Foundations of Nursing Exam Review
Course Introduction
Foundations of Nursing introduces students to the fundamental concepts and principles essential to professional nursing practice. The course covers the history and scope of nursing, ethical and legal responsibilities, health care systems, patient safety, and the nursing process. Emphasis is placed on basic nursing skills, therapeutic communication, infection control, health promotion, and the holistic care of diverse populations. Through a combination of classroom learning and practical experiences, students develop critical thinking, clinical reasoning, and foundational competencies needed to provide safe and effective care across the lifespan.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations and Adult Health Nursing 7th Editon by Cooper
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57 Chapters
2259 Verified Questions
2259 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Evolution of Nursing
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The relationships among nursing, patients, health, and the environment are the basis for:
A) care plans.
B) nursing models.
C) physician's orders.
D) evaluation of patient care.
Answer: B
Q2) What is a modern educational advancement program for the LPN/LVN to enter RN education?
A) Repetition
B) Exclusion
C) Articulation
D) Coexistence
Answer: C
Q3) During early civilization _____________ ________ performed witchcraft and rituals to induce the bad spirits to leave the body of the ailing person.
Answer: medicine men
Medicine men performed witchcraft and rituals to induce the bad spirits to leave the body of the ailing person during early civilization.
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Legal and Ethical Aspects of Nursing
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An LPN/LVN is asked by the RN to administer an IV chemotherapeutic agent to a patient in the acute care setting. What law should this nurse refer to before initiating this intervention?
A) Standards of care
B) Regulation of practice
C) American Nurses' Association Code
D) Nurse practice act
Answer: D
Q2) What are the universal guidelines that define appropriate measures for all nursing interventions?
A) Scope of practice
B) Advocacy
C) Standard of care
D) Prudent practice
Answer: C
Q3) Acts whose performance is required, permitted, or prohibited are defined by ___________ of ______________.
Answer: standards, care
Standards of care define acts whose performance is required, permitted, or prohibited.
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Documentation
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the basic purposes of written patient records? (Select all that apply.)
A) Teaching
B) Legal record of care
C) Written communication
D) Research and data collection
E) Permanent record for accountability
F) Temporary record of hospitalization
Answer: A, B, C, D, E
Q2) Documentation is necessary for the evaluation of patient care. Of which phase of the nursing process is this an integral part?
A) Assessment
B) Planning
C) Implementation
D) Evaluation
Answer: C
Q3) Documentation using the DARE format (Data, Action, Response, Education) includes elements of the __________ charting system.
Answer: focused
Focused charting uses the acronym DARE to direct and formalize charting.
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Communication
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48 Verified Questions
48 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is caring for a patient experiencing respiratory distress. The physician places an endotracheal tube. What is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for this patient?
A) Ineffective coping
B) Risk for infection
C) Altered nutrition: less than body requirements
D) Impaired verbal communication
Q2) A grieving young widow cries out, "Why was my husband killed? Why wasn't it me?" What is the nurse's best response?
A) Stating "You need to be strong for your children."
B) Silently placing her hand on the widow's arm.
C) Asking if there is anyone the widow needs to have notified.
D) Stating "You are feeling overwhelmed about your husband's death."
Q3) The nurse considers the feelings and needs of a patient by stating, "I know you are concerned about your surgery tomorrow. How can I help you?" What type of communication is this?
A) Intrusive
B) Aggressive
C) Closed
D) Assertive
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Nursing Process and Critical Thinking
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53 Verified Questions
53 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a nursing diagnosis considered when a problem is suspected but data to support it are lacking?
A) A syndrome nursing diagnosis
B) An actual nursing diagnosis
C) A "risk for" diagnosis
D) A possible nursing diagnosis
Q2) Which is an example of a medical diagnosis?
A) Pain
B) Anxiety
C) Pneumonia
D) Impaired skin integrity
Q3) What best defines the nursing process?
A) A method to ensure that the physician's orders are implemented correctly.
B) A series of assessments that isolate a patient's health problem.
C) A framework for the organization of individualized nursing care.
D) A preset formula for the design of nursing care.
Q4) Any health care condition that requires diagnostic, therapeutic, or educational actions is known as a ______________.
Q5) NANDA International meets to reorganize diagnosis labels and language every ______ years.
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Chapter 6: Cultural and Ethnic Considerations
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45 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is caring for a patient who is a Latter-Day Saint. The nurse is aware members of this faith may wear sacred undergarments. What intervention is appropriate for the nurse caring for this patient?
A) Instruct the patient to remove the undergarments
B) Allow the patient to wear the undergarments only at night
C) Allow the patient to wear the undergarments only during the day
D) Remove the undergarments in emergency situations only
Q2) Which health belief system is commonly referred to as "third-world" beliefs and practices?
A) Folk health belief system
B) Holistic health belief system
C) Biomedical health belief system
D) Alternative/complementary belief system
Q3) The nurse from New York City is caring for a patient from Atlanta, Georgia. What difference between the nurse and patient may cause them to experience difficulty in communicating?
A) Race
B) Subculture
C) Ethnic group
D) Culture
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Chapter 7: Asepsis and Infection Control
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43 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is performing an admission assessment on a patient with suspected tuberculosis. What is the greatest risk of exposure to tuberculosis?
A) After a diagnosis is made
B) Before a diagnosis is made
C) After the patient has begun medication therapy
D) After implementation of isolation precautions
Q2) What can result from the nurse consistently performing hand hygiene and using sterile supplies when caring for patients in the hospital setting?
A) Hospital stay is shortened
B) Sense of self-worth is improved
C) Risk of infection is reduced
D) Nursing care needed is reduced
Q3) How long should the nurse perform hand hygiene before beginning care of a patient?
