Foundations of Management Exam Preparation Guide
Course Introduction
Foundations of Management provides an introduction to the principles and practices central to effective management in organizations. The course explores key functions such as planning, organizing, leading, and controlling, while examining how managers navigate organizational structure, culture, and external environments. Students will learn fundamental concepts in decision-making, motivation, teamwork, and communication, and gain insight into the ethical and global dimensions of management. Through case studies and practical examples, the course builds critical skills for analyzing management challenges and prepares students for more advanced business studies.
Recommended Textbook MGMT6 New Engaging Titles from 4LTR Press 6th Edition by Chuck Williams
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Chapter 1: Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) ____ are responsible for creating a positive organizational culture through language and action.
A) Top managers
B) Middle managers
C) Team leaders
D) Supervisors
E) Group facilitators
Answer: A
Q2) Refer to Volkswagen. In late September, Pischetsrieder flew to Brussels to meet with employees at a VW plant and explain his plans for improving the company's profitability. In this example, the CEO assumed the role of:
A) figurehead
B) spokesperson
C) liaison
D) disseminator
E) monitor
Answer: D
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Page 3
Chapter 1: Management: Part A
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Q1) An accountant with __________ has the ability to create a budget, compare the budget to the actual income statement, and determine unnecessary expenses.
A) technical skill
B) human skill
C) conceptual skill
D) motivational skill
E) interpersonal skill
Answer: A
Q2) Which skills increase in their importance to success as managers rise through the managerial ranks?
A) human skills and decisional skills
B) informational skills and the motivation to manage
C) conceptual skills and the motivation to manage
D) conceptual skills, technical skills, and human skills
E) human skills and informational skills
Answer: C
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4
Chapter 1: Management: Part B
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Q1) A manager engaged in the management function of __________ is monitoring progress toward goal achievement and taking corrective action when needed.
A) planning
B) organizing
C) leading
D) controlling
E) motivating
Answer: D
Q2) Typical responsibilities for __________ include setting objectives consistent with organizational goals and then planning and implementing the subunit strategies for achieving these goals.
A) top managers
B) shift supervisors
C) first-line managers
D) team leaders
E) middle managers
Answer: E
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Page 5
Chapter 2: History of Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ____ approach to management focuses on the psychological and social aspects of work.
A) employee
B) human relations
C) reinforcement theory
D) systems
E) operations
Q2) With integrative conflict resolution ____.
A) a third party's decision settles the conflict
B) both parties work together to create an alternative solution that includes shared preferences and integrates interests
C) both parties involved agree to give up something
D) both parties in the conflict are coerced into accepting a less-then-optimal solution
E) peer pressure determines the settlement of the conflict
Q3) A systems approach to management encourages managers to view each division as a separate, vital organism.
A)True
B)False
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6
Chapter 2: History of Management: Part A
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Q1) Frank and Lillian Gilbreth studied the psychology of groups.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Technological management involves managing the daily production of goods and services.
A)True
B)False
Q3) According to the principles of scientific management, work and the responsibility for the work should be divided equally between workers and management.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Today thanks to _____, Unverferth, a farm equipment manufacturer, was able to produce parts for its new 12-row subsoiler even without examining parts that were previously made.
A) Henry Ford
B) Henry Gantt
C) Gaspard Monge
D) Eli Whitney
E) Pietro Beretta
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Chapter 2: History of Management: Part B
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Q1) Which of the following statements about the origins of management is true?
A) Job enrichment was developed during the last half of the twentieth century.
B) Management as a field of study is only about 125 years old.
C) Information management appeared with the first computers.
D) The use of management functions would have made the building of the Egyptian pyramids more efficient.
E) All of the above statements about the origin of management are true.
Q2) Management ideas and practices have actually been used from the earliest times of recorded history.
A)True
B)False
Q3) _____ involves managing the daily production of goods and services.
A) Operations management
B) Resource management
C) Systems management
D) Contingency management
E) Bureaucratic management
Q4) Human relations management focused on managers' roles and authority.
A)True
B)False
Page 8
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Chapter 3: Organizational Environments and Cultures
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a dimension of the political/legal component of the general environment that governs and regulates business behavior?
A) legislation
B) competitive products
C) court decisions
D) regulation
E) customer-initiated lawsuits
Q2) An increase in ____ can lead to opportunistic behavior in which one party benefits at the expense of the other.
