Foundations of Nursing
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
Foundations of Nursing introduces students to the core concepts, theories, and skills essential for professional nursing practice. The course covers the historical development of nursing, ethical and legal considerations, patient safety, and the nursing process. Emphasis is placed on holistic care, communication, critical thinking, and the development of fundamental clinical skills such as assessment, vital signs measurement, infection control, and basic patient care techniques. Through a combination of classroom instruction, simulation, and hands-on practice, students gain a strong knowledge base and practical competence to begin their journey in the nursing profession.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations of Nursing 3rd Edition by Lois White
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61 Chapters
2346 Verified Questions
2346 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Student Nurse Skills for Success
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these statements BEST describes the purpose of testing in a nursing program?
A)to weed out students who are unsuited for nursing
B)to demonstrate what a good nurse the student will be
C)to measure what the students know and indicate what still needs to learned
D)to obtain grades that represent what the student knows about nursing
Answer: C
Q2) The nursing student received a failing score on the first exam.The student develops a plan to increase the score of the next exam by including which of the following activities?
(Select all that apply. )
A)understand each missed question and review related content
B)move on to the next area of content
C)wait until peers take the test and ask what was on it
D)stay home to have extra study time instead of attending class
E)attend test reviews
F)look for patterns among the mistakes
Answer: A,E,F
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3
Chapter 2: Holistic Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nursing often uses theories as a foundation for providing care.One such theory of behavioral motivation that is based on five related levels is known as:
A)Dossey's interrelated holistic health plan
B)Selye's stress-adaptation model
C)Maslow's hierarchy of needs
D)WHO's concept of health
Answer: C
Q2) The ability to appreciate the needs of others and to care about one's environment and its inhabitants describes which type of wellness?
A)intellectual
B)psychological
C)sociocultural
D)spiritual
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Nursing History, Education, and Organizations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these concepts used in current nursing practice was introduced by Nightingale?
A)encouraging involvement of family and friends in a client's care
B)maintaining confidentiality
C)organizing a methodical system of nursing administration
D)organizing a system of differentiated nursing practice
Answer: B
Q2) Isabel Hampton Robb founded the Superintendents' Society,which formed the basis for which current nursing organizations?
A)Holistic Health Nursing Association and Canadian Nurses Association
B)American Nurses Association and National League for Nursing
C)Association of Public Health Nurses and National Student Nurses Association
D)American Academy of Nursing and Council for Collegiate Education in Nursing
Answer: C
Q3) In which civilization were hospitals first established?
A)Babylonian and Assyrian civilizations
B)ancient Greece civilization
C)Roman civilization of the Roman Empire
D)European civilization of the Middle Ages
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Legal and Ethical Responsibilities
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does malpractice differ from negligence?
A)Malpractice occurs only when someone is learning to do something new or "practicing" a new skill.
B)Malpractice is defined by the state board of nursing.
C)Negligence refers specifically to the duties and responsibilities of the professional.
D)Only professionals can be accused of malpractice.
Q2) Prior to a nurse obtaining a signature for informed consent,responsibilities would include verification that the client:
A)was not coerced into signing the form
B)can read and write
C)has a family member witness the signature
D)clearly understands the things discussed with the doctor
Q3) Which term refers to a situation in which there is not an obvious right or wrong choice?
A)confusion
B)ethical dilemma
C)material principle of justice
D)values clarification
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Chapter 5: The Health Care Delivery System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Children's Health Insurance Program was created in 1997 for what purpose?
A)to assist immigrant and indigent families in obtaining Medicaid coverage for their children
B)to educate the public on the need for affordable insurance for children
C)to establish minimum guidelines for children's coverage
D)to provide health care to uninsured children whose families earn too little to purchase health insurance but too much to qualify for Medicaid
Q2) When a client participates in a prepaid health plan that provides primary health care services for a preset fee and that focuses on cost-effective treatment measures,this is considered to be:
A)an exclusive provider organization
B)a health maintenance organization
C)an independent practice
D)a preferred provider organization
Q3) Public health includes services such as prenatal care,immunizations,and:
A)primary care
B)discharge planning
C)preadmission interviews
D)environmental concerns
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Arenas of Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following activities would be classified as an instrumental activity of daily living (IADL)?
A)dressing
B)driving a car
C)mobility
D)toileting
Q2) The following processes assure the health care consumer that a facility or agency meets minimal standards of care.Which process indicates additional confirmation of quality and higher-than-minimum standards in the delivery of care?
A)accreditation
B)approval
C)certification
D)licensure
Q3) An LP/VN who is considering work in a hospice should know that a primary feature of this care arena is its:
A)recognition that dying is a normal process
B)focus on providing aggressive end-of-life care
C)physician-dominated environment
D)strong staff development program
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Communication
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement demonstrates appropriate communication techniques by the student nurse in maintaining a therapeutic relationship with the client?
A)"I need to ask you a lot of questions about your health so that I can complete my paperwork."
B)"I want you to use your incentive spirometer at least Q2H while awake,to deep breath and cough.You can call me if you need any help."
C)"I'll need to get a blood sample from your finger,in order to check the amount of sugar in your blood."
D)"I'm wondering if you knew that your doctor had scheduled you for a test tomorrow? You don't have any questions about the procedure,do you?"
Q2) The nurse is preparing to administer a booster shot to a young boy who appears to be afraid of injections and says,"Boys aren't supposed to cry!" Which barrier to communication does this situation illustrate?
A)belittling
B)changing the subject
C)clichés
D)stereotyping
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Chapter 8: Client Teaching
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a client can verbalize a medication schedule and need for a return appointment for follow-up with the health care provider,learning has occurred in which domain?
A)affective
B)cognitive
C)reflective
D)psychomotor
Q2) Which of these phrases BEST describes learning?