A) 5 minutes
B) 2 minutes
C) 1 minute
D) 30 seconds
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9
Chapter 8: Body Mechanics and Patient Mobility
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a fall occurs, the nurse should document the incident and initiate a(n) ___________ report.
Q2) What should the nurse do to reduce the effort of moving a heavy object?
A) Bring the feet close together and flex the knees
B) Keep the back straight and bend at the waist
C) Widen the base of support in the direction of movement
D) Broaden the base of support and twist toward the direction of movement
Q3) The nurse instructs a nursing assistant to use large muscle groups when lifting. What is the rationale for this instruction?
A) Workers' compensation claims will be prevented
B) Big muscles work more effectively
C) It guarantees no muscle strain
D) It distributes workload more evenly
Q4) The 125-pound nurse assesses the weight of a patient. What weight is the heaviest the nurse may safely lift by herself?
A) 158.75 lb
B) 168.75 lb
C) 178.75 lb
D) 188.75 lb
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Chapter 9: Hygiene and Care of the Patients Environment
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38 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nursing assessment of a pressure ulcer includes size, depth, pain, odor, and color of tissue. What does this evaluate?
A) Treatment needed
B) Effectiveness of implementation
C) Whether improvement is occurring
D) Need for additional interventions
Q2) The nurse must follow the principles of medical asepsis while making a patient's bed, including procedures for handling linens. How should the nurse handle soiled linens?
A) Place on the floor
B) Fan in the air
C) Hold away from the uniform
D) Place at the end of the bed
Q3) Because of its effect on epithelization, the LPN/LVN should confirm the order to use ____________ or _____________ on a stage III pressure ulcer.
Q4) The nurse avoids dragging the patient across the bed linen to decrease the potential risk of skin injury by _________.
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Chapter 10: Safety
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Sample Questions
Q1) The emergency department nurse admits a victim of poisoning. Who should the nurse call to receive the best assistance for dealing with this victim?
A) American Red Cross
B) Fire department paramedics
C) Poison control center
D) Civil defense office
Q2) A nurse instructs a nursing assistant about the proper use of a gait belt and is observing a return demonstration. What action by the nursing assistant should cause the nurse to intervene?
A) Nursing assistant is walking on the patient's strong side
B) Nursing assistant is walking to the side of the patient
C) Nursing assistant is securing the gait belt securely around the patient's waist
D) Nursing assistant is grasping the handles of the gait belt while the patient ambulates
Q3) When reinforcing the PASS acronym for fire extinguisher use, the nurse reminds the staff that the final "S" stands for ______________.
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Chapter 11: Vital Signs
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What site should be selected if a peripheral pulse needs to be assessed quickly?
A) Radial pulse
B) Brachial pulse
C) Carotid pulse
D) Pedal pulse
Q2) The nurse assesses the blood pressure as 192/86, noting that the patient has a pulse pressure of ________.
Q3) What does the nurse use the diaphragm of the stethoscope to best assess?
A) Carotid sounds
B) Lung sounds
C) Vascular sounds
D) Low-pitched sounds
Q4) When instructing a primary caregiver about keeping a daily log of blood pressure readings, what instructions should the nurse include? (Select all that apply.)
A) Take the reading at different times during the day.
B) Apply the cuff approximately 2 inches above the antecubital fossa.
C) If unable to get a reading the first time, immediately reinflate the cuff.
D) Assess pulse with the bell of the stethoscope.
E) Apply the cuff snugly.
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Chapter 12: Physical Assessment
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90 Verified Questions
90 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When assessing a patient, the patient complains of an uncomfortable sensation leading to an urge to scratch. The nurse notes the patient scratches frequently. How should the nurse document this finding?
A) Dyspnea
B) Cyanosis
C) Jaundice
D) Pruritus
Q2) Which are infectious diseases? (Select all that apply.)
A) Measles
B) Pneumonia
C) Hay fever
D) Tuberculosis
E) Osteoarthritis
F) Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
Q3) An abnormal condition in which a person must sit or stand to breathe deeply or comfortably is known as ___________________.
Q4) An abnormally rapid rate of breathing that is seen in many disease conditions is known as ___________________.
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Chapter 13: Admission, Transfer, and Discharge
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18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse must be sensitive to an older adult patient experiencing separation anxiety when admitted to the hospital. When a child experiences separation anxiety they will usually cry. What will an older adult often demonstrate when experiencing separation anxiety?
A) Withdrawal
B) Anger
C) Depression
D) Regression
Q2) When should discharge planning begin?
A) The day before discharge
B) On the first day postoperatively
C) Shortly after admission
D) When the doctor orders it
Q3) Because of the stress caused by hospitalization, the nurse assesses a newly admitted older adult patient for ________________.
Q4) Some _____________________patients consider sundown Friday to sundown Saturday to be the Sabbath, which is a time of rest.
Q5) The nurse completes thorough documentation before, during, and after a transfer to ensure _______ of _______.
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Chapter 14: Surgical Wound Care
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the classification for the Jackson-Pratt drainage removal system?
A) Sterile drainage system
B) Closed drainage system
C) Open drainage system
D) Self-measuring drainage system
Q2) What is the usual length of time before suture removal?
A) 2 to 3 days
B) 4 to 5 days
C) 5 to 6 days
D) 7 to 10 days
Q3) The nurse assessing a patient's wound notes thick, yellow drainage. How will the nurse most accurately document this finding?
A) Serous drainage
B) Purulent drainage
C) Sanguineous drainage
D) Serosanguineous drainage
Q4) The nurse assures a patient that the purple, raised, immature scar of a surgical wound is normal and caused by _______ formation.
Q5) When preparing to remove a dressing, the nurse should don __________ gloves.
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Chapter 15: Specimen Collection and Diagnostic Testing
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the rationale for the nurse to assess a patient's knowledge of an ordered procedure?
