Foundations of Nursing Practice
Midterm Exam
Course Introduction
Foundations of Nursing Practice introduces students to the essential principles and skills required for effective and compassionate nursing care. The course explores fundamental concepts in patient assessment, basic clinical techniques, communication, patient safety, and ethical standards within the healthcare environment. Emphasis is placed on developing critical thinking, understanding the nursing process, and establishing a strong foundation for professional practice. Through a combination of theoretical instruction and practical experiences, students gain the knowledge and confidence necessary to provide evidence-based care and function as integral members of the healthcare team.
Recommended Textbook
Alexanders Care of the Patient in Surgery 14th Edition by Jane C. Rothrock
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30 Chapters
784 Verified Questions
784 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Concepts Basic to Perioperative Nursing
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When delegating a task,such as a preoperative skin prep,to an unlicensed individual,the perioperative nurse:
A) still retains responsibility and authority for the outcome of the task.
B) must comply with the seven "rights" of delegation.
C) transfers the authority to perform the task to a competent person.
D) transfers the supervision of the competent person to another competent person.
Answer: C
Q2) Emerging perioperative nursing roles are defined by the tremendous growth in science and technology combined with the increasing complexity of surgery and the interventional disciplines.An example of an emerging nursing role is:
A) sterile processing clinical specialist.
B) general surgery service liaison.
C) weekend resource nurse.
D) Informatics nurse specialist.
Answer: D
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3
Chapter 2: Patient Safety and Risk Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Informed consent is both a requirement and a patient right.The perioperative nurse's responsibility in terms of informed consent is to:
A) obtain verbal consent when the written consent is unavailable.
B) ensure that the consent is in the medical record,correct,signed and witnessed.
C) withhold preoperative medication until the consent is witnessed.
D) review the procedure and expected outcome with the patient.
Answer: B
Q2) Loss or mishandling of a surgical specimen could be considered negligence and could result in:
A) another surgical procedure.
B) improper specimen analysis.
C) improper specimen preparation.
D) All of the above
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Infection Prevention and Control in the
Perioperative Setting
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The evening before the procedure was scheduled,the central sterile processing department received two complete sets of an orthopedic spine fusion system that contained titanium-implantable instrumentation,four flexible coated retractor blades,and a sterilized internal paper inventory form.The sterilization instructions provided by the vendor representative recommended steam sterilization for the implants,but stated that the flexible coated blade retractors could not be exposed to temperatures higher than 220° F.The appropriate sterilization option for these instruments and devices would be:
A) hydrogen peroxide gas plasma sterilization for everything.
B) steam sterilization for the implant sets and paper inventory form,hydrogen peroxide gas plasma for the retractors,wrapped separately.
C) steam sterilization for the implant sets,hydrogen peroxide gas plasma for the retractors and paper inventory form,wrapped separately.
D) steam sterilization for everything with a shortened dry time.
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Anesthesia
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Sample Questions
Q1) During a hypermetabolic MH crisis,the patient will eventually assume a state of metabolic acidosis.What is the desired drug used to reverse this trend?
A) Mannitol
B) Dopamine
C) Sodium bicarbonate
D) Potassium chloride
Q2) Postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV)is often a side effect of the inhalational anesthetic _ and the analgesic ___.
A) nitrous oxide;morphine
B) desflurane;sublimaze
C) halothane;meperidine
D) desflurane;morphine
Q3) Which statement best explains the mechanism of action of general anesthetic agents?
A) Inhibition of synaptic transmission of nerve impulses
B) Regional depression of the CNS with resultant narcosis
C) Suppression of myoneural and musculoskeletal junctions
D) Analgesia,amnesia,anesthesia,and systemic hyporeflexus
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6
Chapter 5: Positioning the Patient for Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Maria Faulkner is a 92-year-old frail nursing home patient admitted for dehydration,anemia,and respiratory symptoms.She has type 2 diabetes and low albumin levels,is underweight,and continues to smoke cigarettes when she is at home.Mrs.Faulkner is on complete bed rest in a hospital bed with an alternating pressure mattress overlay.She is not able to turn herself in bed and must be assisted to change position.Based on this description of Mrs.Faulkner,which factor classification dominates her vulnerability and risk for injury?
