Foundations of Nursing Exam Bank - 2346 Verified Questions

Page 1


Foundations of Nursing Exam Bank

Course Introduction

Foundations of Nursing introduces students to the core principles, theories, and practices essential to the nursing profession. This course covers the historical development of nursing, the nursing process, and professional roles and responsibilities. Students learn basic patient care techniques, effective communication, ethical and legal considerations, and strategies for promoting health and wellness across diverse populations. Emphasis is placed on developing critical thinking, problem-solving, and evidence-based decision-making skills to ensure safe and compassionate care within various healthcare settings.

Recommended Textbook

Foundations of Nursing 3rd Edition by Lois White

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61 Chapters

2346 Verified Questions

2346 Flashcards

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Page 2

Chapter 1: Student Nurse Skills for Success

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31 Verified Questions

31 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The student nurse has delayed the completion of a course project for several days.The student's actions are an example of:

A)delegation

B)perfectionism

C)learning disability

D)procrastination

Answer: D

Q2) A characteristic,either positive or negative,that belongs to a person is known as an: A)attitude

B)attribute

C)inclination

D)influence

Answer: B

Q3) The term scope of competence can BEST be described as:

A)skills that individual LP/VNs have acquired

B)legally defined tasks that LP/VNs can perform

C)procedures that LP/VNs can delegate to others

D)skills that are outside the LP/VN's scope of practice

Answer: A

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Page 3

Chapter 2: Holistic Care

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse understands that the holistic view of an individual will include which of the following? (Select all that apply. )

A)physiologic

B)spiritual

C)love and belonging

D)intellectual

E)self-actualization

F)sociocultural

Answer: A,B,D,F

Q2) Which of these statements BEST describes the concept of self-awareness?

A)how a person thinks or feels about him- or herself

B)consciously knowing how one thinks,feels,believes,and behaves at any specific time

C)what a person believes about what activities are appropriate

D)having a group of friends who give a person feedback about what the person is doing

Answer: B

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4

Chapter 3: Nursing History, Education, and Organizations

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Sample Questions

Q1) Maintaining membership in nursing organizations is vital to the nursing profession because the primary function of these organizations is to:

A)offer important social and community contacts

B)represent nurses in collective bargaining

C)protect nurses' general welfare

D)give nurses special discounts for continuing education

Answer: C

Q2) Which of these schools was the FIRST to provide formal education for practical nursing?

A)Nursing Association School of Attendant Nursing

B)Thompson Practical Nursing School

C)St.Mary's College

D)Ballard School

Answer: D

Q3) In which civilization were hospitals first established?

A)Babylonian and Assyrian civilizations

B)ancient Greece civilization

C)Roman civilization of the Roman Empire

D)European civilization of the Middle Ages

Answer: C

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Chapter 4: Legal and Ethical Responsibilities

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse witnesses a client making frightening gestures that indicate potential harm to another client This is an example of:

A)assault

B)battery

C)slander

D)verbal abuse

Q2) When use of restraints is prescribed for a client by a health care provider,which of these actions must the nurse take?

A)Insert a urinary catheter while the client is restrained.

B)Administer psychotropic drugs as ordered.

C)Assign a nursing assistant to sit with the client to gain cooperation.

D)Document client assessment and position changes.

Q3) A nurse who bases actions on behavior that creates the greatest good for the greatest number is following which ethical theory?

A)caring based

B)deontology

C)situational

D)teleology

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Chapter 5: The Health Care Delivery System

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the biggest obstacle to advanced practice RNs (APRNs)practice?

A)lack of prescriptive authority in most states

B)lack of awareness of what APRNs can offer

C)lack of reimbursement from federal agencies

D)lack of health care provider support to order diagnostic tests and procedures

Q2) Factors contributing to decreased hospital population include such things as earlier discharge,growth in availability of outpatient services,and:

A)expectations or demands of consumers

B)advances in technology

C)greater complexity of needs and severity of illness of hospitalized clients

D)growth in number of hospitals

Q3) Nurses do not have legal recognition of the ability to prescribe medications because they lack:

A)medical practice

B)medical licensure

C)pharmaceutical directive

D)prescriptive authority

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Chapter 6: Arenas of Care

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Sample Questions

Q1) The rehabilitation nurse must have outstanding intervention skills in areas such as ambulation,transfers,and:

A)occupational retraining for job skills

B)therapeutic positioning

C)treating contractures

D)pain management

Q2) Which of the following activities would be classified as an instrumental activity of daily living (IADL)?

A)dressing

B)driving a car

C)mobility

D)toileting

Q3) The nurse is caring for a client in a non-acute care setting.Which of the following is considered a non-acute care setting? (Select all that apply. )

A)hospitals

B)long-term care facilities

C)skilled nursing facilities

D)subacute care facilities

E) emergency rooms

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Page 8

Chapter 7: Communication

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Sample Questions

Q1) When the nurse and client are engaged in the process of exchanging information,this process is:

A)communication

B)hearing

C)listening

D)rapport

Q2) Which of these approaches is MOST important when a nurse is explaining a procedure to an elderly client?

A)addressing the client as "Mr. ," "Mrs. ," or "Miss," unless he or she asks to be called by another name

B)discussing the procedure using abstract concepts to show respect for the client's higher education

C)removing any personal articles and turning off the TV,as these may be distracting D)sitting as close as possible,on the bed if necessary,to facilitate an intimate,caring relationship

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9

Chapter 8: Client Teaching

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Sample

Questions

Q1) At the end of a planned teaching session,a nurse responds to a question loosely related to the topic by providing a detailed response that includes some points not covered in the lecture.What type of teaching does this represent?

A)formal teaching

B)informal teaching

C)kinesthetic teaching

D)learning

Q2) When providing client education,it is important to build upon previously learned information,moving from simple concepts to complex concepts.What is this learning principle called?

A)organization

B)reinforcement

C)relevance

D)repetition

Q3) Which of these phrases BEST describes learning?

