C) Avoid high-fiber foods.
D) Limit her activity for the first 3 to 4 days.
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Chapter 18: Intravenous Therapy
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25248
Sample Questions
Q1) In an assessment of a patient who has been receiving intravenous (IV)fluids for the last 6 hours,the nurse finds that the pulse is now bounding,the blood pressure is more than 15 mm Hg higher than the last reading,and pedal edema has developed.The nurse evaluates these signs as associated with:
A) Infiltration of the IV site
B) Vascular fluid volume excess
C) Pulmonary air embolism
D) Phlebitis of the leg veins
Q2) The physician orders an infusion of 1000 ml of 5% dextrose in 0.45 NS to be completed in 8 hours.The IV delivery system's drop factor is 20 gtts.The nurse should set the electronic infusion pump to deliver ______________ ml/hr?
A) 125
B) 100
C) 85
D) 42
Q3) The nurse explains to the patient that the peripheral IV tubing administration set and dressing should be changed every __________ hours.
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Chapter 19: Shock
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25249
Sample Questions
Q1) In the treatment of the progressive stage of shock,the nurse would anticipate the use of drugs to bring about a(n):
A) Increase in cardiac output
B) Decrease in blood pressure
C) Decrease in urine output
D) Lower temperature
Q2) The nurse explains that pericardial tamponade and pulmonary embolus can place the patient at risk for ______________ shock.
Q3) The nurse explains to a concerned family member about the purpose of some of the interventions for systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS),which is:
A) Applying a MAST garment to promote and conserve body heat.
B) Inserting an IABP to decrease fluid leaking into the extravascular space.
C) Maintaining strict isolation to prevent an overlying bacterial infection.
D) Aggressively treating to support the multiple failing organs.
Q4) The nurse is aware that immobility and insertion of urinary catheters,although therapeutic,also places the patient at risk for _________________________.
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Page 21

Chapter 20: Falls
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25250
Sample Questions
Q1) Family members who brought a patient to the emergency department after she had fallen in her home are expressing their feelings of guilt.The nurse's most therapeutic response to the family would be:
A) "Someone should really be staying with her to prevent her from falling."
B) "Let me see how long it will be before you can see the patient."
C) "Don't worry. You have nothing to feel guilty about."
D) "I can see you are worried."
Q2) The nurse visiting a patient in the patient's home assesses the environment for extrinsic risk factors for falling.The nurse should have the patient or family correct which one of the following?
A) No door thresholds are present.
B) The kitchen floor is clean, shiny, and slick.
C) Lamps have 60-watt bulbs.
D) The telephone is placed on the bedside table.
Q3) A patient with Parkinson disease would be at risk for falling as a result of:
A) Quick movements
B) Unsteady, shuffling gait
C) Hemiparesis
D) Frequent loss of consciousness
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Immobility
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25251
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient in traction with a fractured hip is diagnosed with a stage I pressure ulcer.She asks the nurse how a pressure ulcer could occur after only 2 days of immobility.The nurse's response is based on her knowledge that:
A) "Erythema can occur in 1 to 2 hours, even in a person with healthy skin and adequate circulation."
B) "It takes several days for a pressure ulcer to form."
C) "The pressure ulcer probably occurred when you fell."
D) "The cause of pressure ulcers isn't really known."
Q2) The patient is complaining to the nurse that he feels the need to have a bowel movement but has not been able to defecate.He has had cramping and even a small amount of brown watery stool.The nurse recognizes these symptoms as:
A) Diarrhea
B) Fecal incontinence
C) Fecal impaction
D) Flatulence
Q3) When a bacteria is localized at the site of a Stage III pressure ulcer,it is said to be_____________.
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Page 23

