Foundations of Information Systems Solved
Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Foundations of Information Systems introduces students to the essential concepts and principles underlying information systems in modern organizations. The course covers fundamental topics such as the role of information systems in business, system components and architectures, data management, networking, and the integration of technology with organizational processes. Students explore the impact of information systems on decision-making, competitive advantage, and organizational effectiveness, while gaining an understanding of ethical, legal, and security issues. Through case studies and practical examples, the course provides a solid base for further study and real-world application in the field of information systems.
Recommended Textbook
Mike Meyers CompTIA A+ Guide to Managing and Troubleshooting PCs 4th Edition by Michael Meyers
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2
Chapter 1: The Path of the PC Tech
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Q1) Is Windows 8 covered on the CompTIA A+ exams?
Answer: The current CompTIA A+ exams do not include coverage of Windows 8.
Q2) Which of the following has developed and sponsors A+ Certification?
A) CompTIA
B) Cisco
C) Prometric and Pearson VUE
D) Microsoft
Answer: A
Q3) The A+ Hardware exam tests your knowledge of _______________,expecting you to be able to identify just about every common device on PCs.
Answer: computer components
Q4) Effective January 1,2011,there is no longer __________.
Answer: lifetime certification
Q5) What two exams must you pass to become CompTIA A+ certified?
Answer: To become A+ certified,you must pass both the Hardware and Operating Systems exams.
Q6) You should consider _______________,_______________,and _______________ certifications after completing A+.
Answer: CompTIA Network+;Microsoft Certified Professional;Cisco
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Operational Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are some examples of equipment that can be affected by radio frequency interference (RFI)?
Answer: PC speakers and wireless networks can both be affected by RFI.
Q2) What is the first step in assertive communication?
Answer: The first step in assertive communication is to show respect for others,and the second step is to state the problem clearly without accusation.
Q3) Who should you contact if you notice dangerous cables or other hazardous materials at a customer site?
A) Your boss
B) Hasmat
C) MSDS
D) Building Services
Answer: D
Q4) _______________ means to tell the truth and _______________ means to do the right thing.
Answer: Honesty;integrity
Q5) You should respect other people's property and follow the _______________,also known as the Golden Rule.
Answer: Ethic of Reciprocity
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Chapter 3: The Visible PC
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Sample Questions
Q1) Micro-A and micro-B connectors are what type of connectors,although less commonly seen?
A) Parallel
B) Firewire
C) Serial
D) USB
Answer: D
Q2) Name the two common types of hard drives.
Answer: The two common types of hard drives are PATA (parallel ATA)and SATA (serial ATA).
Q3) ____________________ commands tell the computer what to do to get work done.
Answer: Programming
Q4) DB connectors are technically called ____________________ connectors. Answer: D-sub (D-subminiature
Q5) Hard-drive capacity is measured in ____________________ or ____________________.
Answer: gigabytes (GB;terabytes (TB
Q6) In addition to a heat sink,what helps keep a CPU cool?
Answer: Fans are usually mounted on top of the CPU to keep it cool.
Q7) A(n)____________________ component is inside the system unit.
Answer: internal Page 5
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Chapter 4: Visible Windows
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which file system is the most secure?
A) Windows Vista Enterprise
B) FAT32
C) NTFS
D) FAT
Q2) Windows 7 __________ includes everything that Windows 7 has to offer.
Q3) Pressing the ____________________ Windows shortcut key combination will lock the computer.
Q4) "My Network Places" in XP has been replaced with what in Vista and Windows 7?
Q5) Microsoft Management Console is a shell program that holds individual utilities called _____.
A) applets
B) batch-runs
C) snap-ins
D) binary executables
Q6) What does pressing the Ctrl-Esc hot-key combination produce?
A) Switches between open programs
B) Opens IE8
C) Start menu
D) Quits program
Page 7
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Chapter 5: Visible Networks
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Sample Questions
Q1) __________ is the standard for UTP connectors.
Q2) Modern Ethernet networks all use a __________ topology.