A) Shearing force factors
B) Intrinsic factors
C) Bed rest precaution factors
D) Extrinsic factors
Q2) Select the positioning devices and accessories commonly used for bariatric surgery.
A) Air-filled,roller,or slider transfer device
B) Upper body ramp
C) Elevated padded armboards
D) All of the options are correct
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Chapter 6: Sutures, Needles, and Instruments
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Sample Questions
Q1) The circulating nurse received the trauma call from the emergency department and called sterile supply to assemble the instruments for an abdominal trauma case with possible aortic rupture.When the cart arrived,she saw the vascular set;however,the most important instrument set was missing.What important instrument set was needed for this procedure besides the vascular set?
A) Sternal saw and blades
B) Basic laparotomy set
C) Basic laparoscopy set
D) Minor set
Q2) The ideal suture material is one that has handling characteristics such as:
A) memory.
B) slickness.
C) ease of tying.
D) removable knots.
Q3) The primary use for suture is essentially to:
A) strengthen,re-form,and close tissue.
B) ligate,suture,and close tissue.
C) ligate,strengthen,and stop bleeding.
D) clamp,divide,and attach tissue.
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Surgical Modalities
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Sample Questions
Q1) An endoscope is a diagnostic or therapeutic instrument that enters the body through a:
A) natural orifice.
B) small incision into a body compartment.
C) externalized sinus tract.
D) All of the options are correct.
Q2) The original equipment manufacturer (OEM)instructions that came with the new rigid endoscope system did not recommend a particular sterilization modality;however,high temperatures and ultrasonic cleaning were discouraged and the facility recently removed the ethylene oxide sterilizers from the sterile processing department.The perioperative nurses and surgical technologists in the minimally invasive surgery (MIS)service collaborated on developing a processing procedure for their new equipment.What modality is their best option?
A) Outsource to a facility that uses ethylene oxide or gamma radiation.
B) Sterilize the entire set in the low-temperature plasma sterilization system.
C) Perform high-level disinfection in glutaraldehyde.
D) Steam-sterilize the metal components and soak the nonmetal components in glutaraldehyde.
Q3) Suction,air,water,and light connection adaptors to energy source
Q4) Flexible tube with channels for suction,biopsy,irrigation,light
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Chapter 8: Wound Healing, Dressings, and Drains
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Sample Questions
Q1) Surgical team members have control of many of the factors that have been shown to contribute to SSIs.Which statement below reflects a best practice for surgical scrub/surgical hand asepsis?
A) Do not wear hand or arm jewelry;pin rings and watches to scrub pocket instead.
B) Keep nails short and do not wear artificial nails or nail wraps.
C) Wear home-laundered scrubs only when working in the preop or PACU areas.
D) Wear a surgical mask at all times when colonized with S.aureus or group A streptococcus.
Q2) Samuel Garcia,a 48-year-old tetraplegic with a chronic sacral wound,is scheduled for another wound debridement.What is the purpose of doing a wound debridement on a chronic wound?
A) The debridement will stimulate circulation and promote healing.
B) The debridement will prevent the growth of parasitic maggots and leeches.
C) The debridement will remove dead tissue that could support infection.
D) Debridement creates a nidus that nourishes and supports healing.
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10
Chapter 9: Postoperative Patient Care and Pain Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Daniel Powers,a 32-year-old developmentally delayed male scheduled for dental rehabilitation,became agitated on admission to the preoperative holding unit.In spite of sedation and the calming attention of the nurses and his parents,he was screaming and rapidly turning his head from side to side.He vomited and choked twice before he fell into a light but restless sleep.During the short procedure,the anesthesia provider was aware of rigidity and difficulty with ventilation in Daniel's chest,yet his oxygen saturation was between 96% and 100% throughout the procedure.On extubation,Daniel presented with coughing,wheezing,dyspnea,use of accessory muscles,and tachypnea.Daniel is presenting with probably caused by .