A)absorbing facts and concepts
B)sharing information with others
C)behavior change resulting from assimilation of information
D)acquisition of knowledge
Q3) Which of these strategies would BEST assist the nurse in evaluating client learning?
A)giving the client a written test about the content covered
B)requesting a peer to give feedback about the teaching session
C)asking the client questions during and after the session
D)sending a written follow-up questionnaire to the client after discharge
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Chapter 9: Nursing Processdocumentationinformatics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is unable to obtain information from the client and knows the BEST secondary source of client information is which of the following?
A)client
B)client records
C)close friends
D)neighbors
Q2) The Joint Commission now requires which of the following to be documented in the client record?
A)evidence of informed consent to participate in the plan of care
B)the process by which the plan of care is developed
C)an individualized plan of care for the client
D)the number of health care professionals who participated in development of the care plan
Q3) Which of the following statements could be included in a definition of nursing diagnosis?
A)directly derived from pathological changes
B)directly derived from client responses
C)highly dependent on diagnostic test results
D)purpose is to remove or modify the cause of the disease
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Chapter 10: Life Span Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Developmental characteristics of an older adult client include:
A)decreased capacity for long-term recall
B)maintenance of physical strength
C)decreased sense of worth
D)potential for social isolation
Q2) During the preadolescence stage,the child will experience hormonal changes that result in the onset of:
A)adolescence
B)maturation
C)menarche
D)puberty
Q3) Which of these statements about Kohlberg's six stages of moral development is TRUE?
A)Each state builds upon the previous stage and forms the foundation for the next one.
B)Moral development develops before cognitive development.
C)Moral development in the years from age 9 to 13 focuses on avoiding punishment.
D)By age 50,most persons have achieved their highest level of moral development.
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Chapter 11: Cultural Considerations
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Sample Questions
Q1) The imposition of the rules,modes,and ideals of one group on another group is called:
A)acculturation
B)cultural diversity
C)oppression
D)stereotyping
Q2) Which of the following statements about religious support systems in the health care setting is TRUE?
A)They may not recognize the client's spiritual needs.
B)They are part of the client's health care team.
C)They consist exclusively of ministers,priests,and rabbis.
D)They provide religious freedom for the client.
Q3) The nurse is caring for a 12-year-old Asian American boy previously treated by an herbalist using herbs,soups,and cupping.The nurse observes regular round bruises over several parts of his body.What action should the nurse take?
A)Immediately report the suspected abuse to the supervisor.
B)Question the child to ascertain where the marks had been obtained.
C)Quietly ask the child's parents if the child has recently been injured.
D)Confirm that the herbalist made the marks during treatment.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Stress, Adaptation, and Anxiety
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Sample Questions
Q1) Health problems considered to be stress-related include conditions such as asthma,psoriasis,headache,and:
A)gastritis
B)arthritis
C)urinary tract infection
D)cholecystitis
Q2) What happens when a person uses all of his or her adaptive energy?
A)The body defends itself through the fight-or-flight response.
B)Stress-avoidance measures are evoked.
C)Illness,disease,or even death may occur.
D)Unconscious operations begin to defend the mind from anxiety.
Q3) The student nurse has a test scheduled for next week and is anxious to do well.Thus the student nurse spends many hours studying for the test.Which of these terms BEST describes this situation?
A)catharsis
B)distress
C)eustress
D)internal stress
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Chapter 13: Loss, Grief, and Death
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Q1) A sense of loss that can be felt by the individual but is not evident to others represents what kind of loss?
A)tangible
B)intangible
C)perceived
D)anticipated
Q2) Immediately after a client's death and before the body is moved to the mortuary,which of these actions should the nurse take?
A)Obtain permission for an autopsy.
B)Cancel arrangements for hospice care.
C)Administer palliative care.
D)Give postmortem care.
Q3) An older adult is no longer able to maintain independent living and relocates to an assisted-living facility.What type of loss does this represent?
A)aspect of self
B)significant other
C)external object
D)familiar environment
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Chapter 14: Wellness Concepts
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Sample Questions
Q1) Over which factors affecting health does the individual have no control?
A)environmental influences
B)genetics and human biology
C)health care
D)personal behavior
Q2) What is the leading cause of death in the United States that can be controlled by controlling risk factors?
A)heart disease
B)AIDS
C)suicide
D)kidney disease
Q3) Which of the following statements about spiritual wellness is TRUE?
A)People who regularly attend religious services live no longer than those who do not.
B)The spiritually happy person has optimism,faith,and high self-esteem.
C)The spiritually well person associates primarily with like-minded persons.
D)Spiritual wellness can overcome deficits in other areas of wellness.
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Chapter 15: Self-Concept
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a nursing intervention to promote a client's positive self-concept?
A)Listen to the client's self description.
B)Maintain realistic goals.
C)Refrain for taking risks.
D)Involve client in decision making.
Q2) According to Erik Erikson,which of the following statements is TRUE?
A)Infants need to develop a sense of focus.
B)Toddlers develop a sense of guilt if their task is not mastered.
C)Preschoolers actively explore their own body.
D)School-age children do not seek the approval of others.
Q3) When assessing the client's self-concept,body image,or role performance,the nurse's priority would be which of the following? (Select all that apply. )
A)nonverbal actions
B)poor hygiene
C)excessive grooming
D)interactions with others
E)withdrawal
F)lack of appetite
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Spirituality
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Sample Questions
Q1) Providing spiritual care to a client requires the nurse to have a comfort level with this type of care and:
A)the use of touch
B)conscientious thought and personal reflection
C)knowledge of religions
D)prior spiritual experiences
Q2) Which organization's code of ethics states the ethical responsibility for providing spiritual care?