Q3) During the 1980s,IBM developed the __________,the default protocol for early versions of Windows.
Q4) Microsoft introduced a new feature in Windows 7 called __________.
Q5) What is a subnet mask?
Q6) How are MAC addresses represented?
A) 32 binary digits
B) 12 hexadecimal characters
C) IP address
D) DNS name
Q7) When configuring IP information,the __________ is the IP address on the LAN side of your router.
Q8) Describe an IP address.
Q9) Who established CAT levels?
Q10) How do domains handle resource access?
Page 8
Q11) In what versions of Windows do homegroups appear?
Q12) What is a default gateway?
Q13) A data check to verify that the data was received in good order is called a ____________________.
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Page 9
Chapter 6: Microprocessors
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Sample Questions
Q1) What cache was historically on the motherboard but now often comes on the CPU?
A) L1
B) L2
C) Motherboard cache
D) CPU cache
Q2) __________-bit processors can access up to 16 EB of RAM.
Q3) The CPU can access data quickest when it's stored in ____________________.
Q4) What is a 32-bit processor?
Q5) Which type of cache was originally located outside the CPU on the motherboard?
Q6) Which of the following stores the data that the CPU actively uses?
A) CD
B) Floppy diskette
C) Hard drive
D) RAM
Q7) What is a clock cycle?
Q8) Intel designed ____________________ sockets to make CPU insertion and removal easier.
Q9) What are three examples of Intel-based sockets?
Q10) How do newer CPUs support virtualization?
Q11) The communication device of the CPU is called the ____________________. Page 10
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Chapter 7: RAM
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Q1) What is the significance of a real parity error?
Q2) A system using DDR RAM with a 200 MHz RAM clock speed would require a PC speed rating of _______________.
Q3) Access speed of RDRAM is measured in _______________.
Q4) What is a mass storage device?
Q5) What should you use while installing a SO-DIMM?
Q6) The _______________ doubles the output of SDRAM by making two processes every clock cycle.
Q7) Instead of parity,modern servers employ motherboards that support _______________ for error checking.
Q8) As SDRAM was not fast enough for the Pentium 4,_______________ was developed.
Q9) What is RDRAM also known as?
A) RIMM
B) DIPP
C) SIMM
D) SIPP
Q11) What is serial presence detect (SPD)? Page 12
Q10) What is meant by random access memory?
Q12) What are the minimum system memory requirements for Windows XP?
Q13) The dual-channel DDR works only when _______________ is installed in two slots.
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13
Chapter 8: Bios
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Sample Questions
Q1) What did Intel create to go beyond the limits of the traditional 16-bit BIOS?
A) EFI
B) TPM
C) DriveLock
D) Chip creep
Q2) How do CMOS settings support overclocking?
Q3) Many CMOS setup menus allow changes to the CPU,RAM,and GPU,which supports
A) Overheating
B) Overclocking
C) Multitasking
D) Multiprocessing
Q4) What should be done to resolve a CMOS configuration mismatch error?
Q5) Which of the following is not a common key or key combination to enter CMOS setup?
A) Del
B) Esc
C) F1
D) Scroll Lock
Q6) How is the ROM typically "flashed"?
Page 14
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Chapter 9: Motherboards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Modern chipsets contain ____________________ chips to provide legacy support to the systems.
Q2) The ____________________ chip helps the CPU to work with the RAM.
Q3) As of today,what is the fastest,most popular expansion bus in use?
A) ISA
B) AGP
C) PCI
D) PCIe
Q4) If you have an ethereal-related problem with a motherboard,what should you do before replacing it?
Q5) What are the dimensions of a microATX motherboard?
A) 9.6 by 9.6 inches
B) 12 by 9.6 inches
C) 6.7 by 6.7 inches
D) 4.7 by 4.7 inches
Q6) What type of failure results in the PC failing to boot?
A) Burn-in failure
B) Catastrophic failure
C) Component failure
D) Ethereal failure
Page 15
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Chapter 10: Power Supplies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Wires have a slight ____________________ to the flow of electrons.