A) To determine difficulties the patient may encounter
B) To determine the nurse's role in the procedure
C) To determine health teaching required
D) To determine anxiety the patient has
Q2) The nurse has an order to perform occult blood testing on a patient's emesis. What color will the sample turn to indicate that the test is positive for occult blood?
A) Red
B) Blue
C) Green
D) Yellow
Q3) The nurse is caring for a patient following a bronchoscopy and maintains NPO status for 2 hours. What additional assessment will indicate to the nurse that this patient's risk for aspiration has decreased?
A) Patient is fully awake
B) Patient asks for a drink
C) Gag reflex has returned
D) Preoperative medication has worn off
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Care of Patients Experiencing Urgent
Alterations in Health
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse assesses an accident victim who has bright red blood spurting from a laceration on his right forearm. Where will the nurse apply pressure after applying direct pressure and elevating the limb?
A) Right subclavian artery
B) Right radial artery
C) Right ulnar artery
D) Right brachial artery
Q2) If a spinal injury is suspected, before the rescuer starts CPR, the trachea should be opened with a _______ _______ maneuver.
Q3) A patient has been stung by a bee and is brought to the emergency department. The nurse observes the sting site and identifies that the stinger is still in the skin. What action should the nurse take?
A) Remove it with sterile tweezers
B) Soak the area with a cold compress
C) Scrape the stinger with the side of a knife
D) Squeeze the surrounding tissue to expel the stinger
Q4) When treating an infant choking on a foreign body, the nurse should use a combination of ______ _________ and chest thrusts.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Complementary and Alternative Therapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse recommends that a patient have animal-assisted therapy sessions (AAT) because this therapy has been found to have what effect(s)? (Select all that apply.)
A) Improvement in mood
B) Decrease in blood pressure
C) Decrease in blood sugar
D) Reduction of allergies
E) Increase in socialization skills
Q2) People with fractures, rheumatoid arthritis, and osteoporosis are not candidates for ____________ therapy.
Q3) A patient wants to use aromatherapy to treat pneumonia, but the hospital policy will not allow burning of eucalyptus-scented candles. What should the nurse suggest the patient use instead?
A) Another essential oil
B) Prescribed medications
C) A topical eucalyptus product
D) Massage therapy
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19
Chapter 18: Pain Management, Comfort, Rest, and Sleep
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Sample Questions
Q1) An American Indian patient requests that an egg yolk be placed in a saucer and put under his bed to absorb the pain. What should the nurse do?
A) Explain that medication will relieve the pain better
B) Place the egg in a saucer under the bed
C) Ask the physician for permission
D) Warn that housekeeping staff will remove the egg
Q2) The nurse is planning interventions for a patient experiencing pain. For what type of synergistic relationship should the nurse assess?
A) Inflammatory process
B) Circulatory disorder
C) Food allergy
D) Fatigue
Q3) The home health nurse is instructing the family of an older adult patient with arthritis about sleep promotion. What intervention can best promote sleep for the older adult patient?
A) Giving nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) in the mornings
B) Administering diuretics in the mornings
C) Encouraging daytime sleeping
D) Avoiding the stimulation of backrubs or warm drinks before bedtime
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Nutritional Concepts and Related Therapies
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A school nurse is teaching a group of adolescents about adequate nutrition. What increased intake should the nurse encourage?
A) Potassium and sodium
B) Chloride and magnesium
C) Iron and calcium
D) Vitamins and minerals
Q2) At approximately 4 to 6 months of age, solid food is introduced to a baby. What foods with high iron content should be recommended by the nurse?
A) Pureed fruit
B) Fortified cereals
C) Fruit juice
D) Rice
Q3) A patient taking a diuretic is assessed by the nurse as having an erratic pulse and muscle weakness. What should the nurse suspect is deficient?
A) Sodium
B) Potassium
C) Chloride
D) Iron
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Chapter 20: Fluids and Electrolytes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Three body systems work at different speeds to keep the pH in the narrow range of normal. What is the order of effectiveness for these three systems?
A) Blood buffers, kidneys, and lungs
B) Kidneys, lungs, and blood buffers
C) Blood buffers, lungs, and kidneys
D) Lungs, kidneys, and blood buffers
Q2) What are the three buffer systems of the body? (Select all that apply.)
A) Bicarbonate/carbonic acid system
B) Respiratory system
C) Renal system
D) GI system
E) Integumentary system
Q3) Homeostasis of the hydrogen ion concentration in body fluids depends on the ratio of carbonic acid to bicarbonate in the extracellular fluid. What is this ratio?
A) 1:5
B) 1:10
C) 1:15
D) 1:20
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22
Chapter 21: Mathematics and Medication Administration
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the product o \(\frac { 5 } { 6 } \times \frac { 1 } { 2 }\) f ?
A) \(\frac { 5 } { 12 }\)
B) \(\frac { 6 } { 10 }\)
C) \(\frac { 10 } { 6 }\)
D) \(\frac { 51 } { 12 }\)
Q2) What is 0.9% expressed as a decimal?
A) 9
B) 0.9
C) 0.09
D) 0.009
Q3) What is the sum o \(\frac { 3 } { 4 }\) f an \(\frac { 7 } { 8 }\) d ?
A) \(\frac { 10 } { 48 }\)
B) \(\frac { 10 } { 12 }\)
C) \(\frac { 21 } { 4 }\)
D) \(1 \frac { 5 } { 8 }\)
Q4) Lanoxin 0.125 mg is to be given. The nurse converts the dose to how many grams?
A) 1.250 g
B) 1250 g
C) 0.000125 g
D) 0.00125 g
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Care of Patients with Alterations in Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why should the nurse instill eye irrigation from the inner to the outer canthus?
