Foundations of Life Sciences
Test Questions
Course Introduction
Foundations of Life Sciences introduces students to the fundamental concepts and principles that form the basis of the biological sciences. Topics covered include the molecular and chemical basis of life, structure and function of cells, genetics and heredity, evolution and natural selection, ecology, and the diversity of living organisms. The course emphasizes critical thinking, scientific reasoning, and the application of the scientific method, providing a comprehensive overview of how living systems operate and interact with their environment. This course serves as a foundational platform for further study in biology and related disciplines.
Recommended Textbook
Biology Today and Tomorrow with Physiology 4th Edition by Cecie Starr
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Invitation to Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) All known species can be grouped into three domains.What are they?
A) prokaryotes, bacteria, and eukarya.
B) prokaryotes, archaea, and eukarya.
C) plantae, bacteria, and archaea.
D) bacteria, archaea, and eukarya.
E) bacteria, archaea, and protista.
Answer: D
Q2) This includes all of the ecosystems on earth.
A)population
B)living cells
C)molecules
D)biosphere
E)ecosystem
F)organs
G)tissues
H)community
Answer: D
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Molecules of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fats will dissolve in ethanol.Ethanol is an example of a
A) solute
B) solution
C) solvent
D) salt
E) ion
Answer: C
Q2) atoms with more or less electrons than protons.
A)Mass number
B)Atomic number
C)Radioisotope
D)Isotopes
E)Ions
Answer: E
Q3) the two units that combine in various ways to form lipids
Answer: J
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Cell Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the correct difference between rough endoplasmic reticula and smooth ER?
A) rough ER is an extension of the nuclear envelope; smooth ER is not B) smooth ER has a double bilayer membrane; rough ER does not
C) smooth ER consists of flattened sacs and tubes; rough ER does not
D) rough ER has a surface studded with ribosomes; smooth ER does not
E) smooth ER synthesizes proteins: rough ER does not
Answer: D
Q2) cytoplasm
Answer: E
Q3) capsule
Answer: B
Q4) flagellum
Answer: A
Q5) cell wall
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Energy and Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Four of the five statements listed below are related to the second law of thermodynamics.Select the EXCEPTION.
A) There is an increased state of disorder.
B) Energy can be neither created nor destroyed.
C) The amount of available energy in a closed system declines with time.
D) Energy is lost as it is transferred or transformed to another form.
E) Spontaneous flow of energy from high- to low-quantity forms occurs.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a type of transport protein involved in passive transport?
A) a glucose transporter
B) an open channel
C) a gated channel
D) an ion pump
E) more than one of these
Q3) What does a phosphate group transfer from ATP do to active transport pumps?
A) opens channels that allow for the movement of solutes
B) changes their shapes
C) ionizes them
D) causes them to fuse with the surrounding phospholipid membrane
E) destroys them
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Chapter 5: Capturing and Releasing Energy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT associated with the light-dependent reaction?
A) ATP
B) thylakoids
C) chlorophyll
D) glucose
E) water
Q2) formation of acetaldehyde is next to the last step in this pathway
Q3) How many ATP form in the third stage of aerobic respiration?
A) 4
B) 16
C) 23
D) 32
E) 36
Q4) How many NADH molecules are generated in the breakdown of one molecule of glucose in aerobic respiration?
A) 5
B) 10
C) 15
D) 20
E) 25
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Chapter 6: DNA Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The structure of a DNA molecule is analogous to a
A) paper clip.
B) ladder.
C) fork.
D) rope.
E) coiled spring.
Q2) Four of the five answers listed below are people who were involved in the discovery of the structure of DNA.Select the EXCEPTION.
A) Wilkins
B) Wallace
C) Watson
D) Franklin
E) Crick
Q3) If a person had defective centromeres,which of the following would result?