Q2) How many watts of power does a typical hard drive in a PC require?
A) 12
B) 15
C) 20
D) 18
Q3) What is the use of splitters?
Q4) How does a typical power supply deal with changing voltages in different countries?
Q5) Describe a multimeter.
Q6) What unit is used to measure voltage?
A) Ampere
B) Volt
C) Watt
D) Ohm
Q7) What is an FRU?
Q8) ____________________ is the amount of electrons moving past a certain point on a wire.
Q9) What's a possible symptom of a power supply that is dying slowly?
Q10) How does a ground wire provide protection from overflow of electricity?
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Chapter 11: Hard Drive Technologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each platter requires ____ heads.
A) two
B) three
C) five
D) eight
Q2) What are the four different technologies used for hard drives today?
Q3) What is the function of termination in a SCSI chain?
Q4) ATA (IDE)drives connect to the computer via a(n)____________________ plug and a controller.
Q5) How many pins does an EIDE (ATA)drive have?
A) 7
B) 20
C) 40
D) 80
Q6) Which SATA variety runs at 6 GBPS?
A) SATA 2.0
B) SATA 1.0
C) SATA 3.0
D) SATA 6.0
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Q7) RAID that does not provide any data redundancy is known as
Chapter 12: Implementing Hard Drives
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Q1) A PC can boot to both Windows XP and Linux or Windows Vista.What is this called?
A) Dual-boot
B) Integrated
C) MBR enabled
D) Schizophrenic
Q2) What option is used to convert a basic disk into a dynamic disk in Windows?
Q3) What tool in Windows is used to partition and format a drive?
A) Disk Management
B) Disk Administrator
C) FDISK
D) RAID
Q4) ____________________ is a tool used to get rid of files in the Recycle Bin,temporary Internet files,and downloaded program files.
Q5) What type of volume can be used to increase the read and write speed on a dynamic disk?
Q6) When you install an operating system,you must set that partition as ____________________.
Q7) The ____________________ program in Windows is used to rearrange the files into neat,contiguous chunks.
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Chapter 13: Removable Media
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Q1) How can you enable or disable Autoplay in Windows XP?
Q2) What is buffer underrun?
Q3) CDs,DVDs,and BDs are generically known as ____________________ media.
Q4) The replacement for the VHS tape was ____________________.
Q5) DVD-ROM is the DVD-equivalent of the standard ____ data format.
A) CD-RAM
B) CD-ROM
C) CD-RW
D) CD-R
Q6) What is USB flash memory typically known as?
A) Flash floppies
B) CDs
C) Thumbs
D) Thumb drives
Q7) What is the difference between CD-R and CD-RW?
Q8) What is the basic advantage of using CD-RW over CD-R?
Q9) Standard floppy disks are ____________________ inches in size.
Q11) List the two formats of DVDs. Page 19
Q10) Windows __________ can burn ISO images.
Q12) __________ cards come in two sizes: 3.3-mm thick and 5-mm thick.
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Page 20
Chapter 14: Installing and Upgrading Windows
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Sample Questions
Q1) The minimum size of the boot partition for Windows XP should be at least ____ GB.
A) 1.5
B) 2
C) 10
D) 15
Q2) Beginning with Windows 2000 Server,Microsoft introduced ____________________,which can be used to initiate either a scripted installation or an installation of an image.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT an iteration of the Windows hardware compatibility list?
A) Windows Certified Hardware List
B) Hardware Compatibility List
C) Windows 7 Compatibility Center
D) Windows Logo'd Product list
Q4) Windows Server 2008 and 2008 R2,implement __________ to replace RIS.
Q5) If installed on Windows 7,__________ requires an additional 1 GB of RAM and an additional 15 GB of available hard disk space.
Q6) How does smart recovery mode help in completing a failed Windows installation?
Q7) Microsoft uses the term __________ to define an upgrade installation.