Chapter 22: Confusion
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25252
Sample Questions
Q1) The patient asks the nurse what causes dementia.The nurse's response would be based on the understanding that the two most prevalent types of dementia are:
A) Pick disease and Huntington disease.
B) Alzheimer disease and vascular dementia.
C) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease and Pick disease.
D) Vascular dementia and Huntington disease.
Q2) When assessing the patient for delirium versus dementia,the nurse would expect the patient with dementia to have signs of a(n):
A) Intermittent fear affect
B) Perplexity affect
C) Bewilderment affect
D) Flat affect
Q3) The nurse is preparing a room for a patient being transferred from the emergency department with a diagnosis of delirium.The nurse should ensure that the room is:
A) Brightly lit
B) Shared by another patient
C) Visible from the nurses' station
D) Dark and quiet
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Chapter 23: Incontinence
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25253
Sample Questions
Q1) To protect the skin integrity of an incontinent patient,the nurse would include in the plan of care:
A) Immediately remove wet garments and linens.
B) Wash skin with an antiseptic, and towel dry.
C) Inspect for areas of redness and breakdown every morning.
D) Apply cornstarch to the perineum to absorb moisture.
E) Apply protective creams per agency policy.
Q2) Bladder training instructions are being given to a patient who has a history of urinary incontinence.The initial instructions the nurse should give the patient are to:
A) "Wait until you feel the urge to void."
B) "Don't void any more often than every 4 to 6 hours."
C) "Void every 2 to 3 hours while awake."
D) "Void any time you feel the urge."
Q3) The patient who is scheduled for an urodynamic test asks the nurse why he is having this test.The nurse's best response would be:
A) "To test the capacity of the bladder."
B) "To see how much urine is left in the bladder after you have voided."
C) "To test the function of the nerves and muscles of the bladder."
D) "To detect involuntary passage of urine."
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Page 25

Chapter
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25254
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is on duty in the emergency department when a patient is brought in who has died almost immediately after admission.The family states that the patient has had no history of medical problems and that no apparent reason for death is known.The nurse knows that in this situation:
A) The police must be notified.
B) The family may choose to have an autopsy performed.
C) An autopsy is required by law, and the coroner or medical examiner must be notified.
D) The body must be held at the hospital for 24 hours.
Q2) After the death of a patient,the nurse should position the body:
A) Prone
B) Supine
C) On the side
D) In Fowler position
Q3) When the family of a dying person do not discuss the issue of death openly and avoid the subject of dying altogether,the nurse recognizes this behavior representative of the _________stage described by Straus and Glaser.
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Chapter 25: The Patient With Cancer
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25255
Sample Questions
Q1) The family is concerned about the possibility of addiction as a result of the frequent doses of Roxanol.The nurse's best response is:
A) "At this stage, addiction is the least of our worries."
B) "This is a low-dose drug, and it controls pain without the problems of addiction."
C) "Addiction is rare, but we have drugs that can counteract the effect of this narcotic."
D) "You may want to share your concerns with the physician. He can order another drug that is not addictive."
Q2) The nurse clarifies that radiation has an immediate effect on cells,which is cell death by:
A) Separating the cell from normal cells
B) Damaging the cell membrane
C) Altering the DNA of the cell
D) Reducing the nutrition of the cell
Q3) Radiation is now measured in GRAY rather than RADS.One GRAY is equal to ________ RADS.
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Chapter 26: The Patient With an Ostomy
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25256
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is receiving discharge instructions.He shares with the nurse that he intends to do a lot of traveling.Instructions for travel should include which one of these points?
A) "Pack plenty of extra colostomy supplies in your checked airline luggage. Some places you might visit do not always carry the supplies you will need."
B) "Exercise caution with new foods, especially local fruits and vegetables, because they may cause diarrhea or gas."
C) "If visiting somewhere where drinking local water is not advised, irrigating the colostomy with the local water is still okay."
D) "Repeat back to me what we just talked about so that you will remember everything you have been taught."
Q2) The initial assessment of a patient just returned from surgery for the creation of an Indiana pouch would include the:
A) Drainage of urine from the Penrose drain at the operative site
B) Condition and color of the stoma
C) Appearance of mucus in the urine
D) Copious and odorous urine drainage from the incision
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Chapter 27: Neurologic Disorders
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25257
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse evaluates a positive outcome to the goal of teaching for the nursing diagnosis of "Knowledge deficit,related to conservation of energy in a patient with multiple sclerosis" (MS)when the patient says:
A) "Now that I am taking steroids, I will be able to work like I used to."
B) "I'm making a list of things that are important and things I will simply have to let go."
C) "I will make a plan to allow for long rest periods at least four times a day."
D) "I am working on balancing time between rest, work, and family time."
Q2) The patient who is stuporous but reacts by withdrawing from painful stimuli is said to be:
A) Comatose
B) Lethargic
C) Semicomatose
D) Somnolent
Q3) The nurse should assess the patient scheduled for an angiogram for:
A) Dizziness
B) Allergy to shrimp
C) Increased BP
D) Irregular heartbeat
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29