A) managerial commitment
B) buyer dependence
C) industry regulation
D) advocacy group activities
E) consumer confidence indicators
Q3) A decrease in either buyer dependence or supplier dependence can lead to opportunistic behavior.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Briefly differentiate the two basic approaches used for monitoring customers.
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Chapter 3: Organizational Environments and Cultures: Part
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Q1) According to its rate of environmental change, an organization's environment can be either stable or dynamic, but not both.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A key factor influencing the relationship between companies and their suppliers is:
A) how dependent they are on each other
B) how much they know about each other
C) how compatible their organizational cultures are
D) the type of product being manufactured
E) all of these
Q3) An organization engaged in __________ is searching the environment for important events or issues that might affect an organization.
A) a competitive assessment
B) environmental scanning
C) environmental advocacy
D) an internal situational analysis
E) a market audit
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Chapter 3: Organizational Environments and Cultures: Part
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Q1) The __________ is the set of key values, beliefs, and attitudes shared by organizational members.
A) industry code of ethics
B) internal environment
C) organizational culture
D) organizational strategy
E) organizational vision
Q2) __________ is/are a primary source of organizational culture.
A) The company's founder
B) The organization's competitive strategy
C) The industry in which the organization operates
D) Employees
E) Customers
Q3) External environments are the forces and events outside a company that have the potential to influence or affect it.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 4: Ethics and Social Responsibility
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Q1) IBM has a long-standing "Reinventing Education" program, which involves intensive research into how educational institutions can use the fruits of new technologies to transform what they do and thereby improve education. In the process, the program is actually helping to shape a market of significant interest to IBM. IBM views the program as an investment rather than as a charitable contribution. This is an example of the positive relationship between social responsibility and ____.
A) social consensus
B) secondary shareholders
C) economic performance
D) covert stakeholders
E) resource munificence
Q2) To create a compliance program that is acceptable under the U.S. Sentencing Guidelines, a company should ____.
A) establish standards and procedures to meet the company's business needs
B) put upper-level managers in charge of the compliance program
C) encourage employees to report violations
D) train employees on standards and procedures
E) do all of these
Q3) Identify and briefly describe Kohlberg's three phases of moral development.
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Page 12
Chapter 4: Ethics and Social Responsibility: Part A
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Q1) Workplace deviance can be categorized by how deviant the behavior is and:
A) how the behavior was motivated
B) where the motivation occurred
C) the target of the deviant behavior
D) the intent of the violator
E) organizational norms
Q2) What is the term used to describe the degree of concern people have about an ethical issue?
A) Ethical intensity
B) Social consensus
C) Temporal immediacy
D) Magnitude of consequences
E) Ethical valence
Q3) According to Kohlberg's model of moral development, people at the __________ make decisions that conform to societal expectations.
A) unconventional level
B) preconventional level
C) conventional level
D) postconventional level
E) amoral level
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Chapter 4: Ethics and Social Responsibility: Part B
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Q1) The __________ determined that companies can be prosecuted and punished for the illegal or unethical actions of employees, even if management didn't know about the unethical behavior.
A) U.S. Sentencing Commission Guidelines
B) U.S. Supreme Court
C) U.S. Department of Labor
D) U.S. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission
E) Federal Trade Commission
Q2) Ethics is the set of moral principles or values that defines right and wrong for a person or group.
A)True
B)False
Q3) __________ is unethical behavior that violates organizational norms about right and wrong.
A) Workplace deviance
B) Organizational deviance
C) Social irresponsibility
D) Social deviance
E) An ethical dilemma
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Page 14
Chapter 5: Planning and Decision Making
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Q1) Refer to Krispy Kreme. The company's goal to open six new Krispy Kreme stores in the next six months in British Columbia where it already has a well-established reputation would be an example of a(n) ____ goal.
A) distal
B) temporal
C) adjacent
D) proximal
E) advocacy
Q2) Which of the following is NOT one of the characteristics of S.M.A.R.T. goals?
A) Synergistic
B) Measurable
C) Timely
D) Attainable
E) Realistic
Q3) An organization's purpose must regularly change to adapt to changes in the environment over time.
A)True
B)False
Q4) List and briefly describe the three kinds of operational plans.
Q5) Identify and explain the purpose of the S.M.A.R.T. guidelines.
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Chapter 5: Planning and Decision Making: Part A
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Q1) In the Dephi technique, the members of a panel of experts respond to questions and to each other until reaching agreement on an issue.
A)True
B)False
Q2) One method of weighting decision criteria uses ______, which is a process where each decision criterion is compared directly to every other criterion.