A) the DNA would not coil around histones
B) DNA could not duplicate
C) sister chromatids could not attach to each other
D) the chromosome number would be reduced
E) none of these would result
Q4) this researcher's work suggested that DNA was double helix
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Gene Expression and Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) complex with proteins to form ribosomes
Q2) For eukaryotes,transcription takes place in the A) nucleus.
B) nucleolus.
C) cytoplasm.
D) plasma membrane.
E) nucleus and cytoplasm.
Q3) Four of the five answers listed below are found in RNA molecules.Select the EXCEPTION.
A) adenine
B) guanine
C) thymine
D) uracil
E) cytosine
Q4) A gene is a DNA sequence that codes for a protein or A) RNA.
B) DNA.
C) ribosomes.
D) a lipid.
E) more than one of these.
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Chapter 8: How Cells Reproduce
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these is a disadvantage of asexual reproduction?
A) only half of the parent's genes are passed on to offspring
B) less genetic diversity in offspring
C) more rapid reproductive rate
D) none of these are disadvantages of asexual reproduction
E) all of these are disadvantages of asexual reproduction
Q2) The cell in micrograph "I" is at which stage of the cell cycle?
A) prophase
B) telophase
C) interphase
D) anaphase
E) metaphase
Q3) The most important advantage of sexual reproduction is related to
A) increased production of offspring.
B) avoiding predators.
C) avoiding harmful mutations.
D) producing offspring identical to the parents.
E) the advantage of having two sexes.
Q4) period prior to mitosis
Q5) when DNA is replicated
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Chapter 9: Patterns of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) effect in which a trait is influenced by the product of multiple genes
Q2) For this problem,you may want to create a Punnett Square on a separate piece of paper.Manuel has both cystic fibrosis,a recessive disorder,and sickle cell anemia which is also a recessive disorder.Manuel's partner,Lucretia,is normal for both conditions.What is the probability that Manuel and Lucretia will have a normal child without either of the conditions Manuel has?
A) 0%
B) 25%
C) 75%
D) 100%
E) it is not possible to solve this problem with the information provided
Q3) refers to a gene whose product influences multiple genes
Q4) Amniocentesis involves sampling
A) the embryo at the eight cell stage.
B) fetal cells in the amniotic fluid.
C) sperm or egg cells.
D) fetal skin tissue.
E) placental cells.
Q5) disorder that is an X-linked recessive trait
Q6) disorder that occurs when an amino acid is not converted to tyrosine
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Biotechnology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Crops have been genetically modified to resist the herbicide, A) glyphosate.
B) DDT.
C) triazine.
D) 2, 4-D.
E) atrazine.
Q2) What percent of a person's 3 billion nucleotides is unique to that person?
A) 1
B) 5
C) 10
D) 25
E) 50
Q3) Golden rice is made more beta-carotene rich with genes from bacteria and A) corn.
B) mice.
C) tulips.
D) daffodils.
E) oranges.
Q4) replacing diseased organs with healthy ones from other species
Q5) circular DNA isolated from bacteria that serve as gene vectors
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Evidence of Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) How much more powerful than the asteroid impact that created the Barringer Crater in Arizona was the asteroid impact that created the crater off the coast of the Yucatan Peninsula?
A) 10 million times
B) 20 million times
C) 30 million times
D) 40 million times
E) 50 million times
Q2) Why is it unlikely that we will find fossils of every extinct species?
A) Most dead organisms are eaten by scavengers.
B) Organic remains decompose.
C) Not all species have hard parts like bones or teeth.
D) Most fossils are buried too deep for us to find.
E) More than one of these is correct.
Q3) Who,among the following,was the earliest naturalist?
A) Darwin
B) Plato
C) Mendel
D) Galileo
E) Aristotle
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Chapter 12: Processes of Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Females choosing males with elongated eyestalks over those with short eyestalks is an example of
A) directional selection.
B) disruptive selection.
C) dominance.
D) a sexual handicap.
E) sexual selection.