A)The Joint Commission
B)American Association of Colleges of Nursing
C)American Nurses Association
D)North American Nursing Diagnosis Association
Q3) A client has a terminal diagnosis and is crying while holding a rosary.Which of the following would be the MOST appropriate nursing intervention?
A)Notify the family and the client clergy of the change in the client.
B)Provide distractive activities.
C)Administer antianxiety medication as ordered by physician.
D)Provide quiet,uninterrupted time.
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18
Chapter 17: Complementary Alternative Therapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nonnutritive,physiologically active compounds that are present in fruits such as cantaloupe,oranges and other citruses,grapes,strawberries,raspberries,and cherries,and in vegetables such as onions,garlic,carrots,sweet potatoes,squash,and pumpkin are known as:
A)antioxidants
B)free radicals
C)herbs
D)phytochemicals
Q2) Which of the following statements about therapeutic massage is TRUE?
A)A back rub administered by a nurse in the hospital is not considered to be therapeutic massage.
B)Localized massage should be considered for clients with varicose veins,phlebitis,or thrombus.
C)Many states do not have licensing requirements for massage practitioners.
D)Massage should be used with caution in clients with certain illnesses and disease processes in which increased circulation may be harmful.
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Chapter 18: Basic Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) The body requires a certain amount of energy needed to maintain functions such as circulation and respiration.This is an example of:
A)anabolism
B)basal metabolism
C)base caloric requirement
D)metabolic rate
Q2) A vegan client who avoids all animal proteins,including dairy products and eggs,may have deficiencies of:
A)vitamins A and D
B)vitamins B complex and C
C)iron
D)magnesium
Q3) In addition to age,height,and weight,a client's nutritional assessment should include which of these factors?
A)overall health status
B)cultural and family influences
C)use of over-the-counter medications
D)identification of the person responsible for food preparation
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Chapter 19: Rest and Sleep
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a person's sleep cycle is broken,which of the following occurs?
A)A new sleep cycle starts with non-rapid eye movement (NREM)sleep.
B)A new sleep cycle starts with rapid eye movement (REM)sleep.
C)The new sleep cycle involves more vivid dreaming.
D)The new sleep cycle is more restorative than the one that was interrupted.
Q2) A client who has been experiencing sleep disturbance should be encouraged to:
A)take a 1-hour nap at midday
B)sleep whenever possible
C)go to bed as early as possible
D)use bedtime rituals consistently
Q3) When a client is experiencing sleep deprivation,which of these symptoms can occur?
A)irritability and confusion
B)increased reflexes and snoring
C)sleep talking and periodic limb movements
D)sleepwalking and daytime sleep attacks
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Chapter 20: Safety-Hygiene
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Sample Questions
Q1) To reduce an adult client's risk of falling,which of these actions should the nurse take?
A)Keep the bed locked in the upright position with the side rails up.
B)Keep the lighting dim.
C)Place the client's personal belongings and call light within easy reach.
D)Remove walkers and wheelchairs from bedside.
Q2) When a client is using oxygen,the nurse should ensure which of the following?
A)Portable radios are placed on the bedside table.
B)Cotton or acrylic blankets are used on the client's bed.
C)Use of perfumes or deodorants is limited.
D)The client takes tub baths.
Q3) Which of these nursing activities can protect the nurse from radiation exposure?
A)washing hands before applying gloves
B)wearing fluid-repellant cover gowns
C)covering the client with a lead apron
D)reducing the amount of time spent in client contact
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Chapter 21: Infection Controlasepsis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these statements about bacteria is TRUE?
A)Bacteria are found in selective environments.
B)Most bacteria are harmful and cause disease.
C)The optimal temperature for bacterial growth is 2 degrees above normal body temperature.
D)Some forms of bacteria produce spores.
Q2) Which of these terms refers to microorganisms that are always present but usually not harmful to clients?
A)pathogens
B)protozoa
C)resident flora
D)transient flora
Q3) Which of these factors affects the virulence of a pathogen?
A)ability to bypass healthy cells
B)amount available to produce disease
C)ability to evade the attack of white blood cells
D)strength of resistance to healthy cells
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23
Chapter 22: Standard Precautions and Isolation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is providing morning care to a client whose infected wound must be redressed.Which of these actions is correct?
A)Don clean gloves and change them between the morning care and dressing change.
B)Don clean gloves,remove them after morning care,wash hands,and apply new gloves for the dressing change.
C)Wash hands and wear one pair of clean gloves for all client's care.
D)Wear clean gloves for morning care and sterile gloves for the dressing change.
Q2) A client who has a major abscess on the thigh is on isolation precautions in a private room after surgical debridement.The physician changes the dressing each day.What barrier precautions should the nurse wear when providing care to this client?
A)an N-95 respirator and gloves
B)eye protection and a face mask
C)gloves and a gown,using antimicrobial-agent hand hygiene after glove removal
D)a gown only
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Chapter 23: Bioterrorism
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Sample Questions
Q1) The community health nurse is presenting a teaching session about anthrax (Bacillus anthracis)and terrorism.The nurse includes which of the following as routes of transmission for anthrax (Bacillus anthracis)? (Select all that apply. )
A)skin
B)sexual contact with an infected person
C)gastrointestinal tract
D)direct contact with an infected person
E)inhalation
Q2) The nurse is aware that the extent of the injury from a chemical warfare agent depends on the chemical used and:
A)the amount used and time exposed to the chemical
B)the amount used and the route of exposure to the chemical
C)the time exposed to the chemical and the route of exposure to the chemical
D)the time exposed to the chemical and if assistance is available
Q3) Which of the following are muscarinic effects of sarin exposure?