Chapter 28: Cerebrovascular Accident
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25258
Sample Questions
Q1) The instruction that is most helpful in teaching the family and patient who is in the rehabilitation phase after a CVA about altered sensation is to:
A) Make frequent assessments for signs of pressure or injury.
B) Use the affected side in supporting the patient in ambulation, and transfer to stimulate better sensation.
C) Apply ice packs to the affected limbs to encourage a return of sensation.
D) Apply a heating pad to the affected limbs to increase circulation.
Q2) The nurse adds to the nursing care plan the intervention that will help preserve joint mobility in the acute phase of a CVA,which is:
A) Pull the limbs on the affected side into a functional position.
B) Perform aggressive full range-of-motion exercises for all extremities.
C) Support affected points in good functional alignment.
D) Exercise the limbs every 8 hours.
Q3) The nurse recognizes that the acute phase of a CVA has ended when:
A) 48 hours has passed from its onset.
B) Patient begins to respond verbally.
C) BP drops.
D) Vital signs and neurologic signs stabilize.
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Chapter 29: Spinal Cord Injury
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25259
Sample Questions
Q1) The patient with a SCI begins to have seizures,and the blood pressure (BP)rises rapidly to 210/160 mm Hg.Which is the third indicator of the dreaded syndrome of autonomic dysreflexia?
A) Profuse vomiting
B) Hives on face and neck
C) Excessive urine output
D) Bradycardia
Q2) After spinal shock has been resolved,the indwelling catheter is removed.The nurse tells the patient to expect the bladder to empty by:
A) Manual expression (Credé method)
B) Spontaneous reflexive action
C) Normal voluntary control
D) Self-catheterization
Q3) When the patient with a SCI inquires what the physician means by a cone-down,the nurse explains that:
A) A cone is surgically placed over the spine to protect the cord.
B) Marks will be placed on either side of the injury to mark the area.
C) A cone-shaped wedge of bone will be placed between the vertebrae.
D) A detailed x-ray image will be taken of the spinal injury.
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Page 31

Chapter 30: Acute Respiratory Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25260
Sample Questions
Q1) When the nurse observes the paradoxical movement in a patient with a flail chest who has significant dyspnea,the nurse should prepare for a(n):
A) Thoracotomy
B) Intubation
C) Thoracentesis
D) Body cast
Q2) The nurse explains that the ventilator function of positive end-expiratory pressure assists the patient by:
A) Keeping pressure in the lungs after expiration.
B) Delivering 100 % oxygen on inspiration.
C) Allowing the patient to control expiratory pressure.
D) Delivering an inhalant medication under positive pressure.
Q3) The intervention that would be inappropriate for decreasing the risk of further emboli in a patient with a pulmonary embolism is:
A) Carefully applying compression stockings.
B) Performing passive range-of-motion exercises, especially the lower limbs.
C) Placing pillows under the knees to elevate the legs.
D) Ambulating frequently.
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Chapter 31: Chronic Respiratory Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25261
Sample Questions
Q1) The patient with CF furiously refuses any more manual chest physiotherapeutic treatment.The nurse could suggest which alternative?
A) Flutter mucus device
B) Increase ambulation to 1 to 2 hours a day
C) Steam inhalator several times a day
D) Drinking 3 quarts of fluid per day
Q2) The nurse cautions a group of individuals with COPD that using O? at levels greater than 1 to 3 L/min can cause the loss of their _________________________.
Q3) The patient with COPD asks the nurse if nicotine patches are effective for smoking cessation.The nurse's best response would be:
A) "No. Only about 25% are successful."
B) "Yes. The success rate is between 50% and 60%."
C) "No. Prescriptions such as Wellbutrin are 90% effective."
D) "Yes. Individual success has been obtained with combination of patches and gum."
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Chapter 32: Hematologic Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25262
Sample Questions
Q1) The patient receiving Epogen asks how soon an increase in his red blood cell count will occur.The nurse's best reply is that the initial increase in red blood cells should be seen in:
A) 2 days
B) 1 week
C) 10 days
D) 2 weeks
Q2) The nurse explains that a normal hematocrit value is approximately:
A) Three times the hemoglobin value
B) The same as the hemoglobin value
C) Four times lower than the red blood cell count
D) Same as the red blood cell count
Q3) The nurse caring for a patient receiving a transfusion assesses that the patient is wheezing and is complaining of back pain.After the nurse stops the transfusion,the nurse should:
A) Discontinue the intravenous (IV) transfusion.
B) Notify the charge nurse.
C) Administer heparin.
D) Raise the patient's head.
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Page 34

