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Foundations of Nursing Practice introduces students to the essential concepts and skills fundamental to the nursing profession. Covering topics such as the nursing process, ethical and legal considerations, patient safety, communication, and evidence-based care, this course lays the groundwork for clinical decision-making and compassionate patient-centered care. Emphasis is placed on developing critical thinking, technical proficiency, and professional values, preparing students to effectively support individuals, families, and communities within a dynamic healthcare environment.
Recommended Textbook
Adult Health Nursing 6th Edition by Barbara Christensen
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17 Chapters
676 Verified Questions
676 Flashcards
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34 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23140
Sample Questions
Q1) The thoracic and abdominal cavities are separated by the A) pleura.
B) diaphragm.
C) spinal column.
D) peritoneum.
Answer: B
Q2) The smallest living components in our body are A) cells.
B) organs.
C) electrons.
D) osmosis.
Answer: A
Q3) Tissues that cover the outside of the body and some internal structures are A) connective.
B) epithelial.
C) nerve.
D) muscle.
Answer: B
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sudden chest pain combined with dyspnea, cyanosis, and tachycardia is an indication of
A) hypovolemic shock.
B) dehiscence.
C) atelectasis.
D) pulmonary embolus.
Answer: D
Q2) Two considerations for the older adult surgical patient include (Select the two that apply.)
A) pre- and postoperative teaching.
B) lower morbidity and mortality.
C) quick assessment skills.
D) surgery causes much physiological stress.
Answer: A, D
Q3) Which patients would be at greatest risk during surgery?
A) 78-year-old taking an analgesic agent
B) 43-year-old taking an antihypertensive agent
C) 27-year-old taking an anticoagulant agent
D) 10-year-old taking an antibiotic agent
Answer: C
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43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23142
Sample Questions
Q1) Which may indicate a malignant melanoma in a nevus on a patient's arm?
A) Even coloring of the mole
B) Decrease in size of the mole
C) Irregular border of the mole
D) Symmetry of the mole
Answer: C
Q2) A patient has generalized macular-papular skin eruptions and complains of severe pruritus from contact dermatitis. When the nurse administers his therapeutic bath, it is important to remember that
A) using Burow's solution helps promote healing.
B) rubbing the skin briskly decreases pruritus.
C) allowing 20 to 60 minutes to complete the bath will prevent pruritus.
D) sterilizing all equipment used will prevent pruritus.
Answer: A
Q3) Nursing interventions for treatment of herpes virus infections are:
A) Keep the lesions moist to prevent pain.
B) Apply cold, moist compresses to lesions.
C) Focus on treating symptoms and preventing spread of virus.
D) Cleanse lesions with alcohol.
Answer: C

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Sample Questions
Q1) Which diagnostic exam is used to find pathological abnormalities of the brain?
A) CT scan
B) Nuclear medicine scan
C) MRI
D) Radiograph
Q2) The movement of an extremity away from the midline of the body is called
A) abduction.
B) adduction.
C) flexion.
D) extension.
Q3) A patient, age 44, has chronic osteomyelitis. He should be taught to A) take antibiotics prophylactically.
B) avoid trauma to the affected bone.
C) decrease activity levels.
D) increase dietary intake of calcium and vitamin D.
Q4) Which ethnic group is at a highest risk of developing osteoporosis?
A) African American women
B) Caucasian and Asian women
C) African American men
D) Latino women
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient, age 32, has ulcerative colitis, and his condition is deteriorating. An ileostomy is scheduled. After the procedure, this patient may be at risk for
A) Activity intolerance.
B) Sexual dysfunction.
C) Disturbed body image.
D) Ineffective thermoregulation.
Q2) A NANDA-accepted nursing diagnosis that could be written for the patient who is hemorrhaging and in hypovolemic shock from a bleeding peptic ulcer would include
A) Ineffective tissue perfusion (gastrointestinal).
B) Unilateral neglect.
C) Constipation.
D) Disuse syndrome (gastrointestinal).
Q3) Which nursing intervention would be the highest priority in evaluating a patient with peritonitis from a ruptured appendix?
A) Assessment of severity, location, and duration of pain
B) Assessment of vital signs
C) Preventing wound infection
D) Promoting balanced nutrition
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse realizes that the patient requires additional teaching about an esophagoscopy after the patient states
A) "Right after the test, I want breakfast with black coffee."
B) "The instrument will be put down my throat."
C) "I haven't had anything to eat or drink since 9 PM last night."
D) "My doctor said I could have medicine to relax me before the test."
Q2) The patient, age 56, has cirrhosis of the liver with severe ascites. The nurse is assisting the physician in the procedure to remove this fluid from his abdominal cavity. This procedure is called an
A) abdominal paracephalus.