A) To avoid harming the sclera
B) To include the conjunctiva in the irrigation
C) To keep the pupil constricted
D) To protect the nasolacrimal ducts
Q2) The nurse notes an edematous area around the insertion site of an IV that is cool to the touch and the skin of which appears blanched. Based on these assessment findings, what is the first priority of the nurse?
A) Apply warm compresses to the area
B) Notify the charge nurse
C) Stop the infusion
D) Reposition the arm to improve the fluid flow
Q3) Hot moist compresses have which positive effect(s)? (Select all that apply.)
A) Improvement of circulation
B) Relief of edema
C) Consolidation of exudates
D) Enhancement of scabbing
E) Relief of pain
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Chapter 23: Life Span Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) A child who is able to use a systematic, scientific problem-solving approach is in which of the Piaget stages of cognitive development?
A) Sensorimotor
B) Preoperational thought
C) Formal operational thought
D) Concrete operational thought
Q2) The nurse reminds an older adult patient that the task for the older adult is to achieve ego integrity. Failure to achieve this task results in which of the following?
A) Failure
B) Despair
C) Reminiscing
D) Accomplishment
Q3) What is the stage of family development that begins when the couple acknowledges that they are considering marriage?
A) Expectant stage
B) Parenthood stage
C) Establishment stage
D) Engagement/commitment stage
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25
Chapter 24: Loss, Grief, Dying, and Death
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse spends a great deal of time in the room of a dying 12-year-old because the nurse knows that most children are aware of their condition and want the nurse to do which of the following?
A) Keep them clean
B) Help them eat
C) Care about them
D) Keep them comfortable
Q2) Which of the five aspects of human functioning must a nurse address when dealing with a grieving person? (Select all that apply.)
A) Physical
B) Emotional
C) Intellectual
D) Financial
E) Spiritual
Q3) What is the termination of tube feedings to a dying patient considered?
A) Active euthanasia
B) Holistic care
C) Passive euthanasia
D) Terminal care
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Health Promotion and Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pregnant teenager presents with the following complaints. Which complaint could be an indicator of a serious complication?
A) Painful hemorrhoids
B) Linea nigra
C) Visual disturbances
D) Low back pain
Q2) A woman tells the nurse that this is her third pregnancy. She has had twin girls at full term and one miscarriage. How does the nurse record the information?
A) G2, T2, L3
B) G4, T3, A1, L1
C) G3, T3, A2, L1
D) G3, T1, A1, L2
Q3) What is the cause of frequent urination in early pregnancy?
A) Increased fluid intake
B) The fetus's kidneys functioning
C) Retention of fluid
D) Increased circulating volume
Q4) The chorion and the amnion are the two components of the ________
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Chapter 26: Labor and Delivery
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Sample Questions
Q1) A primigravida patient is admitted to the labor and delivery unit. During initial assessment, the baby is found to be engaged. Which statement is true?
A) The narrowest diameter of the presenting part has reached the pelvic outlet.
B) The descending part is being initiated through the midpelvis.
C) The widest diameter of the presenting part crosses the pelvic inlet.
D) The narrowest diameter of the presenting part is at the ischial spines.
Q2) The first-time mother has been told by the nurse that the first stage of labor is the longest. What would be an appropriate nursing intervention for comfort during this time?
A) Cool fluids to drink
B) A backrub in the sacral area
C) Assisting to lie in a supine position
D) Decreasing illumination in the room
Q3) For the first hour following delivery, how often should the nurse assess the mother?
A) Every 5 minutes
B) Every 10 minutes
C) Every 15 minutes
D) Every 30 minutes
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Chapter 27: Care of the Mother and Newborn
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the term for the cream cheese-like substance that protects the infant's skin from amniotic fluid?
A) Lanugo
B) Meconium
C) Desquamation
D) Vernix caseosa
Q2) After delivery of a 9-lb baby, the nurse assesses a perineal laceration extending through the muscles of the perineum. The nurse records this as a ________-degree laceration.
Q3) What is characteristic of a normal breastfed infant's stool?
A) Green and loose
B) Dark green and sticky
C) Pale yellow and frequent
D) Light brown and pasty
Q4) Which of the following would be considered a normal assessment finding in a 1-day postpartum patient?
A) Pinkish to brown lochia
B) Voiding frequently 50 mL to 75 mL of urine
C) Complaining of "after pains"
D) Fundus 1 cm above the umbilicus
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Family with Special Needs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pregnant patient who has type 2 diabetes (NIDDM) may require insulin. Why is the insulin necessary?
A) The growing baby will require more glucose.
B) Oral hypoglycemic agents may be teratogenic.
C) Increased hormone levels raise blood glucose.
D) Oral hypoglycemics do not reach the fetus.
Q2) What is a prominent feature of postpartum depression?
A) Failure to thrive
B) Rejection of the infant
C) Inability to care for the baby
D) Problems with the baby's father
Q3) A woman who is 14 weeks pregnant calls the clinic nurse to report that after a brief bleeding episode a week ago, her uterus seems to have gotten smaller, but her periods have not begun. The nurse assesses the indicators for a _____________ abortion.
Q4) What is the cause of gestational hypertension?
A) Too much salt
B) A toxin
C) Unknown
D) Diabetes
Page 30
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Chapter 29: Health Promotion for the Infant, Child, and Adolescent
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The school nurse recognizes that lack of physical activity and increased consumption of fast food by children are causative factors contributing to which of the following problems?
A) Nutritional disorders
B) Weight gain
C) Type I diabetes
D) Dental caries
Q2) What is the third leading cause of accidental death in children 1 to 4 years of age?
A) Falls
B) Asphyxiation
C) Poisons
D) Burns
Q3) Which are physical risks associated with excess weight? (Select all that apply.)
A) Poor eyesight
B) Heart disease
C) Arthritis
D) Stroke
E) Appendicitis
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Chapter 30: Basic Pediatric Nursing Care
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why must the pediatric nurse be cautious about medicating infants and young children?