A)urinary and fecal incontinence,tachycardia,bronchial restriction
B)vomiting,tachycardia,diarrhea
C)abdominal cramping,hypertension,bradycardia
D)conjunctivitis,bradycardia,blurred vision
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) The movement of a solute from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration until equilibrium is reached is called:
A)active transport
B)diffusion
C)filtration
D)osmosis
Q2) Compounds that decompose into ions in water are called:
A)isotopes
B)atoms
C)molecules
D)electrolytes
Q3) The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of pneumonia.The client's arterial blood gas results indicate a pH of 7.32 and a PCO of 32 mmHg.The nurse determines that these results indicate which of the following condition?
A)metabolic acidosis
B)metabolic alkalosis
C)respiratory alkalosis
D)respiratory acidosis
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26
Chapter 25: Medication Administration and IV Therapy
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Q1) When administering medications,a nurse must know a client's medical history and pharmacokinetics of prescribed medications because MOST drugs are metabolized in the:
A)colon
B)kidneys
C)liver
D)lungs
Q2) The Z-track IM technique can be used for administration of medication into which of these sites?
A)vastus lateralis
B)deltoid
C)ventrogluteal and dorsogluteal muscles
D)posterior thigh
Q3) Before delivering a drug through an enteral tube,it is MOST important for the nurse to do which of the following?
A)Assess the client's bowel sounds.
B)Check the tube patency.
C)Check the tube placement.
D)Instill 5 mL of water to rinse the tube.
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Chapter 26: Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client's pulse pressure should be between how many mmHg?
A)10 and 20
B)30 and 40
C)50 and 60
D)70 and 80
Q2) When assessing the client's abdomen,a nurse hears high-pitched,loud,and rushing sounds with and without a stethoscope.These sounds are called:
A)borborygmi
B)dullness
C)flatness
D)tympany
Q3) A client is admitted with third-degree burns over the front and back upper half of the body.When conducting a nursing physical examination of the client,the nurse must assess blood pressure at which artery?
A)dorsalis pedis
B)popliteal
C)posterior tibial
D)radial
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Chapter 27: Pain Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) In providing pain medication for the postoperative client,what is the preferred route of administration when the client is NPO
A)epidural
B)intramuscular
C)intravenous
D)oral
Q2) According to The Joint Commission,which of these statements about pain and its management is TRUE?
A)Clients are assumed to experience some degree of pain at all times.
B)Staff must take special courses to be competent in pain management.
C)Pain assessment is considered to be the "fifth" vital sign.
D)There must be evidence that the least expensive,most effective pain medications are used.
Q3) Which of the following may occur as a side effect when administering opiates?
A)anxiety
B)diarrhea
C)palpitations
D)respiratory depression
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29
Chapter 28: Diagnostic Tests
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client is scheduled for a thoracentesis.Which of the following would be important information to include in your teaching plan for this client?
A)Explain that the procedure will not hurt,and she won't remember any of it.
B)Caution her that she must not move or cough for 6 hours after the procedure.
C)Explain that she will be positioned sitting on the edge of the bed with her arms and head on the bedside table.
D)Explain to her that the needle will be left in place for 24 hours.
Q2) Prior to scheduling X-rays for a client,the nurse must:
A)determine the number and type of previous X-rays
B)determine the client's previous exposure to lead
C)be sure the client is fasting
D)question the client about the possibility of pregnancy
Q3) What does urine specific gravity measure?
A)acidity or alkalinity of urine
B)actual weight of urine in g/mL
C)number of solutes in a solution
D)presence or absence of bacteria in the urine
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Chapter 29: Basic Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is ambulating a client who suddenly feels faint and starts to fall.Which of these actions should the nurse take FIRST?
A)Check the client's blood pressure.
B)Call for help.
C)Ease the client to the floor.
D)Hold the client upright until a chair is available.
Q2) To administer a large-volume enema to a client,the nurse should place the client in which of these positions?
A)position of comfort for the client
B)prone,with legs extended
C)left lateral with right leg sharply flexed
D)right lateral with left leg sharply flexed
Q3) When a male client is unable to shave himself,the nurse should prepare to shave the client by first:
A)applying shaving cream
B)placing a warm,wet washcloth over the face
C)using short,firm strokes to begin
D)pulling the skin taut
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Chapter 30: Intermediate Procedures
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62 Verified Questions
62 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44562
Sample Questions
Q1) A client who experienced respiratory distress had a tracheostomy performed 2 hours ago.The nurse must use which of these approaches when caring for the tracheostomy?
A)clean technique
B)sterile technique
C)clean technique to remove the cannula and sterile technique to suction it
D)client self-care technique
Q2) While a nurse is pouring a cleansing solution into a container on a sterile field,some of the solution splashes over the side of the container.This field is now considered to be:
A)sterile
B)medically aseptic
C)surgically aseptic
D)contaminated
Q3) When administering a medication to a client,which of these actions should the nurse take to correctly identify the client?
A)Read the name on the door of the room where the client is sitting.
B)Read the client's name bracelet.
C)Ask the client to repeat his or her name.
D)Read the client's name bracelet,and ask the client to repeat his or her name.
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Chapter 31: Advanced Procedures
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44563
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is to start an IV solution for a client.After cleansing the site selected,the nurse applies a tourniquet and inserts the IV catheter needle,but there is no blood return in the flashback chamber.Which of these actions should the nurse take?
A)Remove the catheter needle,and attempt reinsertion at another site within the cleansed area.
B)Remove the catheter needle,discard the catheter,select another site,and use a new IV catheter.
C)Move the catheter needle around in the selected vein until blood appears in the chamber.
D)Remove the catheter needle,bandage the area,and let the client rest for at least 30 minutes;then attempt reinsertion.
Q2) A nurse is preparing to draw blood from a client.Where should the tourniquet be applied?
A)2 inches above the venipuncture site
B)3 to 4 inches above the venipuncture site
C)5 inches above the venipuncture site
D)6 to 7 inches above the venipuncture site
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Chapter 32: Anesthesia
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44564
Sample Questions
Q1) When a client is to have anesthesia administered,the nurse must ensure which of the following?