Chapter 33: Immunologic Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25263
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse explains that early in life,lymphocytes migrate from the marrow of the bones to the ________________,in which they mature into T cells.
Q2) The nurse uses a picture to show the histamine-releasing mast cells that are:
A) Circulating in the blood
B) Circulating in the lymph
C) Attached to organ tissue
D) Embedded in the bone marrow
Q3) In the preparation to perform skin testing,the nurse should:
A) Select an 18-gauge needle.
B) Inject 1 mL intradermally.
C) Check the site in 2 to 3 days for swelling.
D) Wrap the site with a pressure dressing.
Q4) The nurse points out that the spleen's primary function in the immune process is to:
A) Filter microorganisms from the blood.
B) Store lymphocytes used to fight infections.
C) Produce additional RBCs (red blood cells).
D) Stimulate WBC production.
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Chapter 34: Human Immunodeficiency Virus and Acquired
Immunodeficiency Syndrome
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25264
Sample Questions
Q1) In designing a teaching plan for a patient with AIDS,relative to food preparation precautions,the nurse would include the need to:
A) Check expiration dates on frozen foods.
B) Leave produce unwashed to preserve protective spray.
C) Drink a small glass of red wine before each meal to stimulate the appetite.
D) Eat three large, well-balanced meals daily.
E) Avoid leftovers.
Q2) In assessing a patient with AIDS for risk factors,the nurse recognizes the most risky behavior that the patient reported as:
A) Oral sex without contact with glans penis
B) Oral sex with a condom
C) Use of sex toys
D) Anal sex with condom
Q3) If the first ELISA is positive,then:
A) The diagnosis of AIDS is confirmed.
B) The test is repeated in 6 to 8 months.
C) Another blood sample must be obtained for testing.
D) A Western blot test is performed on the same sample.
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Chapter 35: Cardiac Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25265
Sample Questions
Q1) When the nurse assesses an inverted T wave on the ECG of a patient who had an acute MI 2 days earlier,the nurse interprets this as an indication of a(n):
A) Normal recovery
B) New MI
C) Abnormal wave form
D) Congestive heart failure
Q2) The nurse caring for a patient on lidocaine to increase ventricular conduction is alarmed when assessments reveal:
A) Slowed ventricular rate
B) Occasional PVCs
C) Increase in temperature to 102° F
D) Nausea and vomiting
Q3) The nurse should include in the patient's discharge instruction after an acute MI:
A) Cautions about use of morphine
B) Detailed symptoms that indicate impending MI
C) Written instructions on diet and follow-up appointments
D) High-energy exercise program directions
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Chapter 36: Vascular Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25266
Sample Questions
Q1) The patient with Raynaud disease has a nursing diagnosis of "Ineffective tissue perfusion,related to vasoconstriction" is being given discharge instructions.The nurse would caution the patient to:
A) Avoid defrosting the freezer.
B) Wear gloves and warm socks when outdoors.
C) Chafe hands frequently to warm them.
D) Wash dishes in warm water.
Q2) Following an angiogram,the nurse will make a point of care to assess and document:
A) Fluid intake
B) Peripheral pulses in the effected leg
C) Inquiring about an allergy to iodine
D) Decreased blood pressure
Q3) The nurse cautions a patient that one of the characteristics of a venous stasis ulcer is:
A) Painlessness
B) Poikilothermy
C) Pale color
D) Location near the groin
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Page 38