A)absorbing facts and concepts

B)sharing information with others

C)behavior change resulting from assimilation of information

D)acquisition of knowledge

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Chapter 9: Nursing Processdocumentationinformatics

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which functional health pattern would be MOST appropriate to use to categorize this data: client is awake,alert,and oriented.

A)sleep and rest pattern

B)health management pattern

C)cognitive and perceptual pattern

D)activity and exercise pattern.

Q2) Which step of the nursing process involves the execution of the nursing implementations derived from the nursing care plan?

A)assessment

B)evaluation

C)implementation

D)planning

Q3) In addition to recording,which of these communication tools is based on the nursing process,standards of care,and legal and ethical principles?

A)nursing diagnosis

B)reporting

C)nursing history

D)flow sheets

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11

Chapter 10: Life Span Development

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Sample Questions

Q1) When caring for the preschooler,it is important for the nurse to remember that:

A)frequent use of the word no usually results from fear and stranger anxiety

B)play is the main mechanism for learning

C)teaching is more readily accepted from a peer or with a peer group with similar needs

D)a parent or caregiver should always be with the child during treatment

Q2) Which of the following are ways the nurse can teach promoting wellness in children?

(Select all that apply. )

A)teaching hygiene measures

B)establishing sleep patterns

C)allowing long periods of play

D)scheduling health checkups

E)immunizing when the child is older

F)eating healthy meals

Q3) Which of the following will occur about 2 years after breast buds appear?

A)adolescence

B)maturation

C)menarche

D)puberty

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12

Chapter 11: Cultural Considerations

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse must request an interpreter to provide important information to a client.Which of these nursing diagnoses for the client would be MOST appropriate in this situation?

A)Anxiety

B)Communication,verbal,impaired

C)Health maintenance,altered

D)Social interaction,impaired

Q2) A nurse should recognize the relevance of which of these factors when antihypertensive medication is prescribed for an African American client?

A)A higher dose must be given to produce the same effect as in European Americans.

B)The drug may need to be administered more frequently due to increased metabolism.

C)Lukewarm tap water is preferred when taking medications.

D)The drug may be refused because of belief that God will heal through prayer and faith.

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13

Chapter 12: Stress, Adaptation, and Anxiety

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Sample Questions

Q1) Defense mechanisms are considered to be maladaptive when they:

A)are evoked in nonstressful situations

B)are unconscious decisions

C)become the only way of responding to a threat

D)do not protect the mind from stressors

Q2) A client is diagnosed with cancer and uses denial to protect the mind from the anxiety of the condition.The client has used which process to deal with the situation?

A)adaptive measures

B)crisis interventions

C)defense mechanisms

D)maladaptive measures

Q3) When stressors evoke an ineffective response in a person,what is the result?

A)anxiety

B)catharsis

C)distress

D)eustress

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Chapter 13: Loss, Grief, and Death

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Sample Questions

Q1) What kind of care for terminally ill clients is provided when the main goal is allowing the client to die with dignity?

A)home

B)hospice

C)intensive

D)palliative

Q2) When a nurse is talking with a young child about the death of a grandparent,which of these statements reflects the BEST approach?

A)"Grandpa has just gone away."

B)"Grandpa is sleeping quietly."

C)"Grandpa had a severe stroke that compromised his cerebrovascular system."

D)"Grandpa died because he was very sick."

Q3) After experiencing a loss,a person moves to which of these adaptive responses?

A)mourning

B)bereavement

C)separation

D)anxiety

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Chapter 14: Wellness Concepts

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the leading cause of death in the United States that can be controlled by controlling risk factors?

A)heart disease

B)AIDS

C)suicide

D)kidney disease

Q2) How often should an individual have a dental exam?

A)depends upon age

B)every 2 to 3 years until age 40,then yearly thereafter

C)every 6 to 12 months throughout life

D)depends upon the individual's overall health

Q3) A longtime cigarette smoker is considering smoking cessation classes and asks the nurse,"How long after giving up the habit do health risks begin to decrease?" Which of these responses by the nurse is correct?

A)"Almost immediately."

B)"In 1 to 3 years."

C)"In 5 to 7 years."

D)"In 10 to 15 years."

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Chapter 15: Self-Concept

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is assisting the client to increase self-esteem.Through the use of teaching empowerment,which of the following interventions will help meet that goal? (Select all that apply. )

A)using assertiveness skills

B)not feeling a part of a group

C)increasing positive self-image

D)being a part of effective change

E)focusing on limiting options

F)believing in making a difference

Q2) Intentional self-inflicted tissue damage by adolescents,such as cutting their arms,occurs more frequently than reported because of:

A)parental embarrassment

B)fear of losing child custody

C)the risk of incarceration

D)the secretive nature of the disorder

Q3) According to Erik Erikson,which of the following statements is TRUE?

A)Infants need to develop a sense of focus.

B)Toddlers develop a sense of guilt if their task is not mastered.

C)Preschoolers actively explore their own body.

D)School-age children do not seek the approval of others.

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Chapter 16: Spirituality

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is caring for a client who expresses,"I believe that God will help the physician to heal me and make my health better." This is an example of:

A)hope

B)values

C)spirituality

D)faith

Q2) Which of the following statements about spirituality is TRUE?

A)There is no evidence of a connection between spirituality and health.

B)Spiritual nursing requires specialized training in order to perform.

C)Spirituality and values are the same.

D)Spirituality is the core of a person's being.

Q3) Which of the following would be the MOST appropriate evaluation criteria for a client experiencing spiritual distress?

A)The client shared thoughts,feelings,and beliefs.

B)The client does not have religious affiliation.

C)The client verbalized anger at God for the current medical problem.

D)The client demonstrated lack of interest when clergy visited.