A)Informed consent is obtained prior to its initiation.
B)A sedative is administered prior to its initiation.
C)Signed consent for a surgical procedure gives implied consent for anesthesia.
D)The client has verbally agreed to the procedure.
Q2) Before surgery the nurse would do which of the following?
A)Administer preoperative medications as ordered.
B)Document what the client ate for dinner the night before.
C)Give the client water up until the time of surgery.
D)See that the client's family is available.
Q3) The client has received an anesthetic injected deeper into the body.The nurse is aware that toxicity is an infrequent complication of this type of anesthesia:
A)epidural anesthesia
B)local anesthesia
C)nerve block
D)spinal anesthesia
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Chapter 33: Surgery
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44565
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a client about to undergo surgery.A major nursing role related to preoperative physiologic assessment and diagnostic tests is to:
A)ensure the tests ordered by the health care provider have been performed
B)inform the client and family of test results
C)notify the surgeon that tests have been completed
D)make the client's family comfortable while tests are performed
Q2) For a client who had a craniotomy,postoperative nursing care would give priority to which of these actions?
A)assessing respiratory function on a regular schedule
B)checking pupillary reactions
C)observing for changes in vital signs
D)using the Trendelenburg position immediately if shock develops
Q3) Before beginning to implement preoperative medical orders for a surgical client,it is MOST important that the nurse:
A)ask the visitors to leave the client's room
B)be sure that the surgical consent form has been signed
C)complete the preoperative checklist
D)verify the identity of the client verbally and by viewing the name band
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Chapter 34: Oncology
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64 Verified Questions
64 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44566
Sample Questions
Q1) Nursing care of a client receiving internal radiation would include which of these approaches?
A)having one primary nurse care for the client
B)having the client perform personal care activities without assistance
C)limiting time of exposure to the client
D)wearing gown and gloves when in the client's room
Q2) The nurse is monitoring a client receiving intravenous (IV)chemotherapy.The nurse knows that the treatment would be discontinued if which sign appears?
A)blood return in the tubing
B)itching at the infusion site
C)client anxiety
D)pain or swelling at the infusion site
Q3) A nurse is providing education to a client receiving external radiation.The nurse acknowledges that the client needs further education if the client states the need to:
A)avoid exposure to sunlight
B)wash the skin with a mild soap and pat dry
C)apply pressure on the radiated area to prevent bleeding
D)eat a high-protein diet
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36
Chapter 35: Respiratory System
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74 Verified Questions
74 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44567
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following may predispose an individual to developing chronic bronchitis?
A)cigarette smoking
B)alcoholism
C)exposure to cold,damp air
D)heredity
Q2) Pharmacological treatment of active TB consists of:
A)a 6-week regime of isoniazid,rifampin,and pyrazinamide
B)a 6-month regime of isoniazid,rifampin,and pyrazinamide
C)intravenous (IV)antibiotics and isolation for a period of 2 weeks
D)a combination of IV and oral antibiotics for a period of 1 to 2 weeks
Q3) Which of these terms describes an insufficient amount of oxygen in the blood?
A)acrocyanosis
B)anoxia
C)cyanosis
D)hypoxemia
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Chapter 36: Cardiovascular System
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61 Verified Questions
61 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44568
Sample Questions
Q1) Treatment of the client with ventricular fibrillation (VF)requires which of these measures?
A)a precordial thump
B)administration of lidocaine hydrochloride
C)CPR and immediate defibrillation
D)digoxin administration
Q2) The main goal of treatment for a client who has rheumatic fever is to:
A)alter electrical conduction within the heart
B)prepare for cardiac rehabilitation
C)prevent spread to others in the family
D)treat the inflammation
Q3) Which of the following is a primary nursing goal when obtaining a health history from a client?
A)to determine why the client continues to participate in activities that are unhealthy
B)to incorporate the family into the client's care
C)to obtain psychosocial information about the client and family
D)to identify present and potential health problems
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Chapter 37: Hematologic and Lymphatic Systems
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49 Verified Questions
49 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44569
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these statements about white blood cells (WBCs)is TRUE?
A)They are responsible for the exchange of O2 and CO2.
B)They are active in the clotting mechanism of the body.
C)They are produced by the liver according to the demand of the body.
D)They are responsible for fighting infection and assisting with immunity.
Q2) The nurse can expect the superficial lymph nodes MOST easily be palpated:
A)when semilunar valves become blocked
B)at any time
C)when they are at rest
D)when they become infected and swollen
Q3) Functions of the lymph system include:
A)absorbing carcinogenic substances
B)assisting with immunity
C)controlling fluid balance
D)producing T cells
Q4) The nurse would anticipate medical treatment of DIC,which includes:
A)administration of antibiotics
B)administration of platelets and packed red cells
C)phlebotomy
D)chemotherapy
Page 39
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Chapter 38: Gastrointestinal System
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44570
Sample Questions
Q1) A postoperative client has been receiving narcotic analgesics every 4 hours for incisional pain for 2 days and has now developed severe constipation.An enema has been prescribed by the health care provider.Client education about preventing constipation should emphasize that enemas and laxatives are not recommended for long-term use,because they can:
A)cause fluid and electrolyte imbalances
B)interrupt normal bowel function
C)remove normal bowel flora and cause infections
D)traumatize the intestinal lining
Q2) A client who has diverticulitis should be instructed to follow which of these prescribed diets when the acute episode is resolved?
A)bland,low residue
B)clear liquids
C)high fiber
D)high protein
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Chapter 39: Urinary System
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48 Verified Questions
48 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44571
Sample Questions
Q1) What appearance should the returned dialysate from a client's manual peritoneal dialysis session have?