Chapter 37: Hypertension
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25267
Sample Questions
Q1) To use less sodium in the diet,the nurse recommends the use of spices and:
A) Catsup
B) Garlic
C) Soy sauce
D) Cheese
Q2) When a patient reports drowsiness after initiating atenolol (Tenormin)for the treatment of hypertension,the nurse's best response would be to instruct the patient to:
A) Take the medication at bedtime.
B) Reduce the dose of the medication until the desired effect occurs.
C) Avoid activities that require alertness.
D) Talk to the physician because drowsiness is not an anticipated side effect.
Q3) In a teaching plan for a patient with hypertension,the nurse would include:
A) Stopping medications if side effects occur.
B) Maintaining a diet high in unsaturated fat.
C) Advising no further visits if no other symptoms occur.
D) Encouraging relaxation techniques.
Q4) The nurse explains that the force against which the left ventricle must work to force the blood into the circulation is called ______________________________.
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Page 39

Chapter 38: Digestive Tract Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25268
Sample Questions
Q1) The 60-year-old patient who has just been diagnosed with cancer of the stomach says,"I feel blank and numb." The nurse's best response would be:
A) "Shock affects everyone that way."
B) "I'm sure you are considering what you should do now that you have cancer."
C) "Would you like me to bring you a sedative?"
D) "What do you mean when you say 'blank and numb?'"
Q2) The 92-year-old patient dehydrated from diarrhea exhibits anorexia and has lost 1 pound since yesterday.To help stimulate intake,the nurse would:
A) Moisten the patient's mouth with mouthwash.
B) Put away bedpans and urinals.
C) Leave the patient in privacy during mealtime.
D) Check the fit of the patient's dentures.
E) Offer favorite foods.
Q3) The nurse explains that the newest endoscopic procedure for examining the small intestine is the:
A) Capsule camera
B) Fiber-optic light probe
C) Rigid lighted tubes
D) Flat plate
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Page 40

Chapter 39: Disorders of the Liver, gallbladder, and Pancreas
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25269
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse would assess the progress of ascites on a daily basis by:
A) Daily weights and abdominal girth measurements.
B) Intake-output and electrolyte levels.
C) Blood pressure and pulse.
D) Daily temperatures and oxygen levels.
Q2) The nurse reports the observation that would indicate blocked flow of bile from the liver to the intestine,which is:
A) Clay-colored stools
B) Jaundice
C) High blood pressure
D) Tachycardia
Q3) The nurse explains that with the continued rise in ammonia levels in the patient with cirrhosis,the diet will be modified to restrict:
A) Protein
B) Carbohydrates
C) Fats
D) Water-soluble vitamins
Q4) In assessing a dark-skinned patient for jaundice,the nurse would assess the ____________________ for a yellow color.
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Chapter 40: Urologic Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25270
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse caring for a patient who had a ureteral catheter in place after the removal of a kidney stone would focus care on:
A) Irrigating the catheter regularly.
B) Assessing for patency.
C) Including ureteral output with the bladder output.
D) Early ambulation.
Q2) The nurse assesses a Grey Turner sign in a patient who was admitted 2 days earlier after an automobile accident.This finding indicates:
A) Retroperitoneal bleeding and bruising over the flank
B) Hematuria with abdominal bruising
C) Distended bladder with painful urination
D) Bladder spasms on palpation of abdomen
Q3) The nurse caring for a patient with acute glomerulonephritis is aware that the inflammation of the capillary loops in the glomeruli leads to:
A) Moderate-to-high blood pressure
B) Low blood volume with polyuria
C) Irritability and hyperactivity
D) Low levels of BUN and creatinine
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42

Chapter 41: Connective Tissue Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25271
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse would include in a teaching plan for a patient with carpal tunnel syndrome instructions about:
A) Anticoagulants and glucocorticoids
B) Methotrexate
C) Lubricating ointments
D) Splinting to prevent flexion and hyperextension
Q2) Two days after a total hip replacement,the patient is being discharged.The statement indicating that the patient understands the discharge teaching is:
A) "I can sit comfortably with my legs crossed."
B) "I will ask my husband to tie my shoes for me."
C) "I am glad I won't have to use that bulky pillow between my legs at night."
D) "My straight dining room chair will be helpful when I do the hip flexion exercises."
Q3) Immediately after surgery,the nurse caring for the patient who had a total knee replacement makes careful documentation on the patient's:
A) Quality of pulses in the affected limb
B) Degree of nausea and vomiting
C) Understanding of the procedure
D) Amount of pain
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43

