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Foundations of Management introduces students to the fundamental concepts and principles that underpin effective organizational management. This course covers essential topics such as planning, organizing, leading, and controlling within a business environment. Students will explore key management theories, decision-making processes, motivational strategies, leadership styles, and organizational structures. Through case studies, discussions, and practical applications, learners will develop a foundational understanding of how managers drive organizational success and adapt to changing business landscapes.
Recommended Textbook
Management An Integrated Approach 2nd Edition by Ranjay Gulati
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Q1) Differentiate between management and leadership.
Answer: The distinction between management and leadership is often very subtle. In fact, most people use the terms interchangeably when they refer to the operation of a business. In a seminal analysis on the difference between managers and leaders, John Kotter noted that leaders set a direction for a firm, align people to focus on the organization's vision, and motivate and inspire people. Conversely, he noted that managers generally focus their efforts on planning and budgeting, organizing and staffing resources, and controlling and problem solving. Management has generally been defined as the act of working with and through a group of people to accomplish a desired goal or objective in an efficient and effective manner. Leadership has been defined as the ability to drive change and innovation through inspiration and motivation. The development and execution of strategy requires the skills and expertise of leaders and managers, and both are equally important to an organization's success. A vision or direction without a sound plan for execution is often merely a dream. The execution of a plan without a vision often lacks strategic or competitive advantage.
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true about businesses and their leaders?
A) Some leaders focus their efforts on lobbying to influence the government's role in business.
B) Businesses and their leaders often operate in isolation.
C) Business leaders are often reactive to their changing environment but not proactive in adapting their strategies accordingly.
D) Successful business leaders usually do not try to influence the global business environment.
Answer: A
Q2) Social values often pose a much lesser challenge than language barriers for a company wanting to expand globally.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Successful business leaders not only respond to changes in the global business environment but also try to influence it.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) When making a decision, Sara prepares a cost-benefit analysis of all possible outcomes and selects the alternative that results in the greatest good for all affected parties. Sara subscribes to which ethical framework?
A) Utilitarianism
B) Kantianism
C) Virtue ethics
D) Distributive justice (Egalitarianism)
Answer: A
Q2) Leslie has been hired as an executive to make decisions on behalf of the company and its shareholders. Leslie is now in a(n)
A) fiduciary relationship with the shareholders.
B) ordinary business relationship with the company.
C) CSR relationship with the company and its shareholders.
D) utilitarian relationship with the company and its shareholders.
Answer: A
Q3) In business, members of a partnership are fiduciaries to one another.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) For a firm's strategy to be effective and defensible, a manager must create fit and alignment among its chosen activities.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following questions is most important to the development of a firm's strategy?
A) What is the purpose of the business?
B) How will environmental forces impact the firm's business?
C) What stakeholders are important?
D) How will the firm distinguish itself from its competitors?
Q3) Define vision, mission, and objectives. What are the benefits provided by effective mission statements?
Q4) Which of the following statements best describes the vision of an organization?
A) The activities a firm performs for its customers
B) An illustration of how a firm can align its resources to get a position in the marketplace
C) A concept that defines a firm's reason for existence
D) A concept or picture of what a firm wants to achieve
Q5) Describe the business-level strategy.
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Q1) What are the tangible and intangible resources of an organization? Give examples.
Q2) A cosmetics company owns a patent for a particular kind of shampoo, which is a bestseller in the market. It enables the firm to extract a high level of discretion over product pricing. The patent for the shampoo is an example of a firm's _____ resource.
A) tangible
B) human
C) natural
D) intangible
Q3) A buyer industry will tend to have less power relative to the supplier industry when the buyer purchases in very large volumes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) For which of the following companies is human resources the primary resource?
A) Morgan & Morgan Law Firm
B) Daisy Hill Puppy Farm
C) The Gold and Diamond Supply Store
D) Marathon Oil Corporation
Q5) Outline the features of SWOT analysis.
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Q1) Foxx Company wished to share resources with Chixx Company. An analysis of their potential relationship passed both the better-off test and the ownership test. The managers of Foxx Company should
A) enter into a partnership with Chixx Company.
B) enter into a joint venture with Chixx Company.
C) enter into a strategic alliance with Chixx Company.
D) purchase a controlling interest in Chixx Company.
Q2) ABC Company wished to acquire EFG CompanyABC Company wished to acquire EFG Company. An analysis of the merger passed the better-off test but failed the ownership test. The managers of ABC Company should
A) maintain a single-product strategy.
B) enter into a spot contract with EFG Company.
C) seek an alternative arrangement with EFG, such as a strategic alliance.
D) outsource work to another company.
Q3) The ultimate goal of developing a corporate-level strategy is to build
A) employee commitment.
B) a corporate advantage.