Q2) In some species of flowering plants,pollen from unrelated species may germinate on the female stigma,but the pollen tube grows only a short distance and fertilization does not occur.This is an example of ___ isolation.
A) species
B) temporal
C) behavioral
D) ecological
E) mechanical
Q3) lineage that rapidly diversifies into several new species
Q4) an example is flowering plants and their pollinators
Q5) an example of this is the evolutionary history of the coelacanth
Q6) group of species that share a set of characteristics
Q7) often follows extinction or the exploitation of a new habitat by a new species
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Chapter 13: Early Life Forms and the Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT one of the components of the iron-sulfur world hypothesis?
A) hydrothermal vents
B) carbon monoxide
C) pyruvate
D) donated electrons
E) iron oxide
Q2) According to scientific evidence,early life could NOT form or persist in the presence of
A) methane gas.
B) hydrogen gas.
C) oxygen gas.
D) water vapor.
E) carbon dioxide.
Q3) Which of the following protists are able to produce bioluminescent molecules?
A) foraminiferans
B) apicomplexans
C) ciliates
D) dinoflagellates
E) euglenoids
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Chapter 14: Plants and Fungi
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Sample Questions
Q1) The vast majority of plant species are
A) algae.
B) bryophytes.
C) gymnosperms.
D) angiosperms.
E) mosses.
Q2) Four of the five plants listed below have flagellated sperm.Select the EXCEPTION.
A) mosses
B) horsetails
C) ginkgos
D) conifers
E) ferns
Q3) Which of the following organism is described by chitin cell walls,spore production,extracellular digestion?
A) water molds
B) dinoflagellates
C) yeast
D) red algae
E) ferns
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Animal Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true of the cells of a Choanoflagellate colony?
A) each cell is genetically unique
B) each cell is genetically identical
C) each cell has a different chromosome number
D) each cell performs the same function as the other cells
E) each cell has the ability to switch their sex from male to female and back again
Q2) Which of the following primates is a hominin?
A) bonobos
B) gorillas
C) humans
D) gibbons
E) more than one of these
Q3) This arthropod has four pairs of walking legs,no antennae,and is venomous.This arthropod is ___.
A) a scorpion
B) a tick
C) a barnacle
D) a bee
E) more than one of these
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Population Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which type of population distribution would plot sampling be most accurate?
A) clumping
B) uniform
C) random
D) random and clumping
E) uniform and clumping
Q2) The age-structure diagram for rapidly growing populations
A) is in the form of a pyramid.
B) is characterized by a large percentage of the population in the post-reproductive years.
C) has a very broad base, showing a large number of young.
D) has about equal distribution among all age groups.
E) is in the form of a pyramid and has a very broad base showing a large number of young.
Q3) the amount of the Earth's surface needed to sustain a population's life habits
Q4) the birth rate minus the death rate
Q5) A harsh winter is an example of this.
Q6) This describes a population that grows slowly at first then increases rapidly until it reaches carrying capacity.
Q7) a necessary resource,the depletion of which halts population growth
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Chapter 17: Communities and Ecosystems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following definitions is CORRECT?
A) A community refers to interaction between populations and their environment.
B) A community refers to interaction between species and their environment.
C) A community refers to the area in which different species live.
D) A community refers to all species that live and interact in a specific area.
E) None of these are correct.
Q2) Nitrogen gas is first converted into ___ by certain___ before it enters the land nitrogen cycle.
A) nitrate...bacteria
B) ammonium...bacteria
C) elemental nitrogen...bacteria
D) nitrate...bacteria and fungi
E) ammonium...bacteria and fungi
Q3) Populations are held in check by
A) resource partition.
B) predation.
C) social parasitism.
D) competition.
E) all of these.
Q4) second trophic level
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Chapter 18: The Biosphere and Human Effects
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Sample Questions
Q1) What happens to air as it is cooled?
A) It rises.
B) It sinks.
C) It moves horizontally.
D) It moves at a faster speed.