Page 21
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Chapter 31: The Right PC for You
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Q1) Bootmgr starts and reads data from a(n)__________ file that contains information about the various operating systems installed on the system.
Q2) The BCD file replaces the boot.ini file used in previous operating systems and can be altered by using the command-line tool __________.
Q3) Which is NOT a feature of the Windows XP Performance console?
A) Objects and Counters
B) Data Collector Sets and Reports
C) System Monitor
D) Performance Logs and Alerts
Q4) What is the one-stop place for anything you need to do with applications,processes,or services?
A) Program Manager
B) Task Manger
C) Administrative Tools
D) Services Manager
Q5) What does the Disk(x)entry signify in the boot.ini file?
Q6) Where can the XP operating system files reside?
Q7) In Windows XP,the additional system file required if you're using a SCSI hard drive is
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Chapter 16: NTFS, Users, and Groups
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Q1) What happens to the permissions of the copy of a file when it is copied from an NTFS hard drive to a FAT32 USB thumb drive?
Q2) Similar to Windows XP,the Home editions of Windows Vista offer only which three groups?
Q3) List the standard permissions for a folder.
Q4) Which of the following statements is not true?
A) Standard users in Vista are prevented from uninstalling applications.
B) The Local Users and Groups tool is used to add new groups.
C) Standard users in Vista can run most applications.
D) The guest account is enabled by default in Windows XP.
Q5) It's considered best practice to assign __________ to groups and then add user accounts to groups.
Q6) With the ____________________ permission,you can give or take away permissions for other accounts.
A) Change
B) List
C) Read & Execute
D) Modify
Q7) What do the most recent professional versions of Windows use to encrypt files?
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Chapter 17: Maintaining and Optimizing Windows
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Q1) The tool used to back up files and folders in Windows XP is called
Q2) What works in the background to stop viruses and other malware from taking over programs loaded in system memory?
A) Data Execution Prevention
B) Task Manager
C) System Monitor
D) Performance Console
Q3) Windows XP Performance Options has three tabs called ____________________,____________________,and
Q4) Which of the following will NOT cause an automatic restore point to be created in Windows Vista and 7?
A) Installing software
B) Installing updates
C) No restore point being created for a certain amount of time
D) Editing the registry
Q5) What is the function of Disk Cleanup?
Q6) How has the Add or Remove Programs applet been changed in Windows Vista and 7?
24
Q7) What is the executable name for the System Configuration utility?
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Chapter 18: Working With the Command-Line Interface
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Q1) The archive attribute is used by backup software to identify the files that have been ____________________ since their last backup.
Q2) What does the extension part of a filename indicate?
Q3) Entering the command ____________________ at a Command Prompt will scan,detect,and repair hard drive volume- and sector-related issues.
Q4) Which command always navigates the command-line interface back to the root directory?
A) cd..
B) cd \
C) cd/
D) cd \ ..
Q5) To add an attribute to a file,the attribute letter is preceded by a(n)____ sign. A) asterisk (*)
B) minus (-)
C) percentage (%)
D) plus (+)
Q6) What is xcopy?
Q7) How is the command-line interface accessed in Windows?
Q8) How is xcopy different from the copy command?
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Chapter 19: Troubleshooting Windows
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Q1) What are some of the different types of Safe modes available?
Q2) What would cause the computer to automatically boot into Safe mode?
Q3) In Windows Vista,you should select ____________________ in the System Recovery Options to restore Windows to an earlier point in time.
Q4) What is the best way to restore a good Registry copy?
Q5) Which Recovery Console command displays the current drive letter mappings?
A) map
B) md
C) more
D) systemroot
Q6) Many programs load at startup.The Windows XP ____________________ utility allows you to see and maintain every program or service that loads at startup.
System Configuration or MSCONFIG.EXE
Q7) If you insert a software disc,which file does Windows look for automatically?
A) startup.inf
B) setup.exe
C) autorun.inf
D) bootmgr
Q8) What is the Recovery Console?
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Chapter 20: Input Devices
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which standard defines everything about serial ports?