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18

Chapter 17: Complementary Alternative Therapies

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Sample Questions

Q1) The client uses a technique of releasing blocked energy within an individual when specific points along the meridians are pressed or massaged by the practitioner's fingers,thumbs,and heels of the hands.This is an example of:

A)acupressure

B)acupuncture

C)therapeutic massage

D)therapeutic touch

Q2) Which of the following clients would be the BEST candidate for touch therapy?

A)a client experiencing pain that may be related to stress or musculoskeletal stiffness

B)a client with burns or very sensitive skin

C)a client who is angry or distrustful

D)a client who has been neglected,abused,or injured

Q3) Amino acids that are produced in the brain and other body sites and act as chemical communicators are called:

A)antioxidants

B)neuropeptides

C)neurotransmitters

D)phytochemicals

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Chapter 18: Basic Nutrition

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Sample Questions

Q1) In addition to age,height,and weight,a client's nutritional assessment should include which of these factors?

A)overall health status

B)cultural and family influences

C)use of over-the-counter medications

D)identification of the person responsible for food preparation

Q2) Which of these dietary prescriptions would the nurse anticipate for a client whose medical diagnosis is hypertension and early renal failure?

A)a fat-controlled diet

B)NPO

C)a regular diet

D)a sodium-restricted diet

Q3) Which of these approaches is used to determine if an individual's weight is appropriate for his or her height?

A)anthropometric measures

B)basal energy requirements

C)basal metabolic rate

D)body mass index

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Chapter 19: Rest and Sleep

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Sample Questions

Q1) Many factors can influence the quantity and quality of rest and sleep.The nurse caring for a client experiencing sleep disturbances identifies which of the following as contributing factors? (Select all that apply. )

A)hunger

B)pain

C)noise

D)exercising

E)caffeine-free sodas

F)time zone changes

Q2) When a nurse is assessing a client's altered sleep patterns,which of these questions is MOST important to be included?

A)"Do you experience fatigue,confusion,or irritability during the day?"

B)"How much sleep do you expect to get every night?"

C)"How would you rate the quality of your sleep?"

D)"Do you get up several times during the night?"

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21

Chapter 20: Safety-Hygiene

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Sample Questions

Q1) To extinguish a small fire that started when a cigarette was accidentally thrown into a waste can,which type of extinguisher should the nurse select?

A)class A

B)class B

C)class B or C

D)class A,B,or C

Q2) A nurse should instruct a client taking a tub bath to do which of the following FIRST if feeling weak or faint?

A)Add cooler water to the tub.

B)Call the nurse.

C)Pull the plug.

D)Get out of the water as soon as possible.

Q3) Which of the following would pose a safety hazard in a hospital environment?

A)Side rails are raised for clients of all ages.

B)An incontinent client has urinated on the floor.

C)A dietary tray is left on a bedside table.

D)The door to a client bathroom is open.

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22

Chapter 21: Infection Controlasepsis

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is caring for a client who had abdominal surgery.Which of the following risk factors increase this client's susceptibility to infection? (Select all that apply. )

A)invasive procedures

B)rupture of amniotic membrane

C)trauma

D)inadequate primary defenses

E)immunosuppression

Q2) When providing discharge instructions to a surgical client,the nurse should include which of the following interventions? (Select all that apply. )

A)keep bed linens clean and dry

B)take antibiotics as ordered by physician

C)change dressing once a week

D)wash hands thoroughly twice a day

E)call the physician if temperature is elevated

F)wear gloves when changing the dressing

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23

Chapter 22: Standard Precautions and Isolation

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse observes a certified nursing assistant (CNA)wearing one pair of gloves when taking vital signs on all assigned clients.What action should the nurse take immediately?

A)Ask the CNA to explain the rationale for this in a private conference.

B)Ignore the behavior because the CNA is following agency procedure.

C)Report the CNA to the charge nurse.

D)Teach the CNA the correct procedure,stressing the rationale.

Q2) The nurse's responsibility in reducing the client's risk for infection includes which of the following? (Select all that apply. )

A)hand hygiene for all who enter the room

B)proper protective equipment

C)not allowing visitors

D)keeping environment clean

E)follow isolation policy

Q3) A client who has sustained extensive burns will require what type of isolation precautions?

A)barrier

B)reverse

C)standard

D)transmission-based

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Chapter 23: Bioterrorism

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Sample Questions

Q1) In an emergency situation,which interventions should the nurse take during initial care of a client suspected of exposure to anthrax? (Select all that apply)

A)Instruct client to remove clothing with minimal handling.

B)Place clothing in a labeled,paper bag.

C)Instruct the client to shower with soap and water.

D)Ensure that sterile gloves are used when in contact with clients.

E)Consult physician regarding post-exposure prophylactic antibiotic treatment.

Q2) The nurse is aware that the extent of the injury from a chemical warfare agent depends on the chemical used and:

A)the amount used and time exposed to the chemical

B)the amount used and the route of exposure to the chemical

C)the time exposed to the chemical and the route of exposure to the chemical

D)the time exposed to the chemical and if assistance is available

Q3) The nurse anticipates the client exposed to sarin through ingestion will be treated with which of the following known antidotes?

A)atropine chloride and phosgene sulfate

B)atropine sulfide and pralidoxime magnesium

C)atropine sulfate and phosgene chloride

D)atropine sulfate and pralidoxime chloride

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Page 25

Chapter 24: Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Balance

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of these terms describes a substance that when dissociated produces ions that will combine with hydrogen ions?

A)acid

B)base

C)salt

D)buffer

Q2) What term refers to the condition in which a person has a potassium level of less than 3.5 mEq/L?

A)hyperkalemia

B)hypernatremia

C)hypokalemia

D)hyponatremia

Q3) When caring for a client with hypomagnesemia,the nurse should also expect which of these lab results?

A)decreased levels of calcium and potassium

B)decreased levels of phosphorus and sodium

C)increased levels of calcium and potassium

D)increased levels of phosphorus and sodium

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Chapter 25: Medication Administration and IV Therapy

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Sample Questions

Q1) A client complains of "sudden crushing chest pressure" and is having difficulty breathing.A stat dose of nitroglycerin is ordered.What action should the nurse take?