Chapter 42: Fractures
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25272
Sample Questions
Q1) In caring for a patient just admitted with a pelvic fracture,the assessment that would cause the most concern is:
A) Pain level rating of 8 on a scale of 1 to 10
B) No urinary output for 8 hours
C) Evidence of bruising along the patient's hips and buttocks
D) Complaints of the need for back care from resting in bed
Q2) The properly fitted crutch will be:
A) Adjusted so that axilla piece is 3 to 4 fingerbreadths below the axilla.
B) Fitted closely to the axilla for secure support.
C) Measured and adjusted when the patient is in the tripod position.
D) Adjusted for the handgrips to allow for a 45-degree flexion of the elbow.
E) Padded so patient can bear weight on the axilla piece when ambulating.
Q3) When the nurse is told that a patient has a compound comminuted fracture,the nurse is concerned because this type of fracture is one in which the bone is:
A) Bent but not completely broken, and the bent piece protrudes through the skin.
B) Compressed, and bone pieces protrude through the skin.
C) Twisted, and the fragments are separated.
D) Broken into two or more pieces, and bone fragments protrude through the skin.
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44

Chapter 43: Amputations
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25273
Sample Questions
Q1) To reduce the possibility of hip contractures in a patient with an above-the-knee amputation,the nurse periodically places the patient in a _________________ position.
A) High Fowler
B) Side-lying
C) Flat supine
D) Completely prone
Q2) When the patient asks when he should expect to be up and walking after his below-the-knee amputation,the nurse assures him that most amputees can fully bear weight in:
A) 3 weeks
B) 1 month
C) 6 weeks
D) 3 months
Q3) To prevent the loss of calcium and protein,the nurse reminds the patient with a recent below-the-knee amputation that he should:
A) Drink 1 to 2 L of fluid daily.
B) Ingest at least four milk products each day.
C) Ambulate 30 minutes a day.
D) Take vitamin supplements daily.
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Chapter 44: Pituitary and Adrenal Disorders
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25274
Sample Questions
Q1) When the 18-year-old girl is diagnosed with adenoma of the anterior pituitary gland,the nurse assesses for the classic signs of this diagnosis,which are:
A) Cessation of menses
B) Milk production
C) Changing facial features
D) Excessive urine output
E) Weight gain
Q2) The nurse assessing a patient with Simmonds cachexia anticipates that the patient will exhibit:
A) High body temperature
B) Ruddy complexion
C) Silky body hair
D) Muscle wasting
Q3) The nurse explains to a 14-year-old adolescent that because he has Addison disease,he will:
A) Not develop pubic hair.
B) Grow a heavy beard.
C) Become bald at an early age.
D) Have enlarged joints.
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Page 46

Chapter 45: Thyroid and Parathyroid Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25275
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse clarifies the pathophysiologic changes of Graves disease by saying:
A) "Your thyroid gland is not producing enough hormones; consequently, you will need replacement therapy."
B) "Your thyroid gland is overactive, but there are ways to treat it-through medicine or surgery."
C) "It's an autoimmune disorder that has no satisfactory treatment."
D) "Graves disease is a temporary disorder that will gradually subside."
Q2) The home health care nurse is aware that hypothyroidism is frequently overlooked in older adults because:
A) Signs and symptoms are subtle.
B) Signs and symptoms are discounted as age-related changes.
C) Weight changes in the older adult are not pronounced.
D) Older adults are not susceptible to thyroid disorders.
E) Decrease in mental function is attributed to dementia.
Q3) To assess for hemorrhage in a post thyroidectomy patient the nurse should:
A) Assess upper chest for the patient positioned in high Fowler position.
B) Turn the patient to the side to check; the patient must be kept flat in the bed.
C) Lift up the neck dressing to assess for excessive bleeding.
D) Examine behind patient's neck and upper back to assess for hemorrhage.
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Page 47