A) USB-10
B) IEEE 1394E
C) RS-232
D) SSL-232
Q2) How can you gauge the quality of a digital camera?
Q3) The speed of IEEE 1394a is ____________________ Mbps.
Q4) How fast does a Hi-Speed USB device run?
A) 1.5 Mbps
B) 12 Mbps
C) 400 Mbps
D) 480 Mbps
Q5) __________ are the distinctive,measurable characteristics used to label and describe individuals.
Q6) A scanner advertises a color depth of 16 bits.How many colors can it display?
Q7) How fast does a Low-Speed USB device run?
A) 1.5 Mbps
B) 12 Mbps
C) 400 Mbps
D) 480 Mbps
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Chapter 21: Video
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Q1) To update your display adapter driver,navigate to the Properties dialog box for your adapter,select the Driver tab and then click the ____________________ button to start the Hardware Update Wizard.
Q2) VGA devices can display a total of 262,000 colors.How many colors can they display at a time?
A) 8
B) 16
C) 32
D) 64
Q3) If you hear bird-like chirping sounds emanating from your computer at regular intervals,it usually indicates a problem with the ____________________.
Q4) How can a monitor's screen resolution be changed?
Q5) What are the best connections for outputting to television?
A) MIDI
B) DVI to VGA adapter
C) HDMI
D) DVI-TV
Q6) The ____________________ applet in Windows XP can be used to set screen resolution.
28
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Chapter 22: Local Area Networking
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Q1) What is the default subnet mask for class A addresses?
A) 255.0.0.0
B) 255.255.0.0
C) 255.255.255.0
D) 255.255.255.255
Q2) When you set the IP address manually,the IP address is not subject to change and is called a (n)____________________.
Q3) What three entries should be entered for the Internet Protocol Version 4 (TCP/IPv4)properties when using a static IP address?
Q4) How does multimode fiber work?
Q5) A local router,also called a(n)____________________ sends data outside of a LAN.
Q6) The ____________________ utility shows the route that a packet takes to get to its destination.
Q7) What area is the source for most network cabling failures?
Q8) Windows offers two types of permissions called ____________________ and ____________________ permissions.
29
Q9) In addition to UTP,what other types of cabling can be used for Ethernet?
Q10) What is the difference between half-duplex and full-duplex?
Q11) A (n)__________ measures impedance in network cabling.
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Chapter 23: Wireless Networking
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Q1) Because nodes on a wireless network can't easily detect collisions,which protocol is an option to transfer data over a network?
Q2) What are the throughput,range,and frequency of the 802.11g wireless standard?
Q3) To protect wireless systems,the default SSID name should be ____________________.
Q4) What is the speed at which the 802.11g wireless technology transfers data?
A) 11 Mbps
B) 20 Mbps
C) 54 Mbps
D) 64 Mbps
Q5) Why should a user upgrade from WEP or WPA to WPA2?
Q6) What method do wireless networks use to determine if other nodes are currently broadcasting?
A) CSMA/CD
B) CSMA/CA
C) Dipole antennae
D) MIMO
Q7) __________ is by far the most widely adopted wireless networking type today.
Q8) What is an Independent Basic Service Set (IBSS)?
Q9) Installing a wireless __________ can give you even more power. Page 31
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Chapter 24: The Internet
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Q1) What component in the computer converts individual serial bits of data into 8-bit parallel data that the PC can understand?
A) RAM
B) Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN)
C) Modem
D) Universal Asynchronous Receiver/Transmitter (UART)
Q2) What channels make up an ISDN service?
Q3) What port numbers are used by FTP?
A) 443 and 444
B) 20 and 21
C) 23 and 25
D) 80 and 110
Q4) What provides the basic software structure for communication on the Internet?
A) Chat
B) TCP/IP
C) Telnet
D) Ethernet
Q5) What is the bandwidth of channels in an ISDN service?
Q6) What does IMAP4 allow you to do?
Q7) How is phone line speed measured?