A)Administer this medication at the earliest convenient time.

B)Administer this medication immediately.

C)Administer this medication on a prescribed schedule.

D)Administer this medication as needed.

Q2) A client is to receive a medication at 9:00 A.M.To prevent a medication error by administering at the incorrect time,the nurse can administer the medication anytime between:

A)8:00 and 10:00 A.M.

B)8:30 and 9:00 A.M.

C)8:30 and 9:30 A.M.

D)8:45 and 9:15 A.M.

Q3) When preparing an intradermal injection,the nurse would use which of these syringes and needles?

A)25-gauge 1/2-inch needle,insulin syringe

B)25-gauge 3/8-inch needle,tuberculin syringe

C)23-gauge 1-inch needle,3 mL syringe

D)21-gauge 1 1/2-inch needle,5 mL syringe

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Page 27

Chapter 26: Assessment

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Sample Questions

Q1) When a nurse asks a client to focus on an object in the distance and then move her gaze to a nearby object,what process is the nurse assessing?

A)accommodation

B)direct light reflex

C)pupil shape test

D)pupil size test

Q2) A client's blood pressure readings have shown great variation since admission.Which of these actions should the nurse take next?

A)Assume the findings reflect the client's medical condition.

B)Determine whether the blood pressure cuff being used is the correct size for this client.

C)Report findings to the health care provider.

D)Review the medications ordered and the administration schedule to determine any effect on blood pressure.

Q3) A mother called the physician's office,reporting that her son had a temperature of 102.6 degrees Fahrenheit.The nurse is to record the information as a Celsius temperature.What should the nurse document?

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Chapter 27: Pain Management

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Sample

Questions

Q1) A client whose dislocated shoulder was reduced today is experiencing moderate pain at the site of injury and across the back.The nurse administers a prescribed oral pain medication,repositions the client,and applies an ice pack to the shoulder.The client still complains of pain and requests a cup of hot water to drink to "wash the pain" from the system.Which of these actions should the nurse take?

A)Call the health care provider to request an order for the water.

B)Give the client the water.

C)Inform the nursing supervisor that a client may need a psychiatric consultation.

D)Tell the client that water will not bring pain relief.

Q2) Which theory of pain proposes that pain can be relieved by blocking the transmission of pain impulses to the brain by physical modalities and altering the individual's thought processes,emotions,or other behaviors?

A)gate control theory

B)Kussmaul's theory

C)perception modulation

D)transduction

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Chapter 28: Diagnostic Tests

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Sample Questions

Q1) A client has just returned to the nursing unit following a cardiac catheterization.The catheter was placed in the right femoral artery.The test was uneventful.Which instruction should the nurse include on the nursing care plan?

A)Check the urine for hematuria for 24 hours.

B)Inspect the hands for signs of circulatory problems.

C)Keep the client on bed rest for 6 hours.

D)Restrict the client's fluid intake.

Q2) A client's differential count shows the following values: segs 71%,bands 8%.What do these findings indicate?

A)chronic disease

B)normalcy

C)possible allergic reaction

D)possible bacterial infection

Q3) What does urine specific gravity measure?

A)acidity or alkalinity of urine

B)actual weight of urine in g/mL

C)number of solutes in a solution

D)presence or absence of bacteria in the urine

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Chapter 29: Basic Procedures

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Sample Questions

Q1) To determine the correct size of below-the-knee antiembolic stockings for a client,the nurse should measure the distance from the:

A)Achilles tendon to the gluteal fold and midthigh circumference

B)knee to the ankle

C)Achilles tendon to the popliteal fold and the midcalf circumference

D)knee to the toes

Q2) To assess circulation in a client's legs,the nurse would take pulses at which of these locations?

A)temporal

B)apical

C)radial

D)popliteal

Q3) What is the first step in performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)on an adult?

A)Place the client on a firm surface.

B)Open the airway.

C)Assess for responsiveness.

D)Activate the local emergency response system.

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Chapter 30: Intermediate Procedures

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62 Verified Questions

62 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44562

Sample Questions

Q1) A client requires nasopharyngeal suctioning.To ensure the suction catheter is properly placed,the nurse should do which of the following?

A)Ensure a sterile suction set is available at the client's bedside.

B)Check the function of the suction device before beginning the procedure.

C)Use the estimated distance from the tip of the client's nose to the earlobe,and grasp catheter at this point.

D)Advance the catheter gently until resistance is met,and continue rotating the catheter until secretions are obtained.

Q2) While a nurse is pouring a cleansing solution into a container on a sterile field,some of the solution splashes over the side of the container.This field is now considered to be: A)sterile

B)medically aseptic

C)surgically aseptic

D)contaminated

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Chapter 31: Advanced Procedures

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31 Verified Questions

31 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44563

Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is collecting equipment to start an intravenous (IV)infusion in an adult client.Which gauge IV catheter should the nurse select?

A)18 to 19

B)20 to 22

C)23 to 24

D)25 to 26

Q2) What is the MOST common method of obtaining blood specimens from a client?

A)skin puncture

B)arterial stick

C)venipuncture

D)intravascular catheter

Q3) A client is to receive 3,000 mL of 5% dextrose in normal saline over a 24-hour period.The infusion set delivers 15 drops per mL.What is the flow rate in drops per minute?

A)15

B)31

C)45

D)62

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33

Chapter 32: Anesthesia

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23 Verified Questions

23 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44564

Sample Questions

Q1) A client is experiencing residual effect of sedation that interferes with their ability to remember any instructions given during or soon after the procedure.This is an example of:

A)amnesia

B)selective memory

C)sympathetic memory loss

D)synergism

Q2) A client's preanesthetic preparation for surgery in which general anesthesia will be administered includes which of the following? (Select all that apply. )

A)being admitted to the hospital the day prior to the surgery

B)withholding of food and fluids for at least 8 hours before the procedure

C)signing a form indicating informed consent for administration of anesthesia

D)taking regularly scheduled medications on the day of surgery with a minimal amount of water

E)limiting visitors to reduce stress and anxiety prior to surgery

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Chapter 33: Surgery

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42 Verified Questions

42 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Surgical clients who have chronic respiratory diseases are MOST likely to develop which postoperative complication?