E) It does none of these.
Q2) the most structurally complex
Q3) most extensive biome
Q4) By the time air currents have reached 30? north and south latitude it has become __________ and __________.
Q5) The Earth's orbit shifts approximately every ___ years.
A) 1,000
B) 10,000
C) 100,000
D) 1,000,000
E) 1,000,000,000
Q6) Promoting sustainability requires us to recognize the __________ of our lifestyle.
Q7) Name two factors that will influence the composition of aquatic communities.
Q8) main producers are dinoflagellates
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Chapter 19: Animal Tissues and Organs
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of junction will hold epithelial tissues together?
A) tight
B) lose
C) solid
D) gap
E) permeable
Q2) covers the body surface
Q3) allows substances to cross by diffusion
Q4) Most epidermal cells are ___.
A) melanocytes
B) keratinocytes
C) collagenocytes
D) phagocytes
E) erythrocytes
Q5) Which of the following is NOT found in the dermis?
A) sensory receptors
B) sweat glands
C) hair follicles
D) adipose tissue
E) all of these are found in the dermis
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Chapter 20: How Animals Move
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Sample Questions
Q1) soft-bodied invertebrates have this type of skeleton
Q2) The main components of the thick filaments of a sarcomere are ___ and the main components of the thin filaments of a sarcomere are ___.
A) actin---myosin
B) myosin---actin
C) myofibrils--actin
D) A lines---Z lines
E) myofibrils---myosin
Q3) In the future,it may be possible to slow muscle loss from diseases and aging by inhibiting myostatin production.However,which of the following might be adversely affected?
A) ligaments
B) tendons
C) heart muscle
D) actin production
E) ATP production
Q4) has marrow that produces blood cells
Q5) __________ results from a mutation to a gene on the X chromosome that will eventually lead to muscle fibers to break down.
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Chapter 21: Circulation and Respiration
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pulmonary circuit involves blood moving from
A) the ventricle, to the lungs, back to the heart, then to the body tissues.
B) the atrium, to the lungs, and directly to the body tissues.
C) the ventricle, to the body tissue, then to the lungs.
D) the atrium, to the body tissue, then to the heart.
E) the atrium, to the lungs, back to the heart, then to the body tissues.
Q2) erythrocytes may be in short supply or abnormally formed; symptoms include shortness of breath,fatigue,and chills
A)hemophilia
B)anemia
C)emphysema
D)atherosclerosis
E)hypertension
Q3) Blood pumped from the left ventricle goes into the A) vena cava.
B) aorta.
C) pulmonary artery.
D) right ventricle.
E) left atrium.
Q4) the windpipe
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Four of the five choices below are components of the human lymphatic system.Select the EXCEPTION.
A) spleen
B) pancreas
C) tonsils
D) lymph nodes
E) thymus
Q2) In which of the following places would you find the largest concentrations of normal flora?
A) armpits
B) between the toes
C) mouth
D) stomach fluids
E) hair
Q3) Which of the following do NOT kill microorganisms that get swallowed?
A) stomach acidity
B) protein-digesting enzymes
C) bile salts
D) PAMPs
E) all of these do kill microorganisms that get swallowed
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Chapter 23: Digestion and Excretion
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Sample Questions
Q1) the process that occurs first in urine formation
Q2) Which of the following is true of vitamins?
A) they are inorganic substances needed in small amounts
B) fat-soluble vitamins include C and B vitamins
C) they are stored in body fat
D) large amounts of vitamin K during pregnancy can cause birth defects
E) taking large amounts of vitamin D can cause death
Q3) Which of the following is true of anorexia nervosa?
A) it is caused by environmental and genetic factors combined
B) bones are weakened from loss of calcium
C) iron- deficiency anemia is common
D) hear muscle is weakened
E) all of these are true of anorexia nervosa
Q4) Gastric bypass surgery
A) is more effective than standard weight loss methods.