A) absolute comparisons
B) relative comparisons
C) valences
D) minimum threshold rule
E) comparative ranking scales
Q3) Management by objectives (MBO) is a management technique often used to develop and carry out_______plans.
A) single-use
B) standing
C) operational
D) tactical
E) hierarchical
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Chapter 5: Planning and Decision Making: Part B
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Q1) Management by objectives (MBO) is a management technique often used to develop and carry out:
A) single-use plans
B) standing plans
C) operational plans
D) tactical plans
E) hierarchical plans
Q2) __________ occurs when managers choose an alternative that is good enough, rather than the best possible alternative.
A) Maximizing
B) Optimizing
C) Availability bias
D) Negative frame
E) Satisficing
Q3) Tactical plans specify how a company will use resources, budgets, and people to accomplish specific goals within its mission.
A)True
B)False
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17
Chapter 6: Organizational Strategy
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Sample Questions
Q1) A strategic group is a group of other companies, within an industry, that top managers choose for comparing, evaluating, and benchmarking their company's strategic threats and opportunities.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following statements about portfolio strategy is true?
A) The evidence supports the usefulness of acquiring unrelated businesses.
B) Dysfunctional consequences can occur when companies are categorized.
C) The strategy may weaken the strongest performer in the corporate portfolio, the problem child.
D) Labeling a top performer as a cash cow will strengthen employee morale.
E) Maslow's hierarchy can be used to determine the level of motivation needed to acquire and make a success of portfolio strategy.
Q3) The greater the market commonality, the less intense the direct competition between two companies.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Identify and differentiate between the positioning strategies and the adaptive strategies used at the industry level.
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Chapter 6: Organizational Strategy: Part A
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Q1) The first step in the strategy-making process is to:
A) assess the need for strategic change
B) conduct a situation analysis
C) choose strategic alternatives
D) evaluate the impact of changes on the internal environment
E) create a strategic budget
Q2) There are four conditions that must be met if a firm's resources are to be used to achieve a sustainable competitive advantage. The resources must be valuable, rare, imperfectly imitable, and nonsubstitutable.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In any organization, the __________ are the less visible, internal decision-making routines, problem-solving processes, and organization cultures that determine how efficiently inputs can be turned into outputs.
A) imperfectly imitable resources
B) valuable resources
C) distinctive competencies
D) core capabilities
E) sources of innovation
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Page 19
Chapter 6: Organizational Strategy: Part B
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Q1) An organization implementing a(n) ____________________ strategy would NOT follow a consistent strategy.
A) defender
B) pioneer
C) analyzer
D) reactor
E) prospector
Q2) In a situational analysis, a strategic group is a group of __________ that top managers choose for comparing, evaluating, and benchmarking their company's strategic threats and opportunities.
A) non-industry-specific companies
B) expert managers
C) trade journals and other relevant periodicals
D) other firms within an industry
E) consulting firms that use the Delphi technique
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Chapter 7: Innovation and Change
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Q1) Technological discontinuities are followed by discontinuous change characterized by technological substitution and design competition.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Organizational development ____.
A) takes a long-range approach to change
B) creates change by educating workers and managers to change ideas, beliefs, and behaviors so that problems can be solved in new ways
C) assumes that top management support is necessary for change
D) emphasizes employee participation in all stages of the change
E) is accurately described by all of these
Q3) A creative work environment requires organizational encouragement and supervisory encouragement as well as work group encouragement.
A)True
B)False
Q4) How are technology cycles and innovation streams related?
Q5) Identify and briefly describe the three steps involved in the process of managing organizational change as defined by Kurt Lewin.
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Chapter 7: Innovation and Change: Part A
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Q1) A technology __________ begins with the "birth" of a new technology and ends when that technology reaches its limits and "dies" as it is replaced by a newer, substantially better technology.
A) process
B) pattern
C) cycle
D) hierarchy
E) continuum
Q2) Resistance to change results from organizational factors, such as the absence of promotion guidelines, bonuses, and praise.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following approaches is aimed at changing large systems, small groups, or individuals?
A) General Electric workout
B) the functional approach to change
C) organizational development
D) results-driven change
E) Lewin's change synthesis
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Chapter 7: Innovation and Change: Part B
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Q1) The __________ approach to managing innovation assumes that innovation is a predictable process made up of a series of steps and that compressing the time it takes to complete those steps can speed up innovation.