A) aspiration;vomiting
B) bronchospasm;aspiration
C) hypoxia;laryngospasm
D) laryngospasm;traumatic intubation
Q2) Select the appropriate example of physiologic symptoms of pain.
A) A proxy pain rating by someone who knows the patient well
B) Facial grimacing and crying
C) The patient's self-report of pain
D) Physiologic indicators,such as elevated vital signs
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Chapter 10: Gastrointestinal Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Michael Mason has suffered from subsacral pain and swelling for 2 weeks and finally was referred to a colorectal surgeon for care.He is currently in the ambulatory surgical center OR bed positioned in the jackknife position.The perioperative nurse has gently but firmly taped his buttocks laterally to the rails of the OR bed to promote exposure to the surgical site.What procedure is Michael prepared to undergo,based on his symptoms and the surgical preparation?
A) Internal hemorrhoidectomy
B) External hemorrhoidectomy
C) Removal of rectal foreign body
D) Pilonidal cystectomy
Q2) During a laparoscopic colectomy,the scrub person carefully placed the endoscopic electrosurgery instruments on the Mayo stand after inspecting the integrity of the insulation along the shaft.This practice is designed to meet the expectation for the following nursing outcome:The patient will be free from:
A) fluid and electrolyte imbalance.
B) thermal burns and adhesions.
C) impaired tissue integrity.
D) thermal burns and adhesions,and impaired tissue integrity.
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Chapter
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Sample Questions
Q1) While the pancreas' function is carbohydrate metabolism with the production of insulin and digestive enzymes,the spleen's function is primarily ___ with the production of ___.
A) immunologic;leukocytes
B) metabolic;granulocytes
C) anabolic;plasma cells
D) as a blood reservoir;phagocytes
Q2) The liver,pancreas,and spleen share many similarities.Select the statement about these organs that is true.
A) All three are solid organs and very vascular.
B) All three are metabolic organs.
C) All three organs have terminal attachments to the duodenum.
D) All of the options are false.
Q3) The head of the pancreas is fixed to the:
A) spleen.
B) duodenum.
C) stomach.
D) biliary tree
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Chapter 12: Repair of Hernias
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ryan has an indirect hernia that is characterized by a small neck,thin walls,and close attachment to the cord structures.Marc has a hernia with a short,wide neck,and a thick-walled sac.Based on this description,Ryan has a(n)hernia and Marc has a(n)__ hernia.
A) acquired;congenital
B) reducible;nonreducible
C) congenital;acquired
D) pantaloon;sacular
Q2) The mesh-plug open hernia repair technique is indicated for which type(s)of hernias?
A) Femoral hernias
B) Indirect inguinal hernias
C) Direct inguinal hernias
D) All of the options are correct
Q3) Femoral hernias occur more frequently in which group of individuals?
A) Postoperative obese patients
B) Newborns
C) Weight lifters
D) Females
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Gynecologic and Obstetric Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Select the congenital anomaly that best reflects indications for fetal surgery.
A) Imperforate anus
B) Tracheoesophageal fistula
C) Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
D) Nonobstructive uropathy
Q2) During the procedure,a moment of light anesthesia caused Matilda to move slightly.The perioperative nurse prepared to assist while the anesthesia provider titrated drugs to a deeper anesthetic level.What would be the next priority intervention by the perioperative nurse?
A) Document an "awareness under anesthesia" occurrence.
B) Tuck Matilda's arms anatomically at her sides.
C) Reassess padding,protection,and positioning security.
D) Refine the nursing diagnosis to include risk for falls.
Q3) From the list below,select the statement that is true about fallopian tube cancer.
A) Fallopian tube cancer metastasizes to the ovaries and cervix.
