Foundations of Microbiology Exam Review
Course Introduction
Foundations of Microbiology introduces students to the principles and applications of microbiology, emphasizing the structure, function, classification, and genetics of microorganisms. The course explores microbial diversity, metabolism, growth, and interactions with humans and the environment, including an overview of immunology, pathogenicity, and the role of microbes in health and disease. Practical laboratory skills are developed through experiments in microbial culture, identification, and control, providing a crucial basis for understanding both theoretical concepts and real-world implications in healthcare, biotechnology, and environmental science.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology A Clinical Approach 2nd Edition by Anthony Strelkauskas
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17 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A rapid rise has recently occurred in the number of tuberculosis patients and in the problems of treating this disease.What factors are contributing to this?
Answer: The main problems are the increased use of injected illegal drugs,which allows the disease to spread via needles,and the increased incidence of AIDS,which destroys the immune protection against tuberculosis.Poor socioeconomic conditions and migration also play a role.
Q2) Microorganisms that normally colonize skin and mucous membranes can be
A)Commensal
B)Nonpathogenic
C)Mutualistic
D)Protective against pathogens
E)All of the choices
Answer: E
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3
Chapter 2: Fundamental Chemistry for Microbiology
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Q1) DNA differs from RNA in that
A)DNA uses the sugar deoxyribose, whereas RNA uses the sugar ribose
B)Only DNA has 5-prime to 3-prime direction
C)DNA uses uracil, whereas RNA uses thymine
D)DNA is usually found as a single chain, whereas RNA is usually found as a double helix
Answer: A
Q2) Carbon atoms can form how many bonds with other atoms?
A)6
B)12
C)4
D)2
E)8
Answer: C
Q3) Atomic structure gives an atom
A)Its mass
B)Its reactivity
C)Its valence in molecules
D)All of the above
Answer: D
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Essentials of Metabolism
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Q1) The location where a substrate fits into an enzyme is known as the
A)Cofactor site
B)Plebi site
C)Polar site
D)Active site
E)Carrier site
Answer: D
Q2) In the figure which step would produce a polysaccharide?
Answer: A
Q3) What happens when one molecule of glucose is oxidized completely using the Krebs cycle and the electron transport chain?
A)12 H<sub>2</sub>O molecules are formed
B)anaerobic respiration occurs
C)38 ATP molecules are formed
D)3 CO<sub>2</sub> molecules are formed
E)12 O<sub>2</sub> molecules are consumed
Answer: C
Q4) In the figure which step would produce carbon dioxide?
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: An Introduction to Cell Structure and Host-Pathogen Relationships
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Q1) Which of the following does not differentiate Gram-positive from Gram-negative organisms?
A)Multilayered peptidoglycan versus thin peptidoglycan
B)No membrane outside cell wall versus membrane outside cell wall
C)Presence of polysaccharide versus absence of polysaccharide
D)Rich in exotoxin versus rich in endotoxin
E)After iodine treatment retains crystal violet versus does not retain crystal violet
Q2) Which of the following is not a spherical bacterium?
A)Streptococci
B)Streptobacilli
C)Tetrads
D)Staphylococci
E)Diplococci
Q3) Which bacteria lose their crystal violet when the decolorizer alcohol is added during the Gram stain procedure?
A)Gram-negative
B)Gram-positive
C)Gram-intensive
D)Gram-dormant
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Requirements for Infection
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Q1) Disseminated intravascular clotting (DIC)is caused by
A)High levels of exotoxins
B)Low levels of exotoxins
C)High levels of endotoxins
D)Low levels of endotoxins
E)Gram-positive organisms
Q2) Which of the following is not a characteristic of endotoxins?
A)Stable for hours at 60°C
B)Induce fever in the host
C)Poor antigenicity
D)Located in the cell wall of Gram-negative bacteria
E)Lethal in small quantities
Q3) Connective tissue in the host is compromised by the production of _____ by bacteria.
A)Hyaluronidase
B)Capsules
C)Streptokinase
D)M protein
E)Leukocidins
Q4) How does tooth brushing protect teeth from cavity formation?