A) compression
B) milestones
C) dialectical
D) generational
E) prototypical
Q2) According to John Kotter's analysis of the errors managers make when leading change, the first and potentially most serious of these errors is:
A) not establishing a great enough sense of urgency
B) declaring victory too soon
C) not anchoring changes in the corporation's culture
D) not removing obstacles to the new vision
E) a poorly designed organizational mission
Q3) Resistance to change results from organizational factors, such as the absence of promotion guidelines, bonuses, and praise.
A)True
B)False
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Page 23
Chapter 8: Global Management
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Questions
Q1) Unlike licensing, franchising, or joint ventures, wholly owned affiliates are 100 percent owned by the parent company.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Refer to Coca-Cola. In its first attempt to enter the Indian market, Coke engaged in
A) acculturation
B) direct foreign investment
C) internal importing
D) globalization
E) restraint of trade
Q3) What are the two types of political risk that affect companies conducting global business?
A) political uncertainty and policy uncertainty
B) policy uncertainty and expropriation potential
C) cultural strength and political risks
D) infrastructure dynamism and political uncertainty
E) nationalism and economic uncertainty
Q4) Briefly explain the phase model of globalization and list its stages in their appropriate order.
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Chapter 8: Global Management: Part A
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Q1) A country or region that has an attractive business climate for companies that want to go global has:
A) a large population of unskilled workers
B) an effective and cost-efficient place to build an office or manufacturing site
C) a small youth population
D) natural boundaries
E) all of these
Q2) Two factors help determine the growth potential of foreign markets. They are foreign competition and:
A) communications and transportation systems
B) purchasing power
C) political stability
D) creative differences
E) product diffusion rate
Q3) Historically, companies have generally followed the phase model of globalization.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Global Management: Part B
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Q1) Which of the following represents the correct sequence for the phase model of globalization?
A) exporting; wholly owned affiliates; cooperative contracts; strategic alliances
B) exporting; cooperative contracts; wholly owned affiliates; strategic alliances
C) exporting; cooperative contracts; strategic alliances; wholly owned affiliates
D) exporting; strategic alliances; cooperative contracts; wholly owned affiliates
E) home country sales; exporting; job ventures; strategic alliances, and direct investment
Q2) The General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT):
A) replaced the United Nations court system
B) eliminated government subsidies
C) eliminated tariffs in ten specific industries
D) operated in a fashion similar to the Chamber of Commerce
E) did all of these
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26
Chapter 9: Designing Adaptive Organizations
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Q1) In terms of the chain of command, ____ authority is the right to command immediate subordinates, while ____ authority is the right to advise but not command others who are not subordinates.
A) departmental; functional
B) centralized; decentralized
C) functional; expert
D) internal; external
E) line; staff
Q2) Under product departmentalization, it is easier for top managers to assess work-unit performance.
A)True
B)False
Q3) ____ departmentalization is notorious for confusion and conflict between project managers in different areas of the organization.
A) Matrix
B) Functional
C) Customer
D) Product
E) Geographic
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Chapter 9: Designing Adaptive Organizations: Part A
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Q1) A(n) __________ function is an activity that contributes directly to creating or selling the company's products.
A) staff
B) line
C) mechanistic
D) organic
E) charted
Q2) One of the key assumptions underlying the chain of command is __________, which means that workers should report to just one supervisor.
A) delegation of command
B) empowerment
C) synergistic authority
D) unity of command
E) centralization of authority
Q3) Job enlargement and job enrichment mean essentially the same thing.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Designing Adaptive Organizations: Part B
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Q1) Organizational authority is traditionally characterized by:
A) chain of command
B) empowerment
C) behavioral informality
D) reengineering
E) all of these
Q2) A(n) __________ organization is an organization that is characterized by specialized jobs and responsibilities, precisely defined, unchanging roles, and a rigid chain of command based on centralized authority and vertical communication.
A) modular
B) departmentalized
C) standardized
D) organic
E) mechanistic
Q3) The central concern of the job characteristics model (JCM) is:
A) internal motivation
B) synergy
C) task identification
D) time-motion studies
E) a value-added measure
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Chapter 10: Managing Teams
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Q1) ____ is a compensation system in which companies share the financial value of performance gains such as productivity, cost savings, or quality with their workers.
A) Skill-based pay
B) Gainsharing
C) A draw account
D) Profit sharing
E) Optional equity
Q2) To enhance work team effectiveness, managers should carefully set team goals and priorities and take care when selecting, training, and compensating team members.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What are work teams and briefly comment on why work teams have become increasingly popular in business since the mid to late 1980s.