B) abdominal paracentesis.
C) abdominal paradentium.
D) abdominal perimetrium.
Q3) Esophageal varices can rupture as a result of increases in abdominal venous pressure. Which would increase the abdominal venous pressure? (Select all that apply.)
A) Coughing
B) Swallowing
C) Vomiting
D) Performing the Valsalva maneuver

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Sample Questions
Q1) Many older adults suffer from conditions such as colonic diverticula, hiatal hernia, and ulcerations that can cause occult bleeding. Older adults with these conditions should be observed for
A) leukemia.
B) iron deficiency anemia.
C) sickle cell anemia.
D) polycythemia.
Q2) A patient is to begin taking iron supplements. The nurse evaluates the patient's understanding of the use of this drug. Which indicates that she has an adequate knowledge base?
A) Using antidiarrheal drugs if she has diarrhea
B) Understanding that black stools may occur
C) Checking her gums for bleeding
D) Brushing her teeth with a soft-bristled brush
Q3) If a patient is diagnosed with anemia, how are the tissues and cells affected?
A) More oxygen is able to be distributed in the cells and tissue.
B) More carbon monoxide is rapidly delivered to the cells and tissue.
C) Insufficient amounts of oxygen are delivered to the cells and tissue.
D) The tissue and cells are not affected.
Q4) A sudden reduction in blood volume may lead to _________ shock.
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is admitted with a diagnosis of possible aortic aneurysm. In assessing her, it is most important to monitor her
A) temperature.
B) lung sounds.
C) respirations.
D) blood pressure.
Q2) A 63-year-old patient with an acute myocardial infarction is on a cardiac monitor and begins to show some dysrhythmias. The physician will probably prescribe which intravenous medication?
A) Nitroglycerin
B) Digitalis
C) Lidocaine
D) Amyl nitrite
Q3) Which patient teaching would help to prevent venous stasis? (Select all that apply.)
A) Dangle legs when sitting.
B) Avoid crossing legs at the knee.
C) Elevate legs when lying in bed or sitting.
D) Massage extremities to help maintain blood flow.
E) Wear elastic stockings when ambulating.
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36 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 68-year-old male patient has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). He has a markedly increased need for protein and calories to maintain an adequate nutritional status. To help him get the nutrition he needs, the nurse would encourage him to
A) eat three meals a day.
B) rest 30 minutes before eating.
C) drink fluids only with meals.
D) perform bronchial drainage 30 minutes after eating.
Q2) A patient, age 54, is on postoperative day 2 after undergoing an open cholecystectomy. Immediately after the surgery, she vomited and may have aspirated some emesis. The nurse is concerned that the patient will develop pneumonia. In planning for her care, the nurse suspects the patient may have
A) bacterial pneumonia.
B) aspiration pneumonia.
C) viral pneumonia.
D) atypical pneumonia.
Q3) The _________ are the structures of the lung in which gas exchange occurs.
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Sample Questions
Q1) _________ training involves developing the muscles of the perineum to improve voluntary control over voiding; bladder training may be modified for different problems.
Q2) When a patient on Lasix, a loop diuretic, complains of weakness and irregular pulse, there may be an electrolyte deficiency of A) magnesium.
B) sodium.
C) potassium.
D) calcium.
Q3) A nursing intervention to assist the patient with chronic renal failure (CRF) in learning about available community resources would be a consultation with A) a chaplain.
B) social services.
C) the physician's office.
D) administrative services.
Q4) Aldactone (spironolactone) is classified as a ______________-sparing diuretic.
Q5) Acute ______________ is commonly a result of a preexisting infection.
Q6) Bladder distention may be assessed by palpating above the ___________
Q7) _____________ is a term for severe generalized edema.
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Sample Questions
Q1) A long-term complication of diabetes mellitus is
A) Cushing's disease.
B) renal failure.
C) hypothyroidism.
D) hyperglycemia.
Q2) The three major life-threatening complications postoperatively of a thyroidectomy are: (Select all that apply)
A) Hemorrhaging
B) Seizures
C) Tetany
D) Hypoglycemia
E) Thyroid crisis (storm)
F) SIADH
Q3) Signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia include: (Select all that apply.)
A) irritability.
B) dry mouth.
C) tremors.
D) personality changes.
E) fruity breath.
F) deep respirations.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Postmenopausal women should be instructed to perform breast self-examination (BSE)
A) on the same date of their choice each month.
B) every 3 months.
C) every day, because they are at high risk for breast cancer.
D) whenever they begin to take estrogen supplements.
Q2) Select the interventions that should be performed with caution, in the affected arm, on patients who have undergone a modified radical mastectomy. (Select all that apply.)