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Chapter 6: Transmission of Infection, the Compromised
Host, Epidemiology, and Diagnosing Infections
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Q1) Calculate the morbidity,mortality,and incidence rates,given the following information: in a study conducted between January 1 and January 31,80 new cases of influenza were reported in a community of 10,000 individuals,bringing the total number of active influenza cases to 100.In this same period,2 individuals died from complications of the disease.
Q2) Which of the following statements is false?
A)It is possible for a bacterium to be part of the normal flora in one anatomical location and pathogenic in a different anatomical location
B) Females are more likely than males to acquire urinary tract infections
C) The presence of fecal microorganisms in water used for drinking and cooking causes fecal-oral transmission
D)Patients with neutropenia are more susceptible to bacterial and fungal infections
E)Neutropenia refers to a type of anemia in which red blood cell numbers are lower than normal
Q3) Identify and describe three types of reservoir with a role in the transmission of infectious diseases to humans and provide an example of a disease for each type of reservoir.
Q4) Describe and provide examples for the three types of contact transmission.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Principles of Disease
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Q1) Explain why normally harmless bacteria that comprise our microbial flora have the potential to be pathogenic.Provide examples.
Q2) Name and describe the three strategies used by health professionals to control communicable diseases.Characterize each of them.
Q3) Microbiome is the term that refers to all of which organisms present in the body?
A)Pathogens
B)Bacteria
C)Yeast and other fungi
D)Viruses
E) All microorganisms
Q4) Explain the process by which Streptococcus pyogenes causes streptococcal toxic shock syndrome (STSS).
Q5) Which of the following is the definition for latent disease?
A)Pathogens use blood or lymph to access all organs
B)Symptoms reappear long after initial infection
C)Symptoms immediately follow a primary infection
D)Rapid symptom development and rapid subsequent improvement
E)Symptoms are between those of acute and chronic disease
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Chapter 8: Emerging and Re-Emerging Infectious Disease
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Q1) All of the following are characteristics of Ebola hemorrhagic fever except
A)Circulatory shock
B)Possibility of transmission from human to human
C)Effective vaccine if received in advance of exposure
D)Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
E)Petechial hemorrhaging
Q2) All of the following are possible modes of transmission for the West Nile virus except
A)Tainted blood transfusion
B)Inhalation of rodent excrement
C)Mosquito bites
D)Infected organ transplant
Q3) Which of the following describes the process of recombination?
A)Synthesis of a nearly perfect copy of a molecule
B)Portions of chromosomes from different pathogens link
C)Single base in genetic material converts to another
D)Two chromosomes from different pathogens form a pair
Q4) In the figure which letter (A to E)indicates recruitment by chemokines?
Q5) In the figure which letter (A to E)indicates production of edema?
Q6) In the figure which letter (A to E)indicates virus particles?
Page 10
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Chapter 9: The Clinical Significance of Bacterial Anatomy
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Q1) Predict what would happen if the bacterial efflux pumps fail.
A)Uptake of glucose would be inhibited
B)The cell will become less antibiotic resistant
C)The high-energy phosphate, PEP, will build up in the cell
D)Osmosis will slow
E)Osmosis will accelerate
Q2) Which host cell components provide bacteria with intracellular and intercellular movement within and between host cells?
A)Axial filaments
B)Integral proteins
C)Permease
D)ABC transport systems
E)Cytoskeletal structures
Q3) Name the three phases of peptidoglycan synthesis and briefly describe the events that take place during each phase.
Q4) Describe two types of passive transport.Explain how they are similar and different from each other.
Q5) Explain what happens to a solute when it is transported across a membrane by using the group translocation method.
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Chapter 10: Bacterial Growth
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Q1) You need to culture Clostridium perfringens and will use a GasPak jar.Explain how a GasPak jar ensures that oxygen is removed from the environment.How will you know that an anaerobic state has been reached?
Q2) A thioglycolate tube was inoculated with an unknown bacterium.After overnight incubation growth is seen only in the area several millimeters below the surface of the agar.This bacterium exhibits a growth pattern characteristic of a(n)
A)Aerotolerant organism
B)Microaerophile
C)Obligate aerobe
D)Obligate anaerobe
E)Facultative anaerobe
Q3) Explain why growth rate is an important consideration in the context of the disease process and diagnosis.