A)clear and white
B)clear and light yellow
C)cloudy and white
D)cloudy and dark yellow
Q2) A 60-year-old female client states that whenever she coughs,sneezes,or laughs there is leakage of urine.The nurse explains to the client that the incontinence this client experiencing is:
A)overflow
B)stress
C)total
D)urge
Q3) Extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy (ESWL)is administered to a client to treat urolithiasis.Which of these aspects should the client anticipate following this treatment?
A)IV fluids for 72 hours
B)remaining NPO for 12 hours
C)normal skin appearance
D)bloody urine for 1 to 2 days
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Chapter 40: Musculoskeletal System
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44572
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these medications will be prescribed to relieve pain for the client who has osteoarthritis?
A)aspirin or NSAIDs
B)steroids
C)narcotics
D)muscle relaxants
Q2) A client who sustained a fractured femur from an auto accident is placed in traction.The client complains of severe pain,dyspnea,and restlessness,and the nurse's assessment indicates cyanosis,shock,and petechiae over the neck,upper arms,and chest.The nurse should suspect the client has developed which fracture complication?
A)compartment syndrome
B)fat embolism
C)infection
D)nonunion
Q3) For a client who has a fractured tibia,where will a cast be applied?
A)above the ankle to below the knee
B)to the ankle and knee
C)to the ankle,knee,and hip
D)to the knee and hip
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Page 42
Chapter 41: Neurological System
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44573
Sample Questions
Q1) A client who has been exhibiting flexion posturing after a stroke 2 days ago develops extension posturing.The nurse should recognize that this change indicates the client's condition is:
A)worsening
B)unchanged
C)improving
D)an expected progression of stroke
Q2) What is the primary method of controlling seizures?
A)electric shock therapy
B)pharmacological therapy
C)no primary method
D)surgical intervention
Q3) Which of the following nursing diagnoses would be MOST appropriate for a client with Guillain-Barré syndrome?
A)Ineffective breathing pattern related to loss of respiratory muscle function
B)Risk for injury related to inability to perceive danger in the environment,confusion,impaired judgment,and weakness
C)Pain related to pressure on the brain
D)Altered thought processes related to neuron degeneration and sleep deprivation
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Page 43
Chapter 42: Sensory System
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57 Verified Questions
57 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44574
Sample Questions
Q1) The main objective of the medical management of glaucoma is to:
A)correct visual abnormalities
B)prevent postsurgical infection
C)reduce intraocular pressure
D)relieve pain
Q2) The nurse is aware that the proper name of the "blind spot," which lacks photoreceptors and does not detect light focused on it,is:
A)fovea
B)macula lutea
C)optic disk
D)retina
Q3) The client is seeing a specialist who evaluates hearing and determines the extent and types of hearing loss.The nurse explains the client will be seeing:
A)an audiologist
B)a hearing-aid specialist
C)an ophthalmologist
D)an otolaryngologist
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44
Chapter 43: Endocrine System
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46 Verified Questions
46 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which person would be MOST likely to develop type 2 diabetes?
A)a 20-year-old white athlete with a family history of diabetes
B)a 30-year-old black athlete with a family history of diabetes
C)a 40-year-old black female who is 50 pounds overweight
D)a 50-year-old white male who is 10 pounds overweight
Q2) The client is experiencing an increased thyroid hormone production.The nurse would monitor for which effect on a client's metabolic rate and subsequent symptoms?
A)rate decrease with weight gain and decreased appetite
B)rate decrease with weight loss and increased appetite
C)rate increase with weight loss and increased appetite
D)rate increase with weight gain and decreased appetite
Q3) The major goal of medical nutrition therapy for clients with diabetes mellitus is to:
A)reduce serum lipid levels
B)improve health through optimal nutrition
C)maintain as near-normal a blood glucose level as possible
D)wean insulin-dependent clients with diabetes from insulin through diet control
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Chapter 44: Reproductive System
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61 Verified Questions
61 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44576
Sample Questions
Q1) Postsurgical teaching for a client who has just undergone a modified mastectomy would include which of the following?
A)Wear purse straps over the affected arm.
B)Minor injuries on the affected side are to be expected.
C)Slight swelling or bruising of the affected limb is normal in the first month.
D)Vaccinations and blood draws should be done on the unaffected side only.
Q2) Which clients are at greatest risk for endometrial cancer?
A)postmenopausal women who have taken estrogen replacement therapy for over 5 years
B)nulliparas
C)women who have taken birth control pills for 4 years
D)women who practice abstinence
Q3) Which medication is used to reduce the client's bladder spasms after prostate surgery?
A)alpha blockers
B)belladonna and opium suppositories
C)finasteride
D)meperidine
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Chapter 45: Sexually Transmitted Diseases
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44577
Sample Questions
Q1) Client teaching should include that human papillomavirus (HPV)can lead to the formation of:
A)chancres
B)enlarged inguinal lymph nodes
C)genital warts
D)herpetic lesions
Q2) Which treatment will cure herpes genitalis?
A)acyclovir taken orally twice daily for 2 weeks
B)an injection of penicillin G benzathine
C)doxycycline 100 mg orally,twice daily for 7 days
D)none
Q3) Which sexually transmitted disease is caused by a parasitic protozoan and is often seen in combination with gonorrhea?
A)chlamydia
B)herpes genitalis
C)syphilis
D)trichomoniasis
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Chapter 46: Integumentary System
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57 Verified Questions
57 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44578
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a client who has an ulceration appearing as a deep crater with undermining of adjacent tissue loss.The nurse recognizes that this client has which type of ulcer present?
A)stage I
B)stage II
C)stage III
D)stage IV
Q2) Which phase of wound healing lasts the longest period of time?