A)atelectasis

B)stroke

C)hypovolemic shock

D)myocardial infarction

Q2) The entire surgical team is responsible for prevention of infection,and maintaining the sterile field in the operating room in the area that includes:

A)all members of the sterile team

B)all members of the surgical team

C)the client and the surgical site itself

D)the entire operating room

Q3) Clients who have diabetes mellitus are prone to what postoperative complications?

A)atelectasis

B)hemorrhage

C)infection

D)pressure sores

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Chapter 34: Oncology

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64 Verified Questions

64 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44566

Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is caring for a client with cancer who is receiving chemotherapy.The client develops thrombocytopenia related to bone marrow dysfunction.The priority intervention for this client would be to monitor the:

A)client for skin infections

B)client's temperature

C)client for bleeding

D)client for pathological fractures

Q2) When medicating a client for cancer pain,the nursing goal should be to:

A)avoid the use of narcotics for as long as possible

B)give the correct amount of medication in relation to the client's level of pain

C)medicate the client within 10 minutes of each request for pain medication

D)prevent pain rather than treat it after its occurrence

Q3) Appropriate nursing interventions for a client with cachexia would include which of the following?

A)assisting in self-care activities to improve outward appearance

B)encouraging the client to eat any foods that are appealing

C)scheduling regular exercise time

D)providing a bland diet high in vitamins A and D

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Chapter 35: Respiratory System

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74 Verified Questions

74 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube that has accidentally dislodged.Which of the following would be appropriate actions for the nurse to take?

(Select all that apply. )

A)notify the physician

B)notify the client's family

C)cover the opening with a sterile dressing

D)cover the opening with petrolatum gauze

E)quickly reinsert the tube to prevent lung collapse

F)monitor for dyspnea

Q2) What is the result of the difference between the pressure within the pleural space and the pressure of the outside air?

A)It allows the lungs to push oxygen out into the bloodstream.

B)It prevents the lungs from collapsing on exhalation.

C)It pulls air into the pleural space.

D)It pushes air from the pleural cavity into the lungs.

Q3) Which of these tests are used to confirm a diagnosis of TB?

A)Mantoux skin test and urinalysis

B)chest X-ray and sputum culture

C)gastric analysis and patch test

D)blood culture and computerized tomography (CT)scan

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Chapter 36: Cardiovascular System

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61 Verified Questions

61 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44568

Sample Questions

Q1) The main goal of treatment for a client who has rheumatic fever is to:

A)alter electrical conduction within the heart

B)prepare for cardiac rehabilitation

C)prevent spread to others in the family

D)treat the inflammation

Q2) A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT)may be asymptomatic or may have which of the following?

A)a positive Homans' sign

B)cyanosis of the entire leg

C)mottling of the leg or foot

D)cool temperature

Q3) Which of these symptoms is associated with left-sided heart failure?

A)increased sputum production

B)cyanosis

C)increased blood pressure

D)edema of the ankles and lower legs

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Chapter 37: Hematologic and Lymphatic Systems

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49 Verified Questions

49 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse can expect the superficial lymph nodes MOST easily be palpated:

A)when semilunar valves become blocked

B)at any time

C)when they are at rest

D)when they become infected and swollen

Q2) Parenteral administration of iron should be administered by which route?

A)intradermal

B)intramuscular Z-track

C)intravenous

D)subcutaneous

Q3) What is the function of the spleen?

A)acts against foreign particles such as viruses and bacteria

B)carries cellular components through the body to be released into circulation or to body tissues

C)ingests and destroys foreign particles,damaged cells,and cellular debris

D)removes old RBCs,platelets,and microorganisms from the blood

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Chapter 38: Gastrointestinal System

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45 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) A client is being treated for bleeding esophageal varices with a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube.Nursing care will include which of these approaches?

A)allowing the client to assume a position of choice

B)emptying the drainage bottle and recording output

C)periodically deflating the balloon

D)providing sips of ice water every 30 to 45 minutes

Q2) When caring for a client who is obese,which of the following are risk factors for increased complications? (Select all that apply. )

A)immobility

B)skin breakdown

C)hypocoagulopathy

D)increased dietary needs

E)difficulty breathing

F)safety

Q3) Which of these factors contributes to a client developing gastritis?

A)exposure to irritating substances such as ibuprofen

B)impaired esophageal sphincter function

C)high-fat diet

D)viral infection

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Page 40

Chapter 39: Urinary System

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48 Verified Questions

48 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Discharge teaching for a client who has been treated for pyelonephritis would include which statement?

A)"Report any sudden weight loss of 2 pounds per week."

B)"Get plenty of rest,even when you are feeling better."

C)"Avoid crowds where you may become reinfected."

D)"Practice perineal hygiene by cleansing from back to front."

Q2) What is a major goal in the medical management of a client who has polycystic kidney disease?

A)management of hematuria

B)prevention of urinary retention

C)relief of bladder spasms

D)preservation of kidney function

Q3) A client who has urolithiasis asks the nurse what causes this condition to develop.Which of the following factors will the nurse explain predisposes the development of calculi?

A)thyroid disorders

B)recurrent urinary tract infections (UTIs)

C)increased physical activity

D)eating a high-protein diet

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Chapter 40: Musculoskeletal System

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40 Verified Questions

40 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The client is referred to a branch of medicine that deals with the prevention or correction of disorders and diseases of the musculoskeletal system.The physician will be a member of which branch of medicine?