Q4) Infections manifested on the body's extremities are most likely to be associated with microbes that prefer temperatures _____ the host's normal body temperature.
A)The same as B)On the low side of C)Above
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Chapter 11: Microbial Genetics and Infectious Disease
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Q1) Explain how RNA differs from DNA in structure and function.
Q2) A sugar with -OH on both the 2' and the 3' carbons is a component of A)RNA
B)DNA
C)Both DNA and RNA
D)Neither DNA or RNA
Q3) Answer true or false to the following statement: The rate of DNA synthesis is directly correlated to the processivity of the particular polymerase.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The initiation codon is important in fixing the _____ during the translation of messenger RNA.
A)Origin of replication
B)Initiator protein
C)Anticodon region
D)Reading frame
E)Leading strand
Q5) Identify the similarities and differences between the repressor proteins of the lactose and tryptophan operons.
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Chapter 12: The Structure and Infection Cycle of Viruses
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Q1) Which of these processes is not used by viruses to spread within a host?
A)Syncytia
B)The production of decoy virions to confuse and distract the host defenses
C)Movement through the apical surface of epithelial cells to spread to neighboring cells
D)Transportation by microtubules
E)Lysis of the host cell
Q2) In the figure which letter (A-D)indicates the matrix protein?
Q3) A capsid is
A)A protective protein shell surrounding nucleic acid
B)The complete viral particle
C)A phospholipid bilayer that contains glycoproteins
D)A protein molecule that forms the capsid
E)The sum of the nucleic acid and the capsid
Q4) Regions on the host cell's plasma membrane rich in cholesterol and particular types of fatty acids to which some viruses attach are called
A)Syncytia
B)Protein coats
C)Capsomeres
D)Lipid rafts
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Chapter 13: Viral Infection
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Q1) Which of the following uses host intestinal proteases to be converted into infectious viral particles?
A)Rhinovirus
B)Norwalk virus
C)Poliovirus
D)Reovirus
E)Adenovirus
Q2) In reference to cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL)escape mutants,which of the following statements is correct?
A)If immunodominant peptides mutate, the host's cytotoxic T lymphocytes are no longer able to respond
B)Escape mutants are associated more commonly with DNA viruses than with RNA viruses
C)If escape mutants occur late in an infection, a persistent infection occurs
D)Viruses escaping cytotoxic T lymphocyte detection are usually cleared effectively by host antibody responses
Q3) Why is vaccination the most promising approach to the control of viral epidemics?
Describe the three classes of viral vaccine administered to humans and provide examples of each.
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Chapter 14: Parasitic and Fungal Infections
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Q1) Answer true or false to the following statement: There are no examples of anaerobic fungi.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Cestodes are associated with all of the following characteristics except
A)Possession of a head called the scolex
B)Use of a retractable rostellum for attachment
C)Hermaphroditic nature
D)Absorption of nutrients across cuticle
E)Known as roundworms
Q3) One of the differences between protozoans and helminths is that protozoans are _____,whereas helminths are _____.
A)Free-living; parasitic
B)Unicellular; multicellular
C)Free-living; obligate intracellular pathogens
D)Segmented; flagellated
Q4) Describe the lifecycle of Plasmodium falciparum beginning with the ingestion of human blood by the Anopheles mosquito.
Q5) Identify and describe three categories of pathogenic fungal infection.
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Chapter 15: The Innate Immune Response
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Q1) Which of the following is incorrect regarding natural killer (NK)cells?
A)Induce apoptosis in target cells
B)Recognize target cells using Toll-like receptors
C)Kill tumor cells
D)Produce gamma interferon
Q2) Answer true or false to the following statement: The skin is free of microorganism.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Answer true or false to the following statement: Prolonged high fever in the host can cause deleterious effects.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Pathogens are internalized by phagocytes through the formation of
A)Residual bodies
B)Acute-phase vesicles
C)Membrane attack complexes
D)Pseudopodia
Q5) Identify three types of resident macrophage.What are the different functions of macrophages during immune responses?
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Chapter 16: The Adaptive Immune Response
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Q1) Which of the following accurately describes the morphological appearance of a mast cell after it has been activated?