A)initial
B)defensive
C)reconstructive
D)maturation
Q3) A client who has AIDS develops cutaneous T-cell lymphoma,which is characterized by:
A)ready susceptibility to treatment and cure
B)initial appearance of moles that are irregular in shape
C)superficial infection of the dermis and epidermis
D)metastasis to vital organ systems,even if treatment improves the skin's condition
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Chapter 47: Immune System
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44579
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a client who is human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)positive with a diagnosis of toxoplasmosis.Confirmation the diagnosis of toxoplasmosis in the client is made by which of these signs?
A)recent onset of neurological abnormality
B)presence of CD4 T cells
C)presence of white patches on tongue or oral mucosa
D)evidence of elevated protein level in cerebrospinal fluid
Q2) When caring for a client with a diagnosis of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV),the nurse understands that HIV is transmitted by:
A)airborne droplets
B)exchange of body fluids
C)exposure to infected animals or their waste products
D)sexual activity only
Q3) A client who has myasthenia gravis (MG)has all of the following nursing diagnoses.Which would reflect the greatest threat to the client?
A)Risk for aspiration
B)Impaired verbal communication
C)Knowledge deficit related to disease process
D)Altered urinary elimination
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Page 49
Chapter 48: Mental Illness
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30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44580
Sample Questions
Q1) A client has a nursing diagnosis of Risk for self-directed violence related to emotional status and suicidal plan.Which of these nursing interventions should be initiated FIRST?
A)determining if the client has a specific plan
B)assisting the client in developing a no-suicide contract
C)evaluating the degree of risk associated with the client's verbalization of suicide intent
D)notifying the health care provider of the client's intention and current condition
Q2) Before initiating antidepressant therapy,the health care provider should order which of these tests for the client?
A)CAT scan
B)complete blood count
C)electrocardiogram
D)electrolyte panel
Q3) What are the MOST common types of hallucinations?
A)auditory and visual
B)olfactory and tactile
C)tactile and visual
D)visual and olfactory
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Chapter 49: Substance Abuse
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44581
Sample Questions
Q1) When teaching a client about substance abuse,the nurse would BEST define a substance as:
A)a street drug that is frequently abused
B)a readily obtained drug that compels a person to overdose
C)a homemade concoction that produces desired effects
D)a drug,legal or illegal,that may cause physical or mental impairment
Q2) After obtaining a urine specimen from a client for drug screening,each person who handles the specimen signs an attached paper until testing is completed.This process is called:
A)chain of custody
B)confabulation
C)Johnsonian intervention
D)personnel tracking
Q3) When a person makes up information to fill in memory gaps as a result of abusing or depending on alcohol,what term describes this process?
A)confabulation
B)impaired thinking
C)lying
D)moral deterioration
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Page 51
Chapter 50: The Older Adult
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) If an older adult client experiences bowel elimination problems,the nurse should take which of these actions?
A)Ask the client's health care provider to order a laxative,stool softener,or enema.
B)Encourage the client to exercise daily.
C)Help the client monitor fluid intake.
D)Include adequate protein in the client's diet.
Q2) If an older adult client experiences frequency of urination,the nurse should:
A)make no changes in the client's dietary intake and keep the client from self-limiting fluids
B)assess the client for a urinary tract infection
C)place the client on incontinence precautions to minimize embarrassment if accidents occur
D)restrict fluid intake because frequency of urination is a normal result of physical changes that occur in the older adult client
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Chapter 51: Ambulatory, Restorative, and Palliative Care in Community Settings
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25 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44583
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are examples of ambulatory care settings? (Select all that apply. )
A)hospitals
B)urgent care centers
C)dentist offices
D)emergency rooms
E)family practice clinics
F) surgical centers
Q2) The nurse is aware that one main reason for alternative care settings in today's health care arena is:
A)changes in health care treatments
B)changes in reimbursement rates
C)decline in number of physicians
D)decline in hospital rates
Q3) When providing client teaching in the ambulatory care setting,the nurse customizes education to the client's:
A)gender,educational level,and cognitive status
B)culture,educational level,and socioeconomic status
C)age,socioeconomic status,and availability
D)age,educational level,and health status
Page 53
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Chapter 52: Responding to Emergencies
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse who is assisting in disaster triage following a severe hurricane finds a client who has experienced a massive head injury from flying debris.In which of these categories would the nurse place this client?
A)immediate
B)delayed
C)minimal
D)expectant
Q2) A client who is being treated for head trauma has just started to hiccup.What is the FIRST nursing priority?
A)Administer prescribed muscle relaxant.
B)Administer prescribed sedation.
C)Notify the health care provider.
D)Obtain vital signs including a neurological screening.
Q3) Clients with head injuries should be placed in which of these positions?
A)dorsal recumbent
B)prone
C)semi-Fowler's
D)side-lying
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54
Chapter 53: Integration
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client has just been diagnosed as having type 2 diabetes.The client is a 60-year-old male who is 30 pounds overweight.He is married and has two grown children.What are several things the nurse who is assigned to this client needs to do before developing a plan of care for the client?
Q2) The nurse is providing instruction to a client with diabetes mellitus regarding peritoneal dialysis.The nurse explains to the client that it is important to maintain the dwell time for the dialysis at the prescribed time.The nurse is aware that the rationale for this is because of the risk of:
A)infection
B)hyperglycemia
C)fluid overload
D)disequilibrium syndrome
Q3) A 60-year-old male client has just been diagnosed as having type 2 diabetes.The client is 30 pounds overweight and knows very little about his condition.What are the major points that the nurse should include in this client's teaching plan?
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Chapter 54: Prenatal Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) A prenatal Pap smear is done on cervical secretions to diagnose which of these conditions?