Q4) List the five types of teams on the team autonomy continuum. What is each team's highest level of responsibility (i.e., the highest level of task that they have independent control over)?
Q5) What are project teams? List the advantages associated with their usage.
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Chapter 10: Managing Teams: Part A
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Q1) In the decision-making process, teams can do a much better job than individuals in defining the problem and generating alternative solutions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Team rewards that depend on __________ are the key to rewarding team behaviors and efforts.
A) team performance rather than individual performance
B) individual efforts rather than team performance
C) someone taking the role of group leader
D) the elimination of social loafing
E) the use of groupthink
Q3) __________ is a compensation system in which companies share the financial value of performance gains, such as productivity, cost savings, or quality, with their workers.
A) Skill-based pay
B) Gainsharing
C) A draw account
D) Profit sharing
E) Optional equity
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Page 31
Chapter 10: Managing Teams: Part B
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Q1) Which of the following size teams usually provides the best performance?
A) 2 to 3
B) 6 to 9
C) 15 to 20
D) more than 20
E) All sizes tend to perform equally well.
Q2) Which of the following kinds of team is defined as a permanent part of the organization's structure?
A) cross-functional teams
B) project teams
C) virtual teams
D) employee involvement teams
E) none of these
Q3) Which of the following types of teams have the authority to change their composition as well as all of their tasks and work methods?
A) self-designing teams
B) sequentially interdependent teams
C) semi-autonomous work groups
D) self-managing teams
E) self-autonomous teams
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Chapter 11: Managing Human Resource Systems
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Q1) ____ is the form of sexual harassment in which employment outcomes such as hiring, promotion, or simply keeping one's job depend on whether an individual submits to sexual harassment.
A) Bona fide sexual harassment
B) Quid pro quo sexual harassment
C) Adverse impact sexual harassment
D) Disparate gender treatment
E) Hostile work environment sexual harassment
Q2) Wrongful discharge is a legal doctrine that requires a manager to have the approval of the human resource manager to terminate employees.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is an internal recruiting method?
A) advertising
B) job fairs
C) job posting
D) Internet job sites
E) walk-ins
Q4) List and briefly define the three basic kinds of compensation decisions.
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Chapter 11: Managing Human Resource Systems: Part A
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Q1) Background checks can be used to verify the truthfulness and accuracy of information that applicants provide about themselves.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A __________ is a purposeful, systematic process for collecting information on the important work-related aspects of a job.
A) job analysis
B) task evaluation
C) job specification
D) job validation
E) job description
Q3) Functional turnover is the loss of high-performing employees who choose to leave the organization.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Human resource management (HRM) is the process of finding, developing, and keeping the right people to form a qualified work force.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Managing Human Resource Systems: Part B
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Sample Questions
Q1) The __________ interview uses only standardized, job-related interview questions that are prepared ahead of time and asked of all candidates
A) formalized
B) structured
C) semi-structured
D) scripted
E) canned
Q2) Functional turnover is the loss of high-performing employees who choose to leave the organization.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Background checks can be used to verify the truthfulness and accuracy of information that applicants provide about themselves.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Managing Individuals and a Diverse Work Force
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Q1) Jean-Marie has excellent keyboarding skills and enters data for a marketing research firm. Jean-Marie is also vision-impaired. In order to perform his job, Jean-Marie needs a computer monitor that produces oversized print so he can read it. Providing the monitor to facilitate Jean-Marie's job performance is an example of ____.
A) assistive technology
B) job enrichment
C) management reciprocity
D) task reengineering
E) disparity balances
Q2) For a typical company, employee turnover costs amounts to more than 90 percent of the employees' salaries.
A)True
B)False
Q3) List the Big Five Personality Dimensions. How does an understanding of these dimensions benefit managers?
Q4) Why does fostering diversity in companies make good business sense?
Q5) List and briefly describe the four types of discrimination commonly associated with surface-level diversity. Which of those typically produce the so-called glass ceiling?