A)The presence of large phagolysosomes in the cytoplasm
B)A preponderance of dark granules in the cytoplasm
C)Deterioration of the plasma membrane
D)The absence of dark granules in the cytoplasm
E)Division of the cell
Q2) Specialized antigen-collecting cells of the gastrointestinal tract are called
A)NK cells
B)Macrophages
C)Dendritic cells
D)M cells
E)Goblet cells
Q3) A(n)_____ is any foreign substance that provokes an immune response.
A)Mitogen
B)Immunoglobulin
C)Tolerate
D)Antigen
E)Androgen
Q4) Explain why dendritic cells are considered "watch dogs" for pathogens.
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Chapter 17: Failures of the Immune Response
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Q1) Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome is characterized by
A)Loss of phagocyte function
B)Thymic aplasia
C)Susceptibility to encapsulated bacterial infections
D)Lack of T cells and B cells
E)The presence of a functional actin cytoskeleton
Q2) Explain what accounts for the high level of mutation associated with HIV. Why does this pose a problem for the host?
Q3) Which malignancy is commonly associated with HIV infection?
A)Breast cancer
B)Prostate cancer
C)Kaposi's sarcoma
D)T-cell lymphoma
Q4) Which of the following statements is false?
A)Autoimmunity can be induced by infection, drugs, and toxins
B)Some individuals are genetically predisposed to the development of autoimmune disease
C)Autoimmune diseases are classified according to whether they are organ-specific or systemic
D)Graves' disease affects the nervous system
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Control of Microbial Growth with Disinfectants and Antiseptics
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Q1) Identify and describe five factors that affect the death of microbes by antimicrobial agents.
Q2) The thermal death time (TDT)is
A)The lowest temperature needed to kill all microbes in 10 minutes
B)The shortest amount of time necessary for complete oxidation
C)The time required for all proteins to denature in a sample
D)The shortest period required to kill all microbes at a particular temperature
Q3) Answer true or false to the reason given in the following statement: As the plasma membrane is responsible for enclosing the cytoplasm its loss or damage produces death.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Answer true or false to the reason given in the following statement: Because the phospholipid bilayer of plasma membranes is nonpolar,they have hydrophobic and hydrophilic regions.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain what happens when a protein becomes denatured and why this process is likely to be detrimental to microbes.Provide three examples of how proteins can be denatured.
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Antibiotics and Antimicrobial Drugs
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Q1) Compare the mechanisms of the anti-trypanosomal drugs eflomithine and melasoprol.
Q2) A pair of antibiotics used to treat vancomycin-resistant enterococcal infections is marketed under the name
A)Synercid
B)Augmentin
C)Timentin
D)Primaxin
E)Unasyn
Q3) All of the following target the bacterial ribosomal except
A)Chloramphenicol
B)Erythromycin
C)Spectinomycin
D)Streptomycin
E)Teicoplanin
Q4) Explain why are antibiotics that are protein synthesis inhibitors are excellent choices for therapy in the context of toxicity? Why might large doses of protein synthesis inhibitor antibiotics show toxic effects in eukaryotic cells even though they meet the criterion for selective toxicity?
Q5) Discuss selective toxicity as it relates to antimicrobials.
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Antibiotic Resistance
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Q1) The minimal inhibitory concentration (MIC)is determined using the A)Kirby-Bauer method
B)E test
C)Disk diffusion method
D)Broth dilution test
Q2) Resistance to _____ requires five separate genes to alter peptidoglycan to an insensitive form.
A)Methicillin
B)Tetracycline
C)Erythromycin
D)Vancomycin
E)Penicillin
Q3) Explain why ?-lactamase is expressed only after the cell wall has begun its degradation by penicillin in Escherichia coli.
Q4) Describe the four types of protective mechanism microbes use to develop resistance to antibiotics.Provide an example of each type.
Q5) Identify six important ways in which the life span of antimicrobial drugs can be extended for health care use.
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Chapter 21: Infections of the Respiratory System
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Q1) Compare the parainfluenza and influenza viruses.Which virus is associated with little antigenic drift or antigenic shift?