Chapter 46: Diabetes Mellitus and Hypoglycemia
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25276
Sample Questions
Q1) The home health care nurse is assessing a patient with type 1 diabetes who has been controlled for 6 months.The nurse is surprised and concerned about a blood glucose reading of 52.This episode of hypoglycemia is probably caused by the patient's having:
A) Taken a new form of birth control pill this morning.
B) Used large amounts of sugar substitute in her tea this morning.
C) Had a 2-hour long exercise class at the spa this morning.
D) Administered an insufficient dose of insulin this morning.
Q2) The teaching plan for a patient with diabetes for foot care would include that the patient should:
A) Wash and carefully dry the feet every day.
B) Apply lotion between the toes.
C) Protect the feet from extreme temperatures.
D) Walk barefoot only indoors.
E) Buy shoes that are comfortable and supportive.
Q3) The nurse reminds the patient with type I diabetes to rotate the insulin injection sites to prevent ___________________________.
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Chapter 47: Female Reproductive Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25277
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient tells the nurse that she is afraid of getting cervical cancer because her mother died of cervical cancer.The most appropriate response by the nurse would be:
A) "You need to a have a pelvic examination every 6 months because of your history."
B) "If you have regular Pap smears, cervical cancer is usually diagnosed early and cured."
C) "There's no need to worry so much. Cervical cancer does not run in families."
D) "Cervical cancer is sexually transmitted. Don't switch partners often, and you don't have to worry."
Q2) The nurse is aware that a tumor determined to be ER+ indicates that the tumor needs ____________________ for growth.
Q3) The nurse instructing a patient on breast self-examination explains to the patient that the best time of the month to perform a breast self-examination is:
A) Before the menstrual period
B) During the menstrual period
C) After the menstrual period
D) On the first day of the month
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Chapter 48: Male Reproductive Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25278
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse should explain that the purpose of the urethral smear is to:
A) Screen for human immunodeficiency viral (HIV) infection.
B) Detect sexually transmitted infections.
C) Verify fertility through a sperm count.
D) Eliminate concerns of prostate problems.
Q2) The nurse explains to a young man being treated for infertility that the semen analysis will:
A) Determine the history of sexually transmitted infections.
B) Evaluate the potential for genetic problems.
C) Determine whether any urethral obstructions are present.
D) Microscopically assess the sperm for number and motility.
Q3) The discharge teaching plan for a patient after undergoing a prostatectomy would include instructions relative to:
A) Remedy for bladder spasm
B) Catheter care
C) Delay of sexual activity for 3 months
D) Perineal exercises
E) Avoidance of heavy lifting
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Chapter 49: Sexually Transmitted Infections
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25279
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse giving instruction to a patient with a STI says,"I am supposed to tell you about STIs,but you probably know more about them than I do." This nurse is:
A) Admitting her own ignorance about STIs.
B) Trying to get the patient's attention.
C) Referencing current statistics.
D) Making a judgmental statement.
Q2) The nurse teaching a seminar on STIs points out that systemic (disseminated)gonorrhea may involve the:
A) Heart
B) Eyes
C) Meninges
D) Skin
E) Joints
Q3) A patient has been diagnosed with herpes simplex virus,type 2 (HSV type 2).The nurse should instruct the patient to:
A) Avoid telling anyone about the condition.
B) Wear close-fitting undergarments.
C) Wash towels and personal items daily.
D) Soak the sores with peroxide every day.
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Page 51