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Chapter 12: Managing Individuals and a Diverse Work
Force: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) The four dimensions of surface-level diversity that many managers use to form initial impressions can sometimes lead to discrimination. They are:
A) Gender, personality, age, and values
B) Physical capabilities, gender, Race/ethnicity, and age
C) Values, attitudes, personality, and gender
D) Race/ethnicity, age, personality, and beliefs
E) Gender, physical capabilities, age, and attitudes
Q2) A key difference between affirmative action and diversity is that:
A) diversity requires a wider span of management
B) diversity has a broader focus
C) diversity is legally mandated in all private companies
D) affirmative action is legally mandated in all private companies
E) affirmative action does not alter organizational structures, and diversity does
Q3) Affirmative action is required by law for all private employers, and diversity is voluntary.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Managing Individuals and a Diverse Work
Force: Part B
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements explains why diversity actually makes good business sense?
A) Diversity increases an organization's retained earnings.
B) Diversity helps companies attract and recruit talented employees.
C) Diversity makes individuals whole by returning them to the condition or place they would have been had it not been for discrimination.
D) Diversity allows a company to act with economic responsibility.
E) Diversity eliminates glass ceilings.
Q2) Affirmative action is required by law for all private employers, and diversity is voluntary.
A)True
B)False
Q3) __________ is the degree to which group members are psychologically attracted to working with each other to accomplish a common objective.
A) Social integration
B) Norm cohesiveness
C) Social cohesiveness
D) Integrative focus
E) Social attraction
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Chapter 13: Motivation
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41976
Sample Questions
Q1) In a(n) ____ reinforcement schedule, consequences are delivered following a specific number of behaviors.
A) fixed interval
B) continuous interval
C) fixed ratio
D) intermittent interval
E) variable ratio
Q2) ____ strengthen behavior (i.e., increase its frequency).
A) Positive and negative reinforcement
B) Negative reinforcement and extinction
C) Positive reinforcement and extinction
D) Negative reinforcement, positive reinforcement, and punishment
E) Negative reinforcement, positive reinforcement, extinction, and punishment
Q3) The two basic kinds of inequity are ____.
A) performance and situational inequities
B) underreward and overreward
C) balanced and unbalanced rewards
D) intrinsic and extrinsic inequities
E) higher-order and lower-order inequities
Q4) Briefly explain the relationship between need satisfaction and motivation.
Page 39
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Chapter 13: Motivation: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) Distributive justice refers to the perceived fairness of the process used to make reward allocation decisions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In a(n) __________ reinforcement schedule, consequences follow a behavior after different times, some shorter and some longer, that vary around a specified average time.
A) fixed interval
B) variable interval
C) fixed ratio
D) variable ratio
E) continuous ratio
Q3) Overreward frequently causes inequity.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Once lower-order needs are satisfied, it is difficult to predict which higher-order needs will motivate behavior.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Motivation: Part B
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a basic component of equity theory?
A) valences
B) reinforcement
C) referents
D) instrumentality
E) expectancy
Q2) __________ strengthen behavior (i.e., increase its frequency).
A) Positive and negative reinforcement
B) Negative reinforcement and extinction
C) Positive reinforcement and extinction
D) Negative reinforcement, positive reinforcement, and punishment
E) Negative reinforcement, positive reinforcement, extinction, and punishment
Q3) According to the expectancy theory, __________ affect the conscious choices that people make about their motivation.
A) equity, value-added, and instrumentality
B) valence, expectancy, and instrumentality
C) expectancy, reinforcement, and instrumentality
D) instrumentality, equity, and expectancy
E) expectancy, equity, and reinforcement
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Chapter 14: Leadership
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compare and contrast charismatic and transformational leadership. Explain why ethical transgressions are less likely among transformational leaders than they are among charismatic leaders.
Q2) Leaders who possess the trait of ____ are more decisive and assertive and more likely to gain others' confidence.
A) emotional stability
B) Integrity
C) self-confidence
D) Drive
E) cognitive ability
Q3) According to the path-goal theory of leadership, what leadership style involves being friendly and approachable to employees, showing concern for them and their welfare, treating them as equals, and creating a friendly climate.
A) directive leadership
B) supportive leadership
C) leadership empowerment
D) achievement-oriented leadership
E) participative leadership
Q4) Identify and define the components of visionary leadership.
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Chapter 14: Leadership: Part A
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Q1) Since there are no consistent trait differences between leaders and nonleaders, or between effective and ineffective leaders, trait theory is wrong.
A)True
B)False
Q2) According to the path-goal theory of leadership, __________ means setting challenging goals, having high expectations of employees, and displaying confidence that employees will assume responsibility and put forth extraordinary effort.
A) directive leadership
B) supportive leadership
C) participative leadership
D) achievement-oriented leadership
E) empowerment leadership
Q3) Which of the following is the best leadership style for all situations?