A) They are less susceptible to medication effects than adults.
B) They are more susceptible to medication effects than adults.
C) They are equally susceptible to medication effects as adults.
D) They are more susceptible to drug interactions than adults.
Q2) The nurse welcomes the presence of the family in a pediatric unit because it reduces the stressors of hospitalization. Which are common stressors for the hospitalized child? (Select all that apply.)
A) Separation
B) Lack of love
C) Fear of pain
D) Unfamiliar food
E) Loss of control
Q3) How should an infant be positioned after a feeding?
A) On the stomach
B) On the right side
C) On the left side
D) On the back
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Page 32
Chapter 31: Care of the Child with a Physical and Mental or Cognitive Disorder
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70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When caring for a 7-week-old infant with hypothyroidism, the nurse explains that the prevention of what complication is dependent on the administration of oral thyroid replacement therapy and is critical for the child?
A) Excessive growth
B) Cognitive impairment
C) Damage to the nervous system
D) Damage to the urinary system
Q2) What is the most common method of attempted suicide?
A) Hanging
B) Medication ingestion
C) Gunshot
D) Slashing the wrists
Q3) The nurse anticipates that the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) taken from a child with bacterial meningitis would have a low __________ level.
Q4) What is the major criterion for diagnosing a child as cognitively impaired?
A) An IQ of 75 or less
B) Subaverage functioning
C) An IQ of 70 or less
D) Onset before 18
33
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Chapter 32: Health Promotion and Care of the Older Adult
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/5486
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse reminds the 80-year-old patient that her respiratory system has decreased resistance to respiratory infections. For what is this patient at increased risk?
A) COPD
B) Bronchitis
C) Pneumonia
D) Atelectasis
Q2) Which approaches should be included when teaching medication safety to an older, homebound adult? (Select all that apply.)
A) Always dispose of expired medications in the toilet or the sink; never throw them in the trash can.
B) Never share medications with others.
C) If a medication is not finished as prescribed, save it for future use.
D) Keep medications in their original containers.
E) Always request child-proof containers, even if the patient has trouble opening the lids.
Q3) The nurse initiates the application of a draw sheet on every bedfast patient on her unit to facilitate lifting and to prevent _________ forces.
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Chapter 33: Concepts of Mental Health
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/5487
Sample Questions
Q1) Which theorist believed that personality development was based on task mastery?
A) Sigmund Freud
B) Erik Erikson
C) Jean Piaget
D) Friedrich Nietzsche
Q2) The nurse is assessing a nervous 18-year-old patient who has vital signs of P 120, R 30, and BP 160/90. The patient states that he feels something bad is about to happen. Based on this data alone, how should the nurse identify the patient's level of anxiety?
A) Mild
B) Moderate
C) Severe
D) Panic
Q3) Using the mental health continuum as a guide, the nurse observes behavior that usually places an individual on the illness end of the continuum. What is true of this behavior?
A) It causes extreme concern about health.
B) It results in inability to function in society.
C) It demonstrates that the person is out of touch with reality.
D) It results in inability to interact with people.
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Care of the Patient with a Psychiatric Disorder
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse explains that an alternative therapy that uses essential oils and scented candles to help a patient relax and focuses on the atmosphere of the moment is
Q2) The patient complains of recurrent, multiple physical ailments for which there is no organic cause. How should the nurse assess this?
A) Obsessive-compulsive disorder
B) Phobia anxiety disorder
C) Somatoform disorder
D) Delusional disorder
Q3) When the patient with a psychosis is thought to be a danger to self or others, by what method should the patient be admitted to the hospital?
A) Probating
B) Nurse's request
C) Physician's order
D) Family request
Q4) The nurse recognizes that stress can cause an ulcer, which is classified as a _______________ illness.
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Chapter 35: Care of the Patient with an Addictive Personality
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What should the nurse do when suspecting a co-worker of abusing drugs while at work?
A) Confront the abuser
B) Report observations to a supervisor
C) Call the state board of nursing
D) Discuss the problem with another co-worker
Q2) Alcohol is involved in motor vehicle accidents, suicides, and homicides. Approximately how many deaths each year are related to alcohol consumption?
A) 50,000
B) 70,000
C) 80,000
D) 100,000
Q3) The nurse uses the CAGE questionnaire to assess a patient. The nurse suspects the patient is an alcoholic if there are affirmative answers for _____ items on the questionnaire.
Q4) The nurse cautions that a person who chronically abuses drugs may experience mental impairment. The area of the brain that can be affected and permanently damaged is the ________ _________.
37
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Chapter 36: Home Health Nursing
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse can best confirm that the patient understands the communication by obtaining ____________ from the patient.
Q2) When implementing quality assurance-specific criteria, measurements are developed for three criteria: structural, process, and outcome. How is this method of assessment different from previous methods?
A) It is objective
B) It is specific
C) It is subjective
D) It is generalized
Q3) Nurses who work in home settings rather than a hospital setting require a different level of ability to be technically proficient, self-motivated, and innovative. This requires a higher level of what quality?
A) Knowledge
B) Performance
C) Independence
D) Cooperation
Q4) When the decision is made with the family to place the patient on hospice care, the home health nurse explains that the reimbursement changes from "fee per visit" to "fee per _________."
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Chapter 37: Long-Term Care
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse assesses a patient's ability to perform self-care activities, as well as more complex social and household activities. What is provided from this assessment?
A) Physical status
B) Emotional status
C) Health status
D) Functional status
Q2) The long-term care facility nurse recognizes that visiting the resident, changing his or her position, assessing for incontinence, providing skin care, and offering fluids are part of the nurse's responsibility. What does the initiation of these interventions provide?
A) Continuity
B) Safety
C) Prevention
D) Reassurance
Q3) The nurse explains to a patient that shopping, using a phone, and administering his own medications are classified as ____________ activities of daily living.