A) Vaccinations
B) Taking of blood pressure or samples
C) Insertion of IV line
D) Physical therapy on uninvolved arm
E) Wear watch and jewelry on involved arm
F) Carry purse on involved arm or shoulder
Q3) At what age should a male be taught testicular self-exam (TSE)?
A) 10
B) 13
C) 15
D) 20
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been blind for the past 10 years. He is hospitalized with congestive heart failure (CHF). In the care of a long-term blind individual, it is important to
A) speak loudly to get the patient's attention.
B) schedule a consultation with an occupational therapist to teach activities of daily living.
C) announce when you enter and leave the room.
D) initiate a referral to the Department of Health and Human Services.
Q2) The patient tells the nurse that he is legally blind. This information provides the nurse with which information to use in planning care?
A) No vision enhancement techniques would be appropriate for this patient, because he is totally blind.
B) This patient probably has some light perception, but no usable vision.
C) This patient has some usable vision, which enables him to function at an acceptable level.
D) Further questioning is needed to determine how this patient's visual impairment affects his normal functioning.
Q3) _____________ is a medical term for blurred vision.
Q4) Schiƶtz tonometry is a diagnostic test for __________.
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient, age 23, has a comminuted fracture of T6-T7. She has a spinal cord injury resulting in paraplegia. She manifests signs and symptoms of autonomic dysreflexia, which is frequently triggered by A) bladder distention.
B) nausea.
C) food allergies.
D) electrolyte imbalance.
Q2) A 39-year-old mother of four has a 6-year history of multiple sclerosis. During planning, the nurse remembers this is a degenerative neurological disease that A) occurs most often in tropical climates.
B) occurs most often in the older adult.
C) has classic signs and symptoms that are readily recognized. D) results from demyelination of the nerve sheath.
Q3) The earliest sign of increased intracranial pressure is A) headache.
B) dilated pupil.
C) decreasing level of consciousness.
D) diplopia (double vision).
Q4) The avoidance of ___________ __________ decreases the risk for lung cancer.
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32 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23154
Sample Questions
Q1) The LPN/LVN has arrived at the patient's bedside with a unit of packed cells to be connected to an IV that is infusing. When the RN arrives, what is the first thing the nurses must do?
A) Do the checks to ensure that the donor and recipient numbers match according to policy.
B) Leave the packed cells at the bedside until the saline is infused.
C) Immediately hang the packed cells to get the infusion started.
D) Check the patients ID bracelet and then hang the packed cells.
Q2) A patient has been admitted with pernicious anemia and has asked the nurse to tell him what type of disorder pernicious anemia is. The nurse tells him that it is an immune disorder that results from failures of the tolerance to one's "self." Responding immunologically to one's own antigens is called a(n)
A) immunodeficiency disorder.
B) hypersensitivity disorder.
C) desensitization disorder.
D) autoimmune disorder.
Q3) The purpose of immunotherapy is _____________.
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30 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse clarifies that the least likely method for children to contract AIDS is
A) during intrauterine life with an HIV-positive mother.
B) during the birth process of an HIV-positive mother.
C) from other children who have AIDS.
D) from receiving transfusions contaminated with the HIV virus.
Q2) The HIV patient asks the nurse about what to expect in terms of disease progression. The nurse tells this patient that although the disease can vary greatly among individuals, the usual pattern of progression includes
A) viremia, clinical latency, opportunistic diseases, and death.
B) asymptomatic phase, clinical latency, ARC, and AIDS.
C) acute retroviral syndrome, early infection, early symptomatic disease, and AIDS.
D) transitional viral syndrome, inactive disease, early symptomatic infection, and opportunistic diseases.
Q3) ______________ is a type of sexual option classified as "no risk" for a person to become infected with HIV virus.
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient, age 63, has terminal cancer of the liver and is cared for by his wife at home. His abdominal pain has become increasingly severe, and he now says it is intense most of the time. The nurse recognizes that teaching regarding pain management has been effective based on which measure implemented by this patient?
A) Limiting the use of opiate analgesics to prevent addiction
B) Using analgesics only when the pain becomes more than he can tolerate
C) Taking analgesics around the clock on a regular schedule, using additional doses for breakthrough pain
D) Resigning himself to the fact that pain is an inevitable consequence of cancer
Q2) A patient, age 56, has been advised that his prostate-specific antigen (PSA) level is elevated. The physician then performed a digital rectal examination (DRE). Which procedure is indicated next?
A) CA-125 test
B) Transrectal ultrasound
C) Needle biopsy of the prostate
D) MRI
Q3) Men over age 50 should have annual _________ tests and rectal examinations.
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