B) reduces the size of the patient's stomach and small intestine.
C) reduces the amount of ghrelin secreted, so the patient feels less hungry.
D) may increase the risk of vitamin and mineral deficiency.
E) does all of these.
Q5) the process essential for temperature homeostasis
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Neural Control and the Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which parts of the human eye are adjustable- that is,they can be adjusted to accommodate light and/ or images?
A) the cornea
B) the iris
C) the lens
D) the cornea and the lens
E) the lens and the iris
Q2) Referring to the above diagram of the brain,H identifies which region?
A) corpus callosum
B) hypothalamus
C) cerebrum
D) midbrain
E) medulla oblongata
Q3) Neuroglia are
A) another term for neurons.
B) helper cells that move neurons from place to place.
C) cells that provide insulation to neurons.
D) chemicals that conduct signals across synapses.
E) more than one of these.
Q4) addictive drugs simulate the release of this neurotransmitter
Page 26
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Chapter 25: Endocrine Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of type 1 diabetes?
A) insulin levels are normal
B) symptoms usually begin in childhood and adolescence
C) it cannot be controlled by diet and exercise
D) insulin must be injected
E) all of these are characteristics of type 1 diabetes
Q2) Which choice is FALSE about Addison's disease?
A) It could be caused by low cortisol levels.
B) It could be caused by tuberculosis.
C) It could be caused by an autoimmune condition.
D) Blood pressure and blood sugar levels can fall into life-threatening range.
E) The condition is treated with synthetic aldosterone.
Q3) Cortisol steroids are produced at letter _____.
Q4) The organs at letter _____ produce hormones and eggs
Q5) If you skip a meal,which of the following conditions would prevail?
A) Insulin levels would rise.
B) Glucagon levels would rise.
C) Glucose would be taken up by cells.
D) Both insulin and glucagon levels would rise.
E) Glucose would be converted to glycogen.
Page 27
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Chapter 26: Reproduction and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) The embryo develops from cells of the
A) blastocyst outer layers.
B) blastocyst inner cell mass.
C) gastrula mesoderm.
D) gastrula ectoderm.
E) gastrula endoderm.
Q2) In a sperm's journey out of the body what is the correct order of structures it encounters either directly or by way of the structure's secretions?
1)bulbourethral gland
2)vas deferens
3)seminal vesicle
4)epididymus
5)urethra
A) 4-2-1-3-5
B) 4-1-2-3-5
C) 4-2-3-1-5
D) 2-4-3-1-5
E) 2-4-1-3-5
Q3) At this stage of development,the male sex cell is first in the haploid condition.
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Chapter 27: Plant Form and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) tracheids
Q2) Four of the five answers listed below are characteristics of eudicots.Select the EXCEPTION.
A) two cotyledons
B) flower parts in four or fives or multiples of these numbers
C) leaf veins running parallel
D) pollen grains with three pores or furrows
E) vascular bundles organized in a ring in the ground tissue
Q3) vascular tissue that conducts water and dissolved salts throughout a plant
Q4) vascular tissue of a plant composed of tracheids and vessel members
Q5) Plants in general require how many essential elements,both macro and micro,for their growth and survival?
A) 6
B) 12
C) 16
D) 22
E) 28
Q6) epidermis
Q7) seeds with one cotyledon
Q8) xylem
Page 29
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Chapter 28: Plant Reproduction and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Abscission of fruits and leaves is controlled by A) abscisic acid.
B) ethylene.
C) gibberellin.
D) auxin.
E) cytokinin.
Q2) The endosperm produced during double fertilization is A) diploid.
B) tetraploid.
C) polyploid.
D) triploid.
E) haploid.
Q3) Most apple trees grown from seed produce A) superior tasting fruit.
B) higher yields of fruit.
C) unpalatable fruit.
D) breed true.
E) have less genetic diversity.
Q4) The carpel is indicated by letter _____.
Q5) closes stomata in times of stress
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