A)immunity

B)orthopedics

C)oncology

D)neurology

Q2) Client education for crutch walking for the client with a full left leg cast includes which of the following?

A)The tripod position is the basic stance.

B)Place crutch tips 12 to 15 inches in front of and lateral to the client's foot.

C)Change crutch tips frequently.

D)Place weight equally on the axilla pieces when moving the affected leg.

Q3) What is the major disadvantage of open reduction internal fixation (ORIF)?

A)client rejection of implanted device

B)introducing infection into the bone

C)permanent damage to the central nervous system

D)potential for incomplete repair of the fracture

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Chapter 41: Neurological System

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42 Verified Questions

42 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which neurological movement disorder has prominent behavioral manifestations,including motor tics,repetitive involuntary vocalizations,and copropraxia?

A)Alzheimer's disease

B)Guillain-Barré syndrome

C)Huntington's disease

D)Tourette's syndrome

Q2) The chemical substance that excites,inhibits,or modifies the response of another neuron is an example of:

A)cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)

B)myelin

C)a neurotransmitter

D)white matter

Q3) Which test is done to identify the causative agent of encephalitis or meningitis?

A)blood culture

B)complete blood count

C)lumbar puncture

D)serum electrolytes

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Chapter 42: Sensory System

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57 Verified Questions

57 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44574

Sample Questions

Q1) The client is seeing a specialist who provides medical evaluation of hearing disorders and medical and surgical interventions.The nurse explains the client will see:

A)an audiologist

B)a hearing-aid specialist

C)an ophthalmologist

D)an otolaryngologist

Q2) In which refractive disorder is the refractive system weak or the eyeball flattened,causing vision beyond 20 feet to be normal but poor at close range?

A)astigmatism

B)hyperopia

C)myopia

D)strabismus

Q3) In which refractive disorder do the refractive surfaces of the eye have unequal curvatures that create visual distortion?

A)astigmatism

B)hyperopia

C)myopia

D)strabismus

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44

Chapter 43: Endocrine System

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46 Verified Questions

46 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse should teach the client to monitor for which complication of diabetic neuropathy?

A)arthrosclerosis

B)diabetic retinopathy

C)injury and undetected foot injury

D)kidney failure

Q2) The nurse is caring for a client experiencing an excess secretion of growth hormone.The nurse is aware that this is characterized in which condition?

A)acromegaly

B)Addison's disease

C)Cushing's syndrome

D)Hashimoto's disease

Q3) In caring for a client who is taking oral hypoglycemic agents,the nurse recognizes these medications are used in the treatment of which type of diabetes?

A)gestational,requiring therapy for a very short time

B)type 1,not stable with insulin administration only

C)type 2,not controlled with diet and exercise

D)type 1 and type 2,not controlled by diet and exercise

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Chapter 44: Reproductive System

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61 Verified Questions

61 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is aware that the hormone released monthly by the anterior pituitary gland,causing the ovary to ripen one or more ova,is:

A)diethylstilbestrol (DES)

B)follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

C)human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)

D)progesterone

Q2) A client who had a TURP becomes confused and agitated.His pulse has become slow and bounding,his systolic blood pressure has increased,and his diastolic blood pressure has decreased.These signs would indicate to the nurse that the client has developed which of the following complications?

A)hemorrhage

B)infection

C)thrombosis

D)water intoxication

Q3) What is the MOST common complication of surgical treatment of prostate cancer?

A)lymphocele formation

B)urinary incontinence

C)fecal incontinence

D)bladder distention

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Page 46

Chapter 45: Sexually Transmitted Diseases

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28 Verified Questions

28 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) In addition to prior treatment for sexually transmitted infections (STIs)and sexual orientation,which of the following is a pertinent part of a client history when screening for sexually transmitted diseases?

A)year of first sexual intercourse

B)racial origin

C)attendance at sex education classes

D)number of sexual partners over the last 6 months

Q2) Client teaching should include that human papillomavirus (HPV)can lead to the formation of:

A)chancres

B)enlarged inguinal lymph nodes

C)genital warts

D)herpetic lesions

Q3) In addition to sexual contact,client teaching should include that the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)virus can be transmitted by which mode?

A)respiratory

B)from baby to mother

C)blood

D)fecal

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Chapter 46: Integumentary System

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57 Verified Questions

57 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44578

Sample Questions

Q1) What is considered the BEST treatment for a port-wine angioma?

A)surgical debridement

B)cosmetics

C)radical surgical excision

D)skin grafting over the lesion

Q2) Which of these dietary modifications is indicated for a client recuperating from a moderate to severe burn?

A)protein and caloric intake increased by twice the regular requirements

B)carbohydrates increased by one-half the normal requirements

C)fat increased by two to four times the regular requirements

D)supplemental fiber

Q3) A basic rule for the nurse when caring for clients who are experiencing impaired skin integrity related to an infectious disorder of the skin would be to:

A)avoid the use of soaps due to their drying effect

B)cleanse the skin with comfortably hot water to facilitate removal of crusts and ointment residues

C)massage the skin in an outward circle to facilitate healing

D)wear gloves

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Chapter 47: Immune System

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45 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The majority of clients who have oral hairy leukoplakia receive which kind of treatment?

A)none

B)acyclovir sodium

C)nystatin suspension

D)oral fluconazole

Q2) The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).The nurse understands that the therapeutic management of the client does NOT include:

A)using antiretrovirals to prolong the HIV stage

B)preventing opportunistic infections from occurring

C)radiation to inhibit HIV replication

D)medications to treat opportunistic infections

Q3) A nurse is clarifying information for a client whose ELISA test is negative.After reviewing the test results with the client,which aspect should be included?

A)Assess the client's risk behavior and strategies for reducing risk.

B)Make a follow-up appointment for further testing.

C)Review the symptoms of disease progression.

D)Discuss the medication regimen.