A) team management
B) middle of the road management
C) authority-compliance
D) country club management
E) none of these
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Chapter 14: Leadership: Part B
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Sample Questions
Q1) Relatively stable characteristics such as abilities, psychological motives, or consistent patterns of behavior, form the basis for the __________ of leadership.
A) situational theory
B) behavioral theory
C) trait theory
D) expectancy theory
E) path-goal theory
Q2) One of the differences between managers and leaders is that managers focus on visions, missions, goals, and objectives, and leaders focus solely on productivity and efficiency.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Research at three universities has confirmed that two basic leader behaviors, ______ and ______, are central to successful leadership.
A) initiating structure; consideration
B) initiating structure; job-centered leadership
C) employee-centered leadership; consideration
D) concern for production; job-centered leadership
E) autonomous; participative
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Page 44
Chapter 15: Managing Communication
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the CEO of a large corporation explained to their unionized employees why the company had to reduce healthcare coverage for its employees, he was engaged in ____ communication.
A) upward
B) dyadic
C) horizontal
D) downward
E) functional
Q2) Coaching is ____.
A) a method commonly used to improve how managers communicate with their subordinates
B) a kind of one-on-one communication primarily used by managers in exit interviews
C) a kind of one-on-one communication primarily used by managers to improve an employee's on-the-job performance or behavior
D) a multilevel communication method that is used in place of negative reinforcement
E) two-way communication designed to be reciprocally fulfilling
Q3) List and briefly define the four parts of the perception process.
Q4) Briefly differentiate between active listening and empathetic listening.
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Chapter 15: Managing Communication: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) Managers with better listening skills are rated as better managers by their employees and are much more likely to be promoted.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In which of the following cases would written communication be preferable to oral communication?
A) when immediate feedback is needed
B) when messages are complex and ambiguous
C) when messages are emotion laden
D) when messages are very simple
E) when paralanguage is required
Q3) The steps of the basic perception process are:
A) Interpretation, attention, retention, and organization
B) Organization, interpretation, attention, and retention
C) Attention, organization, interpretation, and retention
D) Retention, organization, interpretation, and attention
E) Interpretation, retention, attention, and organization
Q4) In general, blogs serve no value in the corporate world.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Managing Communication: Part B
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Sample Questions
Q1) The three formal communication channels in organizations are categorized as:
A) downward, horizontal, and upward
B) hierarchical, functional, and organizational
C) horizontal, vertical, and grapevine
D) upward, dyadic, and downward
E) vertical, horizontal, and dyadic
Q2) In the __________ type of grapevine communication network, one "highly connected" individual shares information with many other managers and workers.
A) star chain
B) gossip chain
C) cluster chain
D) leader chain
E) linear
Q3) Managers with better listening skills are rated as better managers by their employees and are much more likely to be promoted.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements about normative control is true?
A) Normative control tends to create an organization that is highly resistant to change.
B) With normative control, managers focus on work behavior or outputs.
C) Normative control leads to an emphasis on very selective hiring.
D) Normative control arises when companies give autonomous work groups complete responsibility for task completion.
E) None of these statements about normative control is true.
Q2) Companies may determine standards by ____.
A) benchmarking other companies
B) implementing vertical loading
C) using outsourcing
D) taking corrective action
E) doing all of these
Q3) Control loss occurs when behavior and work procedures merely meet minimally acceptable standards rather than exceeding those minimal standards.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Define benchmarking and list the three steps in this process.
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Chapter 16: Control: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to the text, which of the following levels of waste minimization produces the greatest minimization of waste?
A) waste prevention and reduction
B) recycle and reuse
C) waste treatment
D) waste disposal
E) waste remarketing
Q2) Normative controls should be used when:
A) cause-and-effect relationships are clear
B) workers have been taught self-control skills
C) responsibility for task accomplishment is given to autonomous work groups
D) it is necessary to standardize all operations
E) organizational culture, values, and beliefs are strong
Q3) Concertive control produces less stress for workers than bureaucratic control.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The only dimension needed to measure quality is its conformance to expectations.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Control: Part B
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Sample Questions
Q1) __________ is the extent to which it is possible to implement each step in the control process.
A) Control feasibility
B) Cybernetic feasibility
C) A quasi-control assessment
D) A balanced scorecard assessment
E) Information management
Q2) According to the text, which of the following levels of waste minimization produces the greatest minimization of waste?