C) customer relationships.
D) a wholly owned subsidiary.
Q4) Discuss the results of diversification.
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Q1) The process of mutual adaptation is most critically important in which of the following industries?
A) Fashion
B) Fast food
C) Gas and oil
D) Travel and tourism
Q2) Of the five activities that make a firm customer-centric, coordination involves
A) using informal methods such as culture and incentives to encourage people in the organization to come together in the spirit of serving customers.
B) developing relationships with parties outside a firm to increase the value of the firm's offerings.
C) helping employees at a firm develop the right skills needed to better serve customers.
D) creating structural mechanisms at a firm that allow employees across silos to organize their activities to focus more exclusively on creating value for customers.
Q3) Discuss organizational design and the life-cycle of a firm.
Q4) Outline the five customer-centric activities of an organization.
Q5) Define organizational structure and briefly describe its types.
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Q1) Which of the following characterizes a weak culture?
A) Employees require less coordination and monitoring
B) High role clarity
C) Allows a company to run more smoothly and quickly
D) No agreement on the firm's values
Q2) An organization's _____ defines how people think, feel, and act, and it moves at an almost subconscious level.
A) structure
B) design
C) culture
D) strategy
Q3) Over time, the process of cultural socialization can result in a decreased level of commitment to an organization.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is a characteristic of an organization's culture?
A) Culture is unchangeable.
B) Culture is unrelated to performance.
C) Culture is dynamic.
D) A company's culture can be easily copied by competitors.
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Q1) The final stage in the selection process often tends to be
A) reference checks.
B) situational interviews.
C) personality tests.
D) cognitive ability tests.
Q2) Which of the following statements is true about the different types of training?
A) Informal training programs, in particular, are easy to measure.
B) Formal training is seldom valuable to an employee's learning.
C) Informal training of employees includes coaching or mentorship.
D) Formal training often tend to be much more effective than informal training.
Q3) Analyze the common mistakes firms make with respect to their offshoring activities.
Q4) Realistic job preview provides information to job candidates highlighting the most important conditions of a job including its positive and negative aspects.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is management by objectives? Identify its components.
Q6) What are the benefits of internal recruitment?
Q7) Outline the different methods of training.
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Q1) Describe benchmarking.
Q2) For the balanced scorecard to be valuable, measurements from the customer perspective must link directly to financial results or strategic goals.
A)True
B)False
Q3) _____ refers to a four-stage process that provides the mechanisms and systems that monitor the transformation process, ensuring that outputs are produced to the desired quality, quantity, and specification of an organization and its customers.
A) Control cycle
B) Trend analysis
C) Scenario building
D) SWOT analysis
Q4) _____ is a quantitative approach that uses a method known as DMAIC, which stands for define, measure, analyze, improve, and control.
A) Benchmarking
B) Six Sigma
C) Budgeting
D) Total Quality Management
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Q1) Organic change is a process where change is initiated in response to some known external threat or opportunity.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is the first step involved in the change process?
A) Communicating change model
B) Creating dissatisfaction
C) Developing an implementation process
D) Creating a desirable model
Q3) Which of the following helps change leaders build dissatisfaction?
A) Creating proper alignment between an organization and its strategy
B) Improving experimentation while simultaneously reinforcing efficiency and cost effectiveness
C) Reducing the involvement of pivotal individuals in the process and concealing the vision for change
D) Engaging in benchmarking or internal and external performance/opportunity gap analyses
Q4) Briefly describe the change process.
Q5) List the characteristics of successful change leaders.
Q6) Outline the key aspects of organizational change.
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Q1) Which of the following aspects of a situation hinder a leader's ability to act in a particular way?
A) Assumptions
B) Neutralizers
C) Competitors
D) Substitutes
Q2) Hersey and Blanchard believed that
A) leaders are fixed in their leadership style and that the situation should be changed to match the leader.
B) leaders have the flexibility and range of skills to adapt their behavior to the maturity of their subordinates.
C) the most important aspect of leadership is the followers' belief that they can complete a task and that they will gain rewards and satisfaction upon completion. D) each situation is characterized by certain variables that make the situation either favorable or unfavorable to lead.
Q3) Explain the traits-based leadership theory.
Q4) Discuss the darker side of charismatic leadership.
Q5) Define Fiedler's contingency model and situational leadership.
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Q1) Based on their sense of personal control, externals prefer participatory supervisors who delegate.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following indices of creativity involves the ability to change approaches to a problem?
A) Flexibility
B) Fluency
C) Originality
D) Adaptability
Q3) Ricardo is a highly resilient individual, and as such, is likely to A) have the ability to face and accept the reality of a situation.
B) possess an unwillingness to try new things.
C) believe that he cannot control events and outcomes.