Chapter 50: Skin Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25280
Sample Questions
Q1) An appropriate implementation for a patient with severe psoriasis who has a nursing diagnosis of "Disturbed body image,related to skin lesions" would be:
A) Touching the patient often
B) Reassuring the patient of a quick remission
C) Reminding the patient to bathe often
D) Prompt administration of medications as needed
Q2) A confused patient who has been restrained because of combativeness and hyperactivity might,because of the restraints,display:
A) Lentigines
B) Senile purpura
C) Senile angiomas
D) Seborrheic keratoses
Q3) The assessment by the emergency department nurse most indicative that a burn patient might be at risk for respiratory impairment is:
A) Burns on the face and neck
B) Respiration of 18 breaths/min
C) Flaring nares
D) Sooty sputum
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Chapter 51: Eye and Vision Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25281
Sample Questions
Q1) Implementations that are appropriate in the care plan for a visually impaired person include:
A) Leaving the bed in the highest position.
B) Keeping the door closed.
C) Announcing your presence when you enter and leave the room.
D) Leaving the radio on all the time to help the patient know the time of day.
Q2) The patient with glaucoma who is taking a beta-adrenergic blocking agent,timolol (Timoptic),should be monitored for:
A) Wheezing
B) Hypertension
C) Sudden eye pain
D) Blurred vision
Q3) The nurse explains that the difference between open-angle and closed-angle glaucoma is that with closed-angle glaucoma:
A) Onset is acute.
B) Trabeculectomy is the initial treatment.
C) Treatment can be conservative.
D) Intraocular pressure drops suddenly.
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Chapter 52: Ear and Hearing Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25282
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with diabetes says that he needs a hearing aid because he cannot hear well and everything sounds garbled and distant.The nurse's most informative response would be that a hearing aid may not help him because he probably has:
A) Mixed hearing loss
B) Conductive hearing loss
C) Central hearing loss
D) Sensorineural hearing loss
Q2) When the nurse reads in the patient's history that the patient has experienced otalgia,the nurse knows that the patient has:
A) Difficulty hearing
B) Buildup of cerumen
C) Ear pain
D) Ringing in ears
Q3) When planning care for a patient who cannot perceive or interpret sounds,the nurse takes into consideration that the patient may have a ____________________ hearing loss.
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Chapter 53: Nose, sinus, and Throat Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25283
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient complains that he wants an antibiotic medication for his cold.The nurse's best response is:
A) "Antibiotics are not effective with viral infections."
B) "You will get better faster without the antibiotics."
C) "You might try echinacea or vitamin C."
D) "A cold is not that serious. Try forcing fluids."
Q2) A patient comes into the clinic complaining of a runny nose and facial pain.The nurse's initial assessment would include:
A) Assessment for nasal drainage and sinus tenderness
B) Transillumination and nasal speculum examination
C) Palpation of the frontal and maxillary sinuses and tonsillar inspection
D) Turbinate assessment and assessment for patency of the nares
Q3) For a patient having a supraglottic laryngectomy,one major postoperative difficulty is:
A) Teaching the patient to use an assistive device to speak.
B) Coughing without letting food escape through the tracheostomy.
C) Taking care of the tracheostomy, because the patient will always have to have one.
D) Teaching the patient to swallow without aspiration.
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55

Chapter 54: Psychologic Responses to Illness
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25284
Sample Questions
Q1) The example of a positive stressor is:
A) Test anxiety
B) Loss of a job
C) Paying income tax
D) Single motherhood
Q2) The nurse explains that according to Maslow,mentally healthy persons have the characteristics of:
A) Acceptance of self
B) Reality orientation
C) Spontaneity
D) Effective problem-solving skills
E) No need for privacy
Q3) The nurse gives an example of a person who is attempting to maintain homeostasis as the newcomer who:
A) Joins a local church.
B) Buys a new car.
C) Stays in his or her apartment watching television.
D) Spends hours writing e-mail messages to old friends.
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Chapter 55: Psychiatric Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25285
Sample Questions
Q1) The patient says,"I just don't think I can keep going on.I just want it all to end." The nurse assesses that this patient has suicidal ideation.Your best response is:
A) "Do you have any thoughts of harming yourself?"
B) "Have you felt like this before?"
C) "You are just depressed. Once you feel better, you won't think that way."
D) "We will keep you safe here."
Q2) When the patient who is receiving large doses of chlorpromazine (Thorazine)began to exhibit extrapyramidal signs of involuntary muscle movement,the nurse anticipates that _________ drugs will be added to the protocol.
A) Antiparkinsonian
B) Antihypertensive
C) Anticonvulsant
D) Antiemetic
Q3) When the patient asks the nurse to touch him,the nurse asks why he needs this.The patient replies,"I just need to know that I am real." The nurse assesses that response as a primary sign of ____________________.
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Page 57

Chapter 56: Substance-Related Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25286
Sample Questions
Q1) The treatment plans for abusers of alcohol and drugs are similar-90 meetings in 90 days and 12-step programs.The major difference in the success of the two types of abusers is that:
A) One program uses a 12-step approach, and the other program has a religious base.
B) Heroin addicts have a higher success rate.
C) Alcohol abusers have an easier time staying with the program.
D) Relapse rates for patients using drugs other than alcohol alone are much higher.
Q2) A nursing diagnosis that is appropriate for a patient with substance abuse is:
A) Anxiety
B) Chronic or situational low self-esteem
C) Risk for delayed development
D) Acute confusion
Q3) The nurse explains that because the drug disulfiram (Antabuse)is deemed inappropriate,the patient has been put on the most reliable substitute,____________________,which causes similar but less severe side effects in the alcoholic who continues to drink.
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