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Chapter 38: Rehabilitation Nursing
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36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 33-year-old patient with a spinal cord injury says to the nurse, "I've let my family down. I don't know what to do." What would be the best response by the nurse?
A) "After your rehabilitation starts, you'll feel better."
B) "You should be grateful you are alive."
C) "What does this injury mean to you?"
D) "Technological advances are changing the future for spinal cord injury victims."
Q2) The acquisition of adaptive skills and behaviors by an individual who has been disabled since birth refers to:
A) training.
B) education.
C) development.
D) habilitation.
Q3) The nurse should tell a paraplegic that the rehabilitation experience will consist of: A) relearning former skills.
B) learning to walk.
C) learning new skills to adapt to a different lifestyle.
D) developing muscle strength.
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Chapter 39: Hospice Care
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse should educate the patient and caregiver that large doses of narcotics are required to control pain. What is the optimal dose for pain medications?
A) The smallest amount possible to achieve some effects
B) The dose that provides pain relief
C) The dose that is not addictive
D) The dose that works for most people
Q2) Which of the following is an expected part of the end-of-dying process?
A) Denial
B) Despair
C) Anorexia
D) Depression
Q3) What is the role of the hospice medical director?
A) To design and direct the plan of care
B) To evaluate the appropriateness of the care
C) To function as mediator between the team and the attending physician
D) To take the place of the patient's attending physician
Q4) When the dying patient becomes confused, the nurse should ____________ him or her.
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Chapter 40: Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse clarifies that the dorsal cavity is composed of the (select all that apply) :
A) Descending colon
B) Kidneys
C) Gallbladder
D) Brain
E) Pancreas
F) Spinal cavities
Q2) What are the thin sheets of tissue that lubricate and line the body surfaces that open to the outside environment?
A) Mucous membranes
B) Serous membranes
C) Cytoplasm
D) Involuntary visceral muscles
Q3) What traits describe visceral muscles?
A) Smooth and voluntary
B) Smooth and involuntary
C) Striated and voluntary
D) Striated and involuntary
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Chapter 41: Care of the Surgical Patient
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse instructing a postsurgical patient in the use of thrombolytic deterrent stockings would include which of the following instructions?
A) Disregard appearance of edema above the stocking
B) Massage legs to smooth wrinkles out of stockings
C) Wring stockings thoroughly before hanging to dry
D) Wash stockings in warm water and mild soap
Q2) The nurse caring for a postsurgical patient is aware that the patient should void ____ to _____ hours postsurgery.
Q3) What should the nurse do to minimize the potential for venous stasis?
A) Place pillows under the knee in a position of comfort
B) Assist patient to sit with feet flat on the floor
C) Assist with early ambulation
D) Perform gentle leg massage
Q4) The nurse caring for a patient who had an epidural block for a vaginal repair should be alert for:
A) a flushing of the face and torso.
B) numbness of the perineum.
C) complaint of thirst.
D) a sudden drop in blood pressure.
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Chapter 42: Care of the Patient with an Integumentary Disorder
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are major functions of the skin? (Select all that apply.)
A) Excretion of wastes
B) Protection
C) Vitamin C synthesis
D) Temperature regulation
E) Prevention of dehydration
Q2) Which of the following are nursing interventions and patient teaching for the treatment of head lice and scabies? (Select all that apply.)
A) Clothing, linens, and bath articles thoroughly cleaned in hot water
B) Stress nature and transmission of the disease
C) Special carbohydrate diet to promote healing
D) Complete isolation from the public
Q3) Most of the deaths from burn trauma in the emergent phase that require a referral to a burn center result from:
A) infection.
B) arrhythmias with cardiac arrest.
C) hypovolemic shock and renal failure.
D) adrenal failure.
Q4) The most deadly skin cancer is ________________.
44
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Chapter 43: Care of the Patient with a Musculoskeletal Disorder
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48 Verified Questions
48 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the first priority nursing intervention for an impending fat embolism?
A) Administer oxygen in a respiratory emergency
B) Increase intravenous fluids
C) Position in flat position to ease decreased blood pressure
D) Cover with warm blanket
Q2) When the patient with rheumatoid arthritis complains about the daily exercise, the nurse encouragingly reminds the patient that exercises:
A) keeps the joints from "freezing."
B) will ensure better sleep.
C) should be vigorous for joint stimulation.
D) need not be done daily.
Q3) A patient's patellar-femoral cartilage has deteriorated due to arthritis. The medial and lateral cartilage is undamaged. This patient is likely to undergo _________ knee replacement surgery.
Q4) The nurse explains that the use of the _________brace allows a person with a cervical fracture to be mobile.
Q5) The emergency department nurse assesses the two cardinal signs of a hip fracture in a newly admitted patient, which are the___________ of the injured leg and the ______rotation of that same leg.
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Chapter 44: Care of the Patient with a Gastrointestinal Disorder
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse takes into consideration that long-term use of antibiotics can cause an antibiotic-associated pseudomembranous colitis from the organism________.
Q2) In designing a teaching plan to present to a group of older adults regarding the prevention of esophageal cancer, the nurse would include information about the significance of (select all that apply):
A) cessation of smoking.
B) good oral care.
C) regular checkups if dysphagia is present.
D) reducing excessive weight.
E) limiting alcohol consumption.
F) reduction of consumption of citrus fruits.
Q3) How should the nurse counsel the 34-year-old woman who has been prescribed sulfasalazine (Azulfidine) for Crohn disease? (Select all that apply.)