A) waste prevention and reduction
B) recycle and reuse
C) waste treatment
D) waste disposal
E) waste remarketing
Q3) Benchmarking is the process of setting corporate norms.
A)True
B)False
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Page 50
Chapter 17: Managing Information
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Sample Questions
Q1) ____ is the direct electronic transmission of purchase and ordering information from one company's computer system to another company's computer system.
A) Automated processing
B) Electronic data interchange
C) Transaction channeling
D) Data manipulation
E) Information exchange
Q2) Refer to City of London. What kind of technology is used to turn the license plate number captured by a photograph into readable text that actually matches license plate records already stored in government databases?
A) virtual private networks
B) SSL encryption
C) private encryption codes
D) optical character recognition software
E) RFID software
Q3) Bar codes and document scanners are common methods of electronically capturing data.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Managing Information: Part A
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Q1) Although firewalls can protect personal computers and network services connected to the corporate network, people away from their offices who interact with their company networks via the Internet face a safety risk. Which of the following technologies has proven to be a viable solution to this problem?
A) safe software for logic (SSL) encryption
B) firewall reengineering
C) secure sockets layer (SSL) encryption
D) secure logistical LAN (SLL) encryption
E) virus protected networks (VPNs)
Q2) Raw data contain useful information that communicate a clear and readily understandable message to the person for which the data were gathered.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Unsupervised data mining is particularly good at identifying:
A) association or affinity patterns
B) sequence patterns
C) predictive patterns
D) data clusters
E) all of these
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Chapter 17: Managing Information: Part B
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Sample Questions
Q1) Data clusters:
A) result from the use of internal data mining
B) are a statistical technique used for trend analysis
C) are used to create samples for statistical analyses
D) occur when three or more database elements occur together in a significant way
E) are accurately described by all of these
Q2) Data mining is the:
A) automated, electronic capture of data
B) process of hypothesis testing in large databases
C) process of verifying known relationships in large amounts of data
D) process of discovering unknown patterns and relationships in large amounts of data
E) method used to identify and eliminate perishable data
Q3) The goal of an executive information system (EIS) is to:
A) replace the need for intuition in decision making
B) create a link among authorized data and network users
C) protect organizational data from hackers
D) provide accurate, complete, relevant, and timely information to managers
E) do none of these
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Chapter 18: Managing Service and Manufacturing Operations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Transaction costs and loss of customer goodwill are both examples of ____.
A) ordering costs
B) setup costs
C) holding costs
D) depreciation costs
E) stockout costs
Q2) Since the Baldrige Award is directly based on ISO 9000 standards, it is essentially a U.S. version of recognition for excellence in meeting the ISO 9000 standards.
A)True
B)False
Q3) According to the textbook, what should a business owner do with excess inventory?
A) cut prices on the product to increase its sales
B) donate the products and get a tax write-off
C) throw the excess away
D) throw a party
E) raise prices and sell the product as a premium product
Q4) There are two ways to define quality. Describe both of them.
Q5) Briefly describe total quality management (TQM).
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Chapter 18: Managing Service and Manufacturing
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41991
Sample Questions
Q1) The term __________ refers to restoring customer satisfaction to strongly dissatisfied customers.
A) service recovery
B) service enhancement
C) customer focus
D) customer reengineering
E) relationship marketing
Q2) Which of the following types of operations are most dependent on the accuracy of sales forecasts?
A) project manufacturing
B) assemble-to-order operations
C) make-to-order operations
D) buy-to-sell operations
E) make-to-stock operations
Q3) A product's quality is determined by its:
A) reliability, homogeneity, and durability
B) reliability, validity, and effectiveness
C) serviceability, tangibility, and homogeneity
D) durability, reliability, and serviceability
E) consistency, tangibility, and durability
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Chapter 18: Managing Service and Manufacturing
Operations: Part B
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Sample Questions
Q1) Two common measures of productivity are extrinsic productivity and intrinsic productivity.
A)True
B)False
Q2) _______ refers to a manufacturing operation that divides manufacturing processes into separate parts or modules that are combined to create semi-customized products.
A) Assemble-to-stock
B) Assemble-to-order
C) Make-to-order
D) Make-to-stock
E) Batch processing
Q3) Which of the following shows the correct relationship for productivity, outputs, and inputs?
A) productivity = (inputs/outputs)
B) productivity = [(inputs outputs)/100]
C) outputs = (productivity/inputs)
D) productivity = (outputs/inputs)
E) inputs = (productivity/outputs)
56
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