A)Parainfluenza virus
B)Influenza virus
C)Both parainfluenza and influenza viruses
D)Neither parainfluenza and influenza
Q2) Chlamydophila psittaci infections are associated with
A)Contaminated water supplies
B)Births of infected animals
C)Inhalation of bird droppings
D)Patients with HIV
E)Sinusitis
Q3) Answer true or false to the reason given in the following statement: A mild form of pneumonia is called walking pneumonia because there is no need for hospitalization during this infection.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe three important host defenses against infections of the respiratory tract.
Q5) Identify and describe the three stages of a pertussis infection.
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Chapter 22: Infections of the Digestive System
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Q1) Answer true or false to the following statement: Most states in the US have mandated that all ground meat must contain antibiotics because ground meat cooked only to the rare stage can harbor live pathogens.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Answer true or false to the reason given in the following statement: Endemic intestinal infections are more commonly seen in children because they have underdeveloped digestive systems.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following organisms is the most appropriate match for nosocomial gastrointestinal infection?
A)Salmonella enterica
B)Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli (ETEC)
C)Clostridium difficile
D)Staphylococcus aureus
E)Campylobacter jejuni
Q4) Explain why hepatitis D is referred to as a satellite virus.Describe the conditions under which hepatitis D is replicated.
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Chapter 23: Infections of the Genitourinary System
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true regarding herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1)and HSV-2?
A)HSV-1 and HSV-2 are linear, single-stranded RNA viruses
B)HSV-1 causes cold sores around the mouth
C)HSV-1 never causes genital herpes
D)There are many animal reservoirs of HSV-2
Q2) Lymphadenitis is consistent with which stage of syphilis?
A)Primary
B)Secondary
C)Latent
D)Tertiary
Q3) Which stage of syphilis are hallucinations consistent with?
A)Primary
B)Secondary
C)Latent
D)Tertiary
Q4) Answer true or false to the following statement: Infection of the cervix is referred to as vaginitis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Infections of the Central Nervous System
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Q1) Answer true or false to the reason given in the following statement: It is important to know which organism is producing the meningitis,because the severity of the illness as well as the treatment will differ.
A)True
B)False
Q2) All of the following are layers of the meninges except
A)Pia mater
B)Arachnoid mater
C)Choroid mater
D)Dura mater
Q3) Which of the following is not associated with bacterial meningitis?
A)Haemophilus influenzae
B)Clostridium botulinum
C)Neisseria meningitidis
D)Streptococcus pneumoniae
E)Staphylococcus aureus
Q4) Identify two ways in which polio virus can gain entry into the central nervous system (CNS).Describe three types of infection that may result from the polio virus.
Q5) How do the effects on the nervous system differ between botulism and tetanus?
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Chapter 25: Infections of the Blood and Lymph
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Q1) Which of the following statements about filariasis is false?
A)Filariasis is caused by threadlike nematodes
B)Microfilariae move between the systemic circulation during the day to the pulmonary circulation during the night
C)Humans are the only host for the causative agents of filariasis
D)Recurrent filariasis may lead to elephantiasis
E)There are no known treatments for filariasis
Q2) Explain why members of Rickettsia are considered to have characteristics of both bacteria and viruses.Which diseases are caused by pathogenic Rickettsiae?
Q3) Compare the Ebola and Marburg infections.A vaccine is available for
A)Ebola
B)Marburg
C)Both Ebola and Marburg
D)Neither Ebola or Marburg
Q4) Primary infection of endemic typhus is from
A)Human to rodent
B)Human to human
C)Rodent to human
D)Rodent to rodent
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Chapter 26: Infections of the Skin and Eyes
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Q1) Of the following conditions,which poses the most serious threat to an infected individual?
A)Erysipelas
B)Cutaneous anthrax
C)Folliculitis
D)Impetigo
E)Nodular cystic acne
Q2) Tissue invasion by Candida albicans is facilitated by the formation of A)Yeast cells
B)Koplik's spots
C)Hyphae
D)Cutaneous warts
Q3) Which of the following is characteristic of acne?
A)Skin lesions common in adolescents
B)Exotoxins termed exfoliatins
C)Staphylococcal or streptococcal skin lesions
D)Congenital infection can be dangerous
E)Inflammation of mucous membranes of vagina or oral cavity
Q4) Explain the similarities and differences between cold sores and warts.
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