A) Expose her to sunlight at least 30 minutes a day for vitamin D synthesis
B) Tell her to drink at least 1500 mL of fluid a day
C) Advise assessing self for rash
D) Use alternate birth control methods to oral contraception
E) Take drug on an empty stomach
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Chapter
45:
Care
of the Patient with a Gallbladder, Liver, Biliary Tract, or Exocrine Pancreatic Disorder
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A ___________occurs when the body encapsulates the autodigestive debris in the pancreatic tissue, frequently becoming an abscess.
Q2) Immediately following a liver biopsy, the patient becomes dyspneic, the pulse increases to 100, and no breath sounds can be heard on the affected side. What should the nurse suspect?
A) Peritonitis
B) Pneumothorax
C) Hemorrhage of the liver
D) Pleural effusion
Q3) What should the nurse explain is the major purpose of the Sengstaken-Blakemore tube (S/B tube)?
A) Decompress the stomach
B) Control esophageal varices bleeding
C) A route for tube feedings
D) Obtain specimen for gastric analysis
Q4) ___________ is a condition characterized by yellowing of the sclera and the skin.
Q5) Hepatitis D is usually seen as a co-infection with __________.
Page 47
Q6) The tumor marker that is elevated in patients with pancreatic cancer is______.
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Chapter
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47 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are necessary factors that support healthy erythropoiesis? (Select all that apply.)
A) Dietary magnesium
B) Healthy bone marrow
C) Adequate oxygen source
D) Vitamin B12
E) Amino acids
F) Vitamin B2
Q2) The spleen is a highly vascularized organ located in the left upper quadrant of the abdominal cavity. What are the main functions of the spleen? (Select all that apply.)
A) Serve as reservoir for blood
B) Destroy worn-out RBCs
C) Promote phagocytosis
D) Responsible for development of T lymphocytes
E) Continuously produce RBCs during lifetime
Q3) The person with aplastic anemia is said to be _________________ because all three major blood elements (RBCs, WBCs, and platelets) are diminished or absent.
Q4) Neutrophils release ______________, an enzyme that destroys certain bacteria.
Page 48
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Chapter 47: Care of the Patient with a Cardiovascular or a Peripheral Vascular Disorder
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58 Verified Questions
58 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Following an angiogram with the insertion site of the left groin, the nurse will include in the plan of care provisions for (select all that apply):
A) checking pedal pulses.
B) ambulating with assistance 2 hours after recovery.
C) checking color and warmth of left leg frequently.
D) sandbagging over insertion site.
E) placing patient in semi-Fowler position.
Q2) The nurse making a teaching plan for a patient with Buerger disease (thromboangiitis obliterans) will focus on the need for:
A) reduction of alcohol intake.
B) avoiding cold remedies.
C) cessation of smoking.
D) weight reduction.
Q3) How should the nurse advise a patient with an international normalized ratio (INR) of 5.8?
A) Make arrangements to go to the emergency room immediately
B) Increase fluid intake to 2000 mL/day
C) Stop taking the anticoagulant and notify health care provider
D) Add more leafy green vegetables to patient diet
Page 49
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Chapter 48: Care of the Patient with a Respiratory Disorder
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse prepares a patient for the procedure of a(n) __________, which will remove the fluid from around the lung to improve respiration and obtain a specimen.
Q2) The nurse explains to the person with pneumonia in the left lung that being positioned in the "good lung down" offers the advantage of (select all that apply):
A) PaO2 rising in the good lung.
B) blood flow to "bad lung" being increased.
C) the dependent lung being better perfused.
D) dyspnea disappearing.
E) decreased hypoxia.
Q3) How do leukotriene modifiers reduce the symptoms of asthma?
A) By drying up mucus
B) By causing bronchodilation and anti-inflammation effects
C) By suppressing cough
D) By liquefying mucus
Q4) The nurse recognizes that the _______ reading in an arterial gas report indicates the amount of oxygen dissolved in the plasma.
Q5) The _________ are the structures of the lung in which gas exchange occurs.
Q6) The nurse explains that the opening between the vocal cords is the __________.
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Chapter 49: Care of the Patient with a Urinary Disorder
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45 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An intravenous pyelogram confirms the presence of a 4-mm renal calculus in the proximal left ureter of a newly admitted patient. Physician orders include meperidine (Demerol) 100 mg IM q4h PRN, strain all urine, and encourage fluids to 4000 mL/day. What should be the nurse's highest priority when planning care for this patient?
A) Pain related to irritation of a stone
B) Anxiety related to unclear outcome of condition
C) Ineffective health maintenance related to lack of knowledge about prevention of stones
D) Risk for injury related to disorientation
Q2) _________ is a prostatic pain without evidence of infection or inflammation.
Q3) When the home health patient is started on dialysis, the home health nurse refers the patient to a community support group that assists with the adjustments necessary to living with dialysis. Which group offers this service?
A) National Kidney Foundation
B) American Association of Kidney Patients
C) American Red Cross
D) Veterans Administration
Q4) _____________ is a term for severe generalized edema.
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Chapter
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49 Verified Questions
49 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Another term for hyperglycemic reaction is ____________ ______________.
Q2) Why would a patient with hyperthyroidism be prescribed the drug methimazole (Tapa-zole)?
A) To limit the effect of the pituitary on the thyroid
B) To destroy part of the hyperactive thyroid tissue
C) To stimulate the pineal gland
D) To block the production of thyroid hormones
Q3) A condition with a deficiency in growth hormone is called ________________.
Q4) Arrange the steps of the negative feedback system in the control of blood glucose in chronologic order. (Separate letters by a comma and space as follows: A, B, C, D):
A) Elevation of blood glucose
B) Decrease in blood glucose
C) Beta cells repressed
D) Beta cells of pancreas stimulated to excrete insulin
E) Intake of nutrients
Q5) Only ________insulin can be administered intravenously.
Q6) The nurse is administering long-acting insulin once a day, which provides insulin coverage for 24 hours. This insulin is _________________.