B) Fallopian tube cancer is fast-growing in women with genital herpes.
C) Fallopian tube cancer is very rare,with an incidence of less than 1%.
D) Fallopian tube cancer is seen primarily as a metastasis from the small intestine.
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Chapter 14: Genitourinary Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) The adrenal glands lie retroperitoneally beneath the diaphragm,capping the medial aspects of the superior pole of each kidney.The adrenal medulla secretes __ while the adrenal cortex secretes and .
A) epinephrine;steroids and hormones
B) steroids;adrenaline and hormones
C) epinephrine;pituitary-stimulating hormone and adrenaline
D) pituitary hormones;cortisol and norepinephrine
Q2) Although each potential kidney transplant recipient is judged individually as a candidate,which condition from the list below would most likely eliminate a patient as a candidate for kidney transplant?
A) Systemic disease
B) Cardiovascular disease
C) Post-treatment cancer in remission
D) Active cancer
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16
Chapter 15: Thyroid and Parathyroid Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pamela Morris is a 62-year-old woman with a 4-year history of Graves' disease that has not responded to medical therapy.She is scheduled for a subtotal thyroidectomy.What condition,a complication of Graves' disease,is her probable indication for a subtotal thyroidectomy?
A) Tracheal obstruction
B) Diffuse unilateral enlargement of a lobe
C) Hyperthyroidism with cricothyroid compression
D) Autoimmune hypothyroidism
Q2) The patient with hyperthyroidism most likely has received appropriate drug therapy that has returned thyroid hormone levels and metabolic state to normal;however,the perioperative nurse should assess for any symptoms that relate to accelerated metabolism.Select the set of symptoms that is most commonly associated with hyperthyroidism.
A) Atrial fibrillation,anxiety,weight gain,and cold intolerance
B) Tachypnea,dry mouth,systemic pruritus,and heavy menses
C) Fatigue,vision changes,disturbed concentration,and vertigo
D) Increased sweating,insomnia,tremor,and muscle weakness
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Chapter 16: Breast Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Breast screening guidelines are developed and published by the American Cancer Society (ACS)for asymptomatic women of various age and risk groups.Select the statement that best reflects the ACS guidelines for women at high risk for breast cancer.
A) Biannual mammography with two views of each breast and clinical breast exam
B) An individualized screening plan
C) Biannual clinical breast exam,mammography,and bimonthly breast self-exam
D) Annual mammography,ultrasonography,and MRI with CT
Q2) Select the statement that best describes fine needle aspiration of a suspicious breast mass.
A) The aspirate fluid is cytologically examined.
B) The aspirate fluid is histologically examined by frozen section.
C) The aspirate fluid is microscopically examined immediately by the procedural physician.
D) If the aspirate fluid is positive,the excisional biopsy can be done immediately.
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18
Chapter 17: Ophthalmic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) To accommodate near and distant focus,the lens changes shape and focus by relaxation and tightening of the zonular fibers.What physiologic change of the normal aging process is typically corrected with bifocals?
A) Cataracts
B) Presbyopia
C) Glaucoma
D) Astigmatism
Q2) Anesthetic management impacts the success of ophthalmic surgery.Safe ambulatory surgery,especially in certain populations,depends on patient selection,preoperative evaluation,preparation,monitoring,and local anesthesia techniques.Select the patient below that would be an appropriate candidate for general anesthesia,instead of local anesthesia alone.
A) A 78-year-old patient with dementia and claustrophobia
B) A 48-year-old healthy male with mild head tremors
C) A 22-year-old healthy female for a tear duct probing
D) All of the patients are general anesthesia candidates.
Q3) Evisceration
Q4) Exenteration
Q5) Enucleation
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Chapter 18: Otorhinolaryngologic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) During otolaryngologic procedures using local anesthetic,the perioperative nurse plans the environment of care as a quiet,warm,and functional domain of healing and comfort.An important consideration with most otolaryngologic patients identifies their specific _ needs.