D) be unable to bounce back from difficulty.
Q4) Introverted people often perform better when their tasks relate to engaging and developing relationships with others.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Briefly explain Howard Gardner's multiple intelligences.
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Q1) Susan completed tasks that were assigned but without a sense of excitement or personal buy-in. Susan demonstrated which type of reaction to power?
A) Commitment
B) Active resistance
C) Compliance
D) Passive resistance
Q2) Which of the following individuals best represents a person with coercive power?
A) Lu, the finance head, is the deciding authority on various organizational activities.
B) Sydney, a marketing manager, often punishes his subordinates when they fail to follow the organization's rules and regulations.
C) Saul, an executive, has a great personality, and everyone in the organization respects and admires him for his intelligence.
D) Andrea, a team lead, motivates her team members by giving them incentives and promotions for improved performance.
Q3) Outline the different forms of interpersonal power.
Q4) List four of the factors that are required for sustaining power.
Q5) Define the terms leadership, power, and influence.
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Q1) Heuristics are the short-cuts that individuals use to save time when making complex decisions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The classical model of decision making seeks to maximize economic or other outcomes using a rational choice process.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Top management's decision on how to integrate a newly acquired firm is most likely a(n) _____ decision.
A) emotional
B) programmed
C) intuitive
D) nonprogrammed
Q4) Programmed decisions generally do not require a manager or higher-level employee to execute.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe confirmation bias.
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Q1) Conflict de-escalation occurs when
A) individuals who are in conflict perceive a common enemy.
B) one person's negative behaviors encourage another person's negative behaviors.
C) the teams are diverse or there is a history of antagonism among individuals.
D) one party perceives the other as the enemy.
Q2) How are disagreements resolved?
Q3) Because Barry was negotiating with Sergio, the VP from Russia, which has a(n) ______ culture, he was careful to ask questions to ensure that he fully understood the intent of Sergio's statements.
A) high-context
B) low-context
C) hierarchical
D) individualistic
Q4) Which of the following statements about negotiating across cultures is true?
A) In high-context cultures, information is explicit and meaning is clear.
B) People in low-context cultures prefer to communicate directly.
C) People in hierarchical cultures are more comfortable with confrontation.
D) Individualistic cultures support collective interests above individual rights.
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Q1) Vertical teams are composed of employees from about the same hierarchical level but from several different departments in the organization.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following describes a team that is considered effective?
A) The team follows a set of standard rules and procedures.
B) The team enhances the ability of another team.
C) The team enables members to work independently.
D) The team contributes to team members' satisfaction.
Q3) When a team includes members with different primary languages, team members should avoid using jargon or slang.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In the forming stage of team development, team members experience conflicts about interpersonal issues.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What defines a team, and under what conditions is the use of teams appropriate?
Q6) Outline the five-stage process of team development.
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Q1) Which of the following is one of the three needs of McClelland's acquired needs theory?
A) Need for motivation
B) Need for challenge
C) Need for power
D) Need for safety
Q2) Goal-setting theory states that the mere setting of difficult but achievable goals is a significant motivator of performance.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following statements about the reinforcement theory is true?
A) Negative reinforcements tend to decrease certain behaviors.
B) Successful organizations generally build employee engagement by focusing on punishment.
C) Ceasing to reward the behavior that was previously rewarded causes extinction.
D) Positive reinforcement involves removing an aversive condition in response to a desired behavior.
Q4) Differentiate extrinsic and intrinsic rewards of motivation. Give examples.
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Q1) Aristotle believed that pathos was the most important element of persuasion.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following individuals is the best example of an empathetic listener?
A) Sheila often reacts to the speaker by showing concern and attempts to share feelings and offer counseling.
B) Maria usually avoids making any verbal or nonverbal responses when someone else is talking.
C) Erick tends to respond to speakers vocally when they say things with which he agrees.
D) During presentations, James consciously tries to focus on what the speaker is saying.
Q3) The formats used to convey messages, including oral, written, and electronic, are referred to as communication
A) systems.
B) media.
C) styles.
D) channels.
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Q1) Enrique wants to develop professional relationships outside of work. What is the best advice you can give Enrique?
A) Enrique needs to develop more redundant contacts.
B) Enrique needs to develop weak ties into strong ties.
C) Enrique needs to join a networking club.
D) Enrique needs to expand his communication network.
Q2) Weak ties are usually formed among similar individuals who are exposed to the same kinds of information.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Define networking. How can one build diverse networks?
Q4) Define centrality and its conceptions.
Q5) Briefly describe the strength of ties.
Q6) Marvin is a high-performance general manager who has built and cultivated a strong network of relationships. Marvin has worked to create _____ capital.
A) financial
B) human
C) network
D) social

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