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Chapter 51: Care of the Patient with a Reproductive Disorder
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46 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A Gram stain smear of the patient's discharge reveals the presence of N. gonorrhoeae. He tells the nurse that he had sexual contact with a new girlfriend but does not think he was exposed to gonorrhea because she did not appear to have any disease. Which information should the nurse include in response to his comment?
A) "Women do not develop gonorrhea infections but can serve as carriers to spread the disease to males."
B) "When gonorrhea infections occur in women, the disease affects only the ovaries and not the other genital organs."
C) "Many women are not aware that they have gonorrhea because they often do not have symptoms of infection."
D) "Women develop subclinical cases of gonorrhea that do not cause tissue damage or symptoms."
Q2) An alternative remedy, ____________ , is used by men for the treatment of impotence.
Q3) When the veins in the scrotum become dilated, and the scrotum becomes enlarged and dilated, the condition is called a __________.
Q4) ________are produced in the seminiferous tubules and stored in the epididymis.
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Chapter
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44 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Progressive deafness caused by the ankylosis of the stapes is the condition of__________.
Q2) Which may contribute to otitis media? (Select all that apply.)
A) Exposure to cigarette smoke
B) Allergies
C) Upper respiratory infections
D) Swimming
E) Trauma
F) Prolonged exposure to loud noise
Q3) The 62-year-old home health patient who is recovering from eye surgery complains of a feeling of "grittiness" in the eye and is having blurred vision. The eyes are reddened and have stringy mucus. What do these complaints indicate?
A) Sjögren syndrome
B) Early cataracts
C) Macular degeneration
D) Retinal detachment
Q4) The home health patient complains of tearing and a feeling of dryness in the right eye. The nurse assesses that the eyelid is turned inward and the sclera is red. The nurse documents the presence of a(n)_________________.
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Chapter 53: Care of the Patient with a Neurologic Disorder
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45 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the basic problem that prompts most of the early signs of Alzheimer disease?
A) Changes in mood
B) Misplacing things
C) Memory loss that disrupts daily life
D) Problems with words in speaking
Q2) What are the three signs of Cushing response? (Select all that apply.)
A) Increased pulse rate
B) Increased blood pressure
C) Widened pulse pressure
D) Bradycardia
E) Increased systolic blood pressure
F) Uncontrolled thermoregulation
Q3) Which question is likely to elicit the most valid response from the patient who is being interviewed about a neurologic problem?
A) "Do you have any sensations of pins and needles in your feet?"
B) "Does the pain radiate from your back into your legs?"
C) "Can you describe the sensations you are having?"
D) "Do you ever have any nausea or dizziness?"
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41 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse arrives at the bedside of a patient who has had a unit of packed cells infusing in his right arm for 35 minutes. He is complaining of chills, itching, and shortness of breath. What should be the nurse's initial action?
A) Cover with a warm blanket
B) Take the patient's temperature
C) Elevate the head of the bed
D) Stop the transfusion and continue with saline
Q2) Which of the following are diseases which result from one's own immune system attacking the body? (Select all that apply.)
A) Lupus erythematosus
B) Glomerulonephritis
C) Polio
D) Rheumatoid arthritis
E) Thrombocytopenic purpura
F) Osteoarthritis
Q3) A type IV latex allergy is characterized by________ _______.
Q4) The process of immunity through a controlled exposure to an attenuated organism to stimulate the production of antibodies is _______________.
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Page 56
Chapter 55: Care of the Patient with HIV/AIDS
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/5509
Sample Questions
Q1) After what period of time would the home health nurse make a mental health appointment for a patient with an HIV infection after assessing a diminished ability to attend to daily functioning?
A) 1 week
B) 2 weeks
C) 3 weeks
D) 1 month
Q2) A male patient is advised to receive HIV antibody testing because of his multiple sexual partners and injectable drug use. What should the nurse inform the patient to ensure understanding?
A) The blood is tested with the highly sensitive test called the Western blot.
B) The blood is tested with an ELISA; if positive, it is tested again with an ELISA, followed by a Western blot if the second ELISA is positive.
C) A series of HIV tests is performed to confirm if the patient has AIDS.
D) If the HIV tests are seronegative, the patient can be assured that he is not infected.
Q3) The term that describes an immunosuppressed patient's inability to react to a skin test is __________________.
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Chapter 56: Care of the Patient with Cancer
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43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/5510
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are risk factors for cancer? (Select all that apply.)
A) Ethnicity
B) Environmental irritants
C) Alcoholism
D) Hereditary factors
E) Excessive exercise
F) Exposure to ultraviolet light
Q2) What measures would the home health nurse, designing nursing interventions for a patient receiving external radiation treatments for a malignancy, recommend to protect the patient's skin?
A) Applying warm compresses to damaged skin
B) Encouraging patient to apply fragrant lotion to skin
C) Patting the skin dry after the bath
D) Exposing skin to sun for 10 minutes a day
Q3) What should the home health nurse advise the patient who found a lump in her breast a week ago during breast self-examination?
A) Arrange for an examination by her physician
B) Wait until her next ovulatory cycle and check the lump again
C) Postpone appointment until the lump enlarges
D) Apply warm, moist compresses
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Chapter 57: Professional Roles and Leadership
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/5511
Sample Questions
Q1) Which questions should the nurse consider before delegating care to another team member? (Select all that apply.)
A) Is this the right task?
B) Is this the right time?
C) Is this the right person?
D) Is this the right supervision?
E) Is this the right circumstance?
Q2) Which health care employment setting would provide the nurse a very good salary, the opportunity to refuse to take an assignment, and more flexibility in the personal schedule but with an uncertainty of work availability?
A) Temporary agency
B) Long-term care center
C) Outpatient clinic
D) Adult day care center
Q3) What is another term for promotion?
A) Reward
B) Advancement
C) Lift
D) Bubble
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