A) communication
B) anxiety
C) airway
D) pain
Q2) The salivary glands produce saliva,which serves to moisten the mouth and initiate:
A) antibacterial activity in the mouth.
B) carbohydrate digestion.
C) enzymatic activity on all ingested food.
D) alimentary (GI) tract peristalsis.
Q3) What mouth structure is considered the boundary between the buccal cavity and the lingual cavity?
A) Hard palate
B) Soft palate
C) Teeth
D) Floor of the mouth
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Orthopedic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Paget's disease is a disorder affecting older adults.The bones are weak and poorly constructed.It is characterized by the proliferation of osteoclasts and compensatory increased osteoblastic activity.This degenerative process results in:
A) weak and non supported bone matrix.
B) replacement of cancellous bone with cortical bone.
C) rapid,disorganized bone remodeling.
D) immature bone cells with air spaces.
Q2) Select the true statement about application and operation of the pneumatic tourniquet.
A) The tourniquet cuff should not overlap less than 3 inches or more than 6 inches.
B) Limb exsanguination is optional,using a sterile sequential compression sleeve.
C) In a healthy person,inflation time for an arm should not exceed 30 minutes.
D) Pneumatic tourniquets are contraindicated in patients with bleeding tendencies.
Q3) Layer of elastic,resilient supporting tissue found at the ends of the bones
Q4) Remodeling
Q5) Invasion of osteoblasts
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Chapter 20: Neurosurgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sara Gardiner is the perioperative nurse in the circulating role in OR 2,and is planning for her three neurosurgical procedures for the day.She is explaining the basic processes of the three procedures to the scrub person and double-scrubbed surgical technology student:(1)a VP shunt insertion(2)a reconstructive craniosynostosis for an infant with severe deformity,and (3)exploration of a severe head injury with increased intracranial pressure (ICP)to evacuate a hematoma and possible brain tissue.To give the brain room to swell in the third procedure,the bone flap may need to be sterile-wrapped and stored,for later replacement.Sara asks the student to name the appropriate surgical approach to the brain for each of the procedures.She expects the correct sequence to be:
A) craniectomy,craniotomy,and craniotomy.
B) burr hole,craniectomy,and craniotomy.
C) craniotomy,craniotomy,and craniectomy.
D) Burr hole,craniectomy,and burr hole.
Q2) Identify the dura fold that separates the right and left cerebral hemispheres.
A) Falx cerebri
B) Tentorium cerebelli
C) Falx cerebelli
D) Tentorium cerebri
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery
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Q1) Sherrel Farmer,a 49-year-old post-bariatric surgery patient,is scheduled for a Vaser-Assisted LipoSelection with tumescent infiltration.The tumescent is a solution of lactated Ringer's,lidocaine,and epinephrine.The perioperative nurse is aware that using more than 70 mL/kg of wetting solution for infiltration can lead to fluid overload.Select an appropriate nursing action related to minimizing the risk of tumescent solution overload or disproportion to lipoaspirate.
A) The nurse will monitor the patient for syncope,cough,and bounding pulse.
B) The nurse will warm the tumescent solution and monitor fluid volumes.
C) The nurse will communicate and verify with the surgeon and/or anesthesia provider the total lipoaspirate and volume of wetting solution used.
D) The nurse will titrate the flow rate of the tumescent solution in coordination with aspirate outflow.
Q2) The science of plastic and reconstructive surgery,which means to mold or create form and shape,improves appearance and body image through an understanding of: A) body geometry.
B) the anatomy and biology of tissue.
C) form and function.
D) body image.
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Chapter 22: Thoracic Surgery
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Q1) Roger Waring's mediastinal node biopsies were sent for immediate frozen section and revealed metastasis of the primary tumor of the left upper lobe to the ipsilateral mediastinal nodes.Roger's TNM and staging classification are:
A) Stage II due to the TNM subset of T ,N ,M0.