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Page 49

Chapter 48: Mental Illness

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Sample Questions

Q1) When a central nervous system stimulant such as Adderall is prescribed for a client who has attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD),the nurse must instruct the client's parents to assess the medication's immediate effectiveness by looking for:

A)a paradoxical reaction

B)improved grades at school

C)increased activity level

D)increased insomnia and decreased appetite

Q2) In addition to flashbacks,clients with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)may exhibit or report which of these signs or symptoms?

A)diminished startle response

B)insomnia

C)hallucinations

D)hypervigilant

Q3) What are the MOST common types of hallucinations?

A)auditory and visual

B)olfactory and tactile

C)tactile and visual

D)visual and olfactory

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Chapter 49: Substance Abuse

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37 Verified Questions

37 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44581

Sample Questions

Q1) When a person has prolonged abuse of opioids,which of these conditions may occur?

A)cirrhosis

B)esophageal varices

C)fecal impaction

D)overdose

Q2) Which of these statements about marijuana use in the United States is TRUE?

A)Marijuana use has never been legal.

B)Marijuana can be obtained today with a health care provider's prescription.

C)Marijuana could be prescribed legally until 1941.

D)Recreational marijuana use is legal in some states today.

Q3) When a person makes up information to fill in memory gaps as a result of abusing or depending on alcohol,what term describes this process?

A)confabulation

B)impaired thinking

C)lying

D)moral deterioration

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Chapter 50: The Older Adult

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Sample Questions

Q1) If an older adult client experiences frequency of urination,the nurse should:

A)make no changes in the client's dietary intake and keep the client from self-limiting fluids

B)assess the client for a urinary tract infection

C)place the client on incontinence precautions to minimize embarrassment if accidents occur

D)restrict fluid intake because frequency of urination is a normal result of physical changes that occur in the older adult client

Q2) Which of these musculoskeletal changes is a result of normal aging?

A)Joints develop degenerative changes.

B)Coordination and endurance are unaffected.

C)Muscle mass and elasticity remain unchanged.

D)Osteoporosis is to be expected.

Q3) Which of these neurological changes are part of normal aging?

A)Intellect remains unchanged,but capacity for learning is diminished.

B)Need for sleep decreases.

C)Short-term memory may be somewhat diminished without changes in long-term memory.

D)Cerebral blood flow and oxygen use increases.

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Page 52

Chapter 51: Ambulatory, Restorative, and Palliative Care in Community Settings

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following clients would MOST likely benefit for rehabilitation/restorative care services?

A)35-year-old client with H1N1 influenza

B)58-year-old client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD)

C)79-year-old client with advanced dementia

D)62-year-old client with left side paralysis resulting from a stroke

Q2) Which of the following are sources that can assist in covering the cost of extended care? (Select all that apply. )

A)Medicare and Medicaid

B)state funds

C)supplemental security income

D)client's savings

E)long-term care insurance

Q3) The nurse employed at an extended-care facilities is aware that which of the following conditions are MOST likely to contribute to a decline in functional abilities?

A)influenza and urinary tract infections

B)pneumonia and renal stones

C)pneumonia and urinary tract infections

D)upper respiratory infections and constipation

Page 53

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Chapter 52: Responding to Emergencies

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Sample Questions

Q1) A client has second- and third-degree burns to the legs and feet.The nurse assesses the client has an increased heart rate,decreased blood pressure,and cool and clammy skin.The nurse should recognize this client is in what type of shock?

A)anaphylactic

B)cardiogenic

C)hypovolemic

D)toxic

Q2) When initiating cardiopulmonary resuscitation on a hospitalized client,which of these actions should the nurse take to promote return of respiration?

A)Ask a client's family member to perform mouth-to-mouth resuscitation.

B)Personally give breaths using mouth-to-nose technique.

C)Request that an endotracheal tube (ET)be placed by qualified personnel.

D)Use a bag-valve-mask resuscitator.

Q3) Treatment of clients who have any type of eye trauma should include:

A)antibiotic eye medication

B)application of a warm saline dressing

C)patching of the affected eye

D)patching of the opposite eye

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54

Chapter 53: Integration

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Sample Questions

Q1) A 68-year-old female client notices the gradual development of muscular weakness,resting tremors in the upper extremities,and some muscular rigidity.Her health care provider makes a tentative diagnosis of Parkinson's disease and refers the client to a neurological specialist who confirms the diagnosis.What information could the nurse provide to the client and her family about the nature of Parkinson's disease? What are some of the things that the client and her family should prepare to cope with as the disease progresses? Describe key aspects of a teaching plan for the client and her family.

Q2) A 60-year-old male client has just been diagnosed as having type 2 diabetes.The client is 30 pounds overweight and knows very little about his condition.What are the major points that the nurse should include in this client's teaching plan?

Q3) A client has just been diagnosed as having type 2 diabetes.The client is a 60-year-old male who is 30 pounds overweight.He is married and has two grown children.What are several things the nurse who is assigned to this client needs to do before developing a plan of care for the client?

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Chapter 54: Prenatal Care

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36 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The obstetrician performed a vaginal examination on a client in her third trimester and gave a sudden push on the cervix.Later,the client asks the nurse what the procedure was and why it was done.The MOST appropriate response from the nurse would be:

A)ballottement (fetal rebound)

B)Braxton Hicks (contractions)

C)lightening (uterine reflex)

D)quickening (fetal movement)

Q2) Which of these statements regarding prenatal risk factors is TRUE?

A)Fathers who smoke can contribute to decreased birth weight in their infants.

B)Fetal alcohol syndrome is associated with excessive intake of alcohol during the second trimester of pregnancy.

C)Illicit drug use is responsible for a majority of spontaneous abortions and stillbirths.

D)Mothers who are not immune to rubella should be immunized during the first trimester of pregnancy to prevent the fetus from being exposed to rubella.

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Chapter 55: Complications of Pregnancy

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following does NOT demonstrate high-risk factors in pregnancy in general classification?