A)cervical carcinoma
B)chronic cervicitis
C)gonorrhea
D)primary syphilis
Q2) Couvade is BEST described as the:
A)development of physical symptoms of pregnancy by the expectant father
B)fluid that contains antibodies and is secreted by the breasts prior to breast milk
C)motion of rebound that the floating fetus experiences when pushed upward through the vagina or abdomen
D)soft blowing sound occurring at the same rate as the maternal heart rate when the abdomen of a pregnant mother is auscultated
Q3) At 34 weeks' gestation,a normal prenatal client should have a hematocrit of:
A)less than 25%
B)25% to 35%
C)34% to 40%
D)more than 40%
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Chapter 55: Complications of Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) To prevent fetal infection,a cesarean birth is required for the pregnant client who is infected with which of these organisms at the time of delivery?
A)cytomegalovirus
B)herpes genitalis
C)rubella
D)toxoplasmosis
Q2) Women who desire future fertility and who have an unruptured ectopic pregnancy less than 4 centimeters in size are candidates for which of these procedures?
A)methotrexate therapy
B)salpingostomy
C)laparotomy and salpingectomy
D)vacuum extraction of the products of conception
Q3) Which of these biochemical assessments on maternal serum indicates fetoplacental function?
A)lecithin-to-sphingomyelin ratio
B)human placental lactogen
C)estriol
D)maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein
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Chapter 56: The Birth Process
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Sample Questions
Q1) While awaiting the health care provider's arrival in a precipitate birth,which of these actions should the nurse take first?
A)Hold the fetal head back by telling the mother to keep her legs together.
B)Dry the baby immediately.
C)Check for presence of a nuchal cord.
D)Suction the baby's nose.
Q2) In addition to monitoring vital signs,the nursing care priority during the fourth stage of labor is to:
A)allow the mother to bond with her infant and begin breastfeeding
B)assess uterine tone and the amount of vaginal bleeding
C)assist the mother to void or catheterize her
D)keep an ice pack on the perineum or episiotomy
Q3) The nurse is aware that induction of labor is considered for which of the following situations? (Select all that apply. )
A)PROM has occurred.
B)Gestational hypertension is present.
C)Maternal diabetes is present.
D)A desired date of delivery is needed.
E)Vaginal infection is present.
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Page 58
Chapter 57: Postpartum Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the usual causes of maternal afterpains?
A)cesarean delivery and prolonged labor
B)multiparity and breastfeeding
C)postpartal hemorrhage and puerperal infection
D)uterine involution and breast engorgement
Q2) When the nurse is caring for a postpartum client,assessment would be focused on which priority areas? (Select all that apply. )
A)cervical enlargement
B)episiotomy or incision
C)bladder distention
D)depression
E)lochia
F)breasts
Q3) When a client is 12 hours postpartum,the nurse would expect the client's fundus to be in which of these positions?
A)at the level of the umbilicus
B)below the symphysis pubis and no longer palpable
C)1 centimeter above the umbilicus
D)1 centimeter below the umbilicus
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Page 59
Chapter 58: Newborn Care
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44590
Sample Questions
Q1) When a nurse is giving the first bath to a newborn,which of these actions is essential?
A)wearing gloves while bathing the newborn
B)bathing the newborn in a small tub
C)cleansing the newborn's ears with a cotton-tipped applicator
D)sponge-bathing the newborn under a radiant warmer
Q2) What is the most common cause of kernicterus in the newborn?
A)breastfeeding
B)dehydration
C)Rh incompatibility
D)transfusion reaction
Q3) A newborn's birth weight is placed at the 8th percentile for week of gestation.According to the accepted classification range,the newborn would be classified in which of these categories?
A)appropriate for gestational age (AGA)
B)large for gestational age (LGA)
C)premature
D)small for gestational age (SGA)
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Chapter 59: Basics of Pediatric Care
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44591
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the MOST common and reliable method of calculating drug dosages for children?
A)according to body surface area
B)according to age
C)according to weight
D)according to standardized dosing
Q2) Which of these statements about obtaining a urine specimen in an infant is TRUE?
A)The skin around the meatus should be cleaned and allowed to dry.
B)Stroking the abdomen with an alcohol prep and fanning it dry usually initiate urination.
C)Have the child drink plenty of fluids before asking the child to void.
D)Specimens for culture and sensitivity can be obtained from the child's diaper.
Q3) What is the normal percentile range for pediatric clients' height and weight on a percentile growth chart?
A)5% to 95%
B)25% to 75%
C)30% to 70%
D)45% to 55%
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Chapter 60: Infants With Special Needs: Birth to 12 Months
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44592
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these congenital defects may recur,even after correction?
A)congenital talipes equinovarus
B)hip dysplasia
C)hydrocephalus
D)pyloric stenosis
Q2) The main objective of treatment of hyperbilirubinemia is to reduce the amount of which element in the infant's blood?
A)conjugated bilirubin
B)lumirubin
C)unconjugated bilirubin
D)urobilinogen
Q3) In addition to administering antibiotics,nursing care of the infant with meningitis includes which of these interventions?
A)maintaining isolation for a minimum of 72 hours
B)monitoring neurological status every 4 hours
C)observing the infant's developmental status
D)ensuring the parents receive prophylactic treatment
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Chapter 61: Common Problems: 1-18 Years
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44593
Sample Questions
Q1) A teenage client diagnosed with scoliosis has been treated with a brace.Progression of the curvature probably results from which of these factors?
A)improper adjustment of the brace
B)late intervention
C)misdiagnosis of the underlying cause of the curvature
D)noncompliance with the prescribed therapy
Q2) Due to incomplete ossification of bones,what type of fractures are common among young children?
A)compound
B)greenstick
C)multiple
D)open
Q3) A bite from which of these insects causes a necrotic ulcer that may take months to heal?
A)black widow spider
B)brown recluse spider
C)deer tick
D)tsetse fly
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