B) Stage I due to the TNM subset of T ,N0,M0.
C) Stage IV due to the TNM subset of T ,N ,M .
D) Stage IA due to the TNM subset of T ,N ,M .
Q2) The thoracic outlet is a junction bound anteriorly by the manubrium,anterolaterally by the first ribs,and posteriorly by the first thoracic vertebrae and posterior angles of the first ribs of the space.The great vessels of the head,neck,and arm pass through this space.What syndrome is caused by the compression of these structures?
A) Brachial plexus palsy
B) Vertebral tipping syndrome
C) Thoracic outlet syndrome
D) Thoracic plexus compression
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Chapter 23: Vascular Surgery
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Q1) Assessing blood flow through diseased vessels by palpation is often difficult.Assessment of the patient's hemodynamic status during surgery can be further complicated by spasm of the vessel walls,the cool environment of the OR,and alterations in blood pressure caused by hemorrhage.Vascular monitoring during carotid endarterectomy (CEA)is critical to determine the quality of cerebral perfusion.What vascular monitoring device is employed during CEA and what important surgical need is determined by its results?
A) Doppler,need for embolectomy
B) Laser flow cytometry,need for increased IV fluids
C) Electromyogram (EMG),need for muscle relaxants
D) Electroencephalogram (EEG),need for a shunt
Q2) During an open femoropopliteal bypass with graft,an incision is made into the femoral artery with a #11 knife blade and extended with a Potts angulated scissors.What is the proper name of this surgical approach?
A) Potts arterial punch cut
B) Medial vasculotomy
C) Femoral arteriotomy
D) Popliteal arteriostomy
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Chapter 24: Cardiac Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Select the diagnostic test that represents an invasive cardiac study.
A) Resting MUGA
B) Exercise MUGA
C) Cardiac function
D) Electrophysiology studies
Q2) Complete heart block and bradydysrhythmias are the most common indications for pacemaker implantation.A permanent pacemaker (pulse generator and electrodes)initiates atrial or ventricular contraction,or both.What therapy might be used for acute forms of heart block and dysrhythmias that occasionally occur during and after cardiac surgery?
A) Transvenous endocardial stimulation
B) A temporary pacemaker
C) Epicardial cardioversion
D) Resynchronization therapy
Q3) What statements regarding vascular clamps are true? Select all that apply.
A) Vascular clamps are designed to partially occlude blood flow.
B) Vascular clamps are designed to totally occlude blood flow.
C) All vascular clamps are designed to hold vessels securely without trauma.
D) All vascular clamps have similar angles,box locks,ring handles,and ratchets.
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Pediatric Surgery
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Q1) Select all the injuries or conditions that reflect probable child abuse or neglect.
A) Abrasions of both knees
B) Multiple bug bites
C) Severe injuries inconsistent with the history
D) Severe diaper rash with the presence of ammonia burns
Q2) The immature blood-brain barrier and decreased protein binding in infants increase their sensitivity to which group of drugs?
A) Anticholinergics,parasympatholytics
B) Antidysrhythmic agents
C) Opioids and hypnotics
D) Adrenergics
Q3) Young children are predisposed to parasympathetic hypertonia (increased vagal tone),which can be induced by:
A) painful stimuli such as eye surgery or abdominal retraction.
B) anxiety stimuli such as separation from a parent.
C) environmental stimuli such as loud noise or flashes of light.
D) thermal stimuli such as ambient excessive heat or cold.
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Chapter 26: Geriatric Surgery
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Q1) As a person ages digestive secretions decrease,mucus becomes thicker (causing dysphagia),and saliva becomes more alkaline.Decreased peristalsis and gastric motility,resulting in muscle tone loss,will cause delayed stomach emptying.What perioperative concern may be influenced by this age-related digestive condition?