A)17-year-old female

B)abortion

C)dropped out of school

D)unmarried

Q2) A high-risk client in labor is having electronic fetal monitoring (EFM).Which of these interpretations should the nurse recognize as normal,requiring no intervention?

A)a baseline rate of 180 bpm

B)early decelerations

C)late decelerations

D)variable decelerations

Q3) A pregnant client is admitted at 36 weeks' gestation with documented uterine contractions,ruptured membranes,and a 5-centimeter cervical dilation.The nurse should anticipate the health care provider will:

A)attempt to stop labor by ordering tocolytics

B)make no attempt to stop labor

C)order complete bed rest in the Trendelenburg position

D)start an oxytocin IV to facilitate delivery

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Page 57

Chapter 56: The Birth Process

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Sample Questions

Q1) In describing the intensity of uterine contractions,the nurse uses the term moderate if the fundus feels like what body part?

A)chin

B)forehead

C)nose

D)thigh

Q2) Which of these designations accurately describes the fetal position during delivery when its face is directed toward the health care provider's left hand and the mother's sacrum?

A)LOA (left occiput anterior)

B)LOP (left occiput posterior)

C)ROA (right occiput anterior)

D)ROP (right occiput posterior)

Q3) To what does the term fetal presentation refer?

A)the part of the fetus that enters the pelvis first

B)relationship of the fetal body parts to one another

C)relationship of the landmark on the presenting part to the four quadrants of the mother's pelvis

D)relationship of the fetus's long axis to the mother's long axis

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Page 58

Chapter 57: Postpartum Care

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Sample Questions

Q1) The Newborns' and Mothers' Health Protection Act of 1995 mandates that all health care plans require a minimal postpartum hospital stay of how many hours for vaginal and cesarean births?

A)vaginal,24;Cesarean,48

B)vaginal,48;Cesarean,96

C)vaginal,72;Cesarean,72

D)vaginal,72;Cesarean,96

Q2) What are the usual causes of maternal afterpains?

A)cesarean delivery and prolonged labor

B)multiparity and breastfeeding

C)postpartal hemorrhage and puerperal infection

D)uterine involution and breast engorgement

Q3) A breastfeeding client who is 2 weeks' postpartum tells the nurse her nipples are very sore and she is able to breastfeed for only short periods.The nurse should recognize the client is at risk for developing:

A)metritis

B)mastitis

C)thrombophlebitis

D)vaginitis

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Page 59

Chapter 58: Newborn Care

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Sample Questions

Q1) An infant admitted to the newborn nursery has generalized swelling of the scalp.The nurse should recognize this condition as:

A)caput succedaneum,which generally requires no treatment

B)cephalhematoma,which will require aspiration of blood from the scalp

C)an early sign of hydrocephalus,which requires no treatment

D)an early sign of an intracranial hemorrhage

Q2) A new mother expresses concern over the tiny white bumps on her baby's nose and chin.Which of these explanations should the nurse give to the mother?

A)The baby's face has probably not been washed adequately.

B)These bumps are normal in newborns and will go away by themselves.

C)These bumps are an indication of a milk allergy.

D)This skin eruption is an early indication of a systemic infection.

Q3) Which of these statements about circumcision of an infant is TRUE?

A)It is considered to be a routine procedure for male infants.

B)It is an elective procedure for full-term,healthy infants.

C)Anesthesia is generally not required.

D)Its benefits outweigh any disadvantages.

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Page 60

Chapter 59: Basics of Pediatric Care

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

25 Verified Questions

25 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44591

Sample Questions

Q1) Keflex 500 mg p.o.q.6.h.for a child weighing 99 lbs.You have Keflex 250 mg capsules available.The recommended daily dose for a child is 25 to 50 mg/kg/day in four equal dosages q.6.h.

What is the child's weight in kg? _________

Safe recommended dosage or range for this child is ________ to _________. Is this order safe?_________

Q2) A 3-year-old child is being discharged home after a tonsillectomy.In addition to specific information about the child's postoperative care,which of these aspects should the nurse include in the child's discharge plan?

A)Tell the caregivers that they may notice changes in toileting patterns.

B)Explain to the caregivers that the child may develop behavioral changes such as regression.

C)Review caregiver dynamics to be sure the child will be safe.

D)Recap the child's hospitalization experience,including details of the surgery performed.

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Chapter 60: Infants With Special Needs: Birth to 12 Months

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

34 Verified Questions

34 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44592

Sample Questions

Q1) In addition to administering antibiotics,nursing care of the infant with meningitis includes which of these interventions?

A)maintaining isolation for a minimum of 72 hours

B)monitoring neurological status every 4 hours

C)observing the infant's developmental status

D)ensuring the parents receive prophylactic treatment

Q2) The main objective of treatment of hyperbilirubinemia is to reduce the amount of which element in the infant's blood?

A)conjugated bilirubin

B)lumirubin

C)unconjugated bilirubin

D)urobilinogen

Q3) A 6-month-old client with a severe congenital heart defect is likely to exhibit signs and symptoms of:

A)congestive heart failure

B)hyaline membrane disease

C)intussusception

D)iron-deficiency anemia

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Chapter 61: Common Problems: 1-18 Years

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

36 Verified Questions

36 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44593

Sample Questions

Q1) A female client will be receiving isotretinoin (Accutane)for nodulocystic acne.The nurse should instruct the client to:

A)recognize the risk of developing "super infection" during therapy

B)take prescribed contraceptives before,during,and after treatment

C)restrict intake of allergens such as chocolate and spicy foods

D)expect immediate improvement in acne

Q2) Due to incomplete ossification of bones,what type of fractures are common among young children?

A)compound

B)greenstick

C)multiple

D)open

Q3) When a nurse is providing education to the caregiver of a child who is autistic,which of these aspects MUST be included?

A)avoiding overprotection or coddling

B)exposing their child to varied experiences as often as possible

C)insisting their child perform daily self-care tasks

D)keeping schedules and caregivers as consistent as possible

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

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