A) Traumatic injuries to the bowel
B) Decreased lean body mass
C) Esophageal reflux
D) Retention of lipophilic drugs
Q2) Changes to the elderly person's skeleton,such as the loss of bone mass,contribute to skeletal instability and make fractures of the hip,rib,distal radius,and vertebrae very common.What special intervention will the perioperative nurse provide,in terms of additional attention and care,in one of the following nursing actions?
A) Document the patient's pain rating before anesthesia induction and positioning.
B) Position the patient using appropriate padding and joint protection devices.
C) Consider the patient's posture and flexibility during the preoperative interview.
D) All of the options are correct.
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Chapter 27: Trauma Surgery
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Q1) When the patient arrives in the ED,the trauma team initiates a primary assessment.This is a logical,orderly process of patient assessment for potential life threats.These assessment activities are based on established protocols for advanced trauma life support (ATLS).The mnemonic "ABCDE" is used,representing assessment of the following:Airway,Breathing,Circulation,Disability,and Exposure.The D and E represent what degree of investigation?
A) D = musculoskeletal impairments;E = environmental issues
B) D = a brief reflex examination;E = extraneous sensory impairments
C) D = history of prior impairments;E = events that contributed to the injury
D) D = a brief neurologic examination;E = exposure to reveal all life-threatening injuries
Q2) The emergency medical services system consists of trained prehospital personnel who arrive at the scene and perform definitive interventions designed to reduce morbidity and mortality.What is the primary role of the prehospital personnel? Select all that apply.
A) Scoop and run to the nearest hospital emergency department while performing ABCs.
B) Deliver the victim to the hospital before the end of the golden hour.
C) Determine the severity of injury and initiate medical treatment.
D) Identify the most appropriate facility to which to transport the victim.
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29
Chapter 28: Interventional Radiology
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Q1) Select the statement that correctly describes the mechanism of action of contrast media.
A) Contrast media are used to enhance visualization of anatomic structures by influencing tissue radiopacity with different concentrations of iodine.
B) A contrast agent works by attenuating (absorbing) the x-ray beam either more than or less than the surrounding tissue.
C) Contrast media radiopacity is related to its iodine concentration.
D) A contrast agent works by the speed of delivery affecting blood flow and hemodilution.
Q2) Embolic materials induce mechanical obstruction within a vessel and formation of thrombus via platelet activation and activation of the patient's clotting mechanism.Select an appropriate clinical indication for an embolic procedure.
A) Inflammation of a vessel wall
B) Carotid artery obstruction
C) Renal stricture
D) Severe hemoptysis
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Q1) Which of the manipulative therapies uses many different hands-on techniques aimed at helping the body heal itself through the manipulation of the soft body tissues?
A) Therapeutic touch manipulation
B) Massage manipulation
C) Osteopathic manipulation
D) Chiropractic manipulation
Q2) Progressive relaxation techniques,biofeedback,meditation,and cognitive-behavioral approaches have a well-documented theoretical basis with supporting scientific evidence.What is the theoretical clinical justification for this relationship categorized as mind-body medicine?
A) Targeted therapies can balance the equality of the mind with the body.
B) The mind has the ability to affect the body.
C) The body has the ability to positively and negatively affect the mind.
D) All of these scientific theories have been supported by high-level research.
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Chapter 30: Workplace Issues and Staff Safety
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Q1) Wet floors are a common hazard causing slips,trips,and falls (STFs).Select a prevention strategy that is a best practice for preventing STFs from spills on wet floors.
A) Transport liquids in covered containers with lids in place.
B) Place bright yellow low-profile pop-up signs in areas where STFs are most likely to occur.
C) Position highly visible yellow absorptive pads in areas where STFs are most likely to occur.
D) Use a dripless,brush-free gel solution for surgical patient skin preps.
Q2) Charlene Majors is an anesthesia provider with an allergy to latex.When she is at work,she always carries an epinephrine autoinjector and a beta-agonist inhaler.What type of latex allergy does Charlene have?
A) Allergic contact dermatitis
B) Irritant contact dermatitis
C) Type I IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction
D) Combined-effect latex allergy
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