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Chapter 25: Multimedia
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Q1) What does the number 5 indicate in the standard number 5.1?
Q2) Sound cards play MIDI files using either wave table synthesis or the ____________________ technology.
Q3) What does a pop filter do?
Q4) Hardware manufacturers have to ensure that their sound cards are ___________________ compatible.
Q5) What measure describes the relative quality of an input port?
A) Noise-to-noise ratio
B) Noise-to-signal ratio
C) Signal-to-noise ratio
D) Signal-to-signal ratio
Q6) Almost every sound card has an input for a powered ____________________.
Q7) What is the line out connector used for?
A) External device
B) Microphone
C) MIDI input
D) Speaker
Q8) What is a digital audio workstation?
Q9) What is a MIDI controller?
Q10) What are the five tabs in the Windows XP Sounds and Audio Devices applet? Page 34
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Chapter 26: Portable Computing
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Q1) Most portable devices use a special ____________________ key,which adds a third option to certain keys on the keyboard when pressed.
Q2) PC Cards come in two flavors: ____________________ and CardBus.
Q3) What is native resolution for WUXGA?
Q4) Which of the following types of battery is the most toxic and should be disposed of carefully?
A) Li-Ion
B) Ni-Cd
C) Ni-Li
D) Ni-MH
Q5) Which portable hand-held device storage technology is currently the most popular?
A) UMPC
B) CF
C) HDD
D) SD,Mini SD,and Micro SD
Q6) What might happen if Li-Ion batteries are overcharged?
Q7) Usually,the first laptop upgrade is to add more ____________________.
Q8) What are the two standard upgrades every tech should know how to perform on a portable PC?
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Chapter 27: Mobile Devices
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Q1) Every mobile device has a single __________ audio jack for plugging in earbuds or speakers.
Q2) __________ devices offer the least expansion capability of all the mobile devices.
Q3) What technology requires that devices be "paired"?
A) 802.11g
B) Bluetooth
C) Micro USB
D) Data wiping
Q4) What does a gyroscope do on a mobile device?
Q5) What is the main disadvantage of data roaming,especially when in another country?
A) Cost
B) Range
C) Speed
D) Throughput
Q6) __________ is when you can use multiple fingers to do tasks such as expand or shrink an image on the screen.
Q7) Once you type in the __________,Bluetooth devices can pair and connect.
Q8) Mobile devices have a default screen called the __________ screen.
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Chapter 28: Printers
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Sample Questions
Q1) ____________________ printers use an electro-photographic imaging process to produce high-quality and high-speed output of text and graphics.
Q2) A common problem with inkjet printers is the tendency for the ____________________ to dry out when the printer is not used,even for a relatively short time.
Q3) How can a diagnostic print page test be performed on a laser printer?
Q4) What could cause vertical white lines to appear on laser output?
Q5) Most printers connect to a PC via a DB-25 parallel port or a(n)____________________ port.
Q6) How is laser printer resolution measured?
A) Color per inch
B) Dots per inch
C) Pixels per inch
D) Bits per inch
Q7) What should you do if your dot-matrix printer output is covered with dots and small smudges?
Q8) What does "letter quality" mean when referring to printers?
Page 38
Q9) What can cause a laser printer to generate printouts with poorly formed characters?
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Chapter 29: Securing Computers
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Sample Questions
Q1) Together,what are viruses,Trojans,and worms called?
A) Grayware
B) Helpful software
C) Malware
D) Spyware
Q2) List five ways to increase security protection for a wireless network.
Q3) What is it called when a hacker goes through the garbage looking for information?
A) Dumpster diving
B) Infiltration
C) Garbage scan
D) Wastebasket diving
Q4) Boot sector viruses that use various methods to hide from antivirus software are known as ____________________ viruses.
Q5) What open standard encryption mechanism is used for both LANs and remote access,such as VPNs?
Q6) What is encryption on a network?
Q7) Define social engineering.
Q8) What tool is used to set security policies on an individual system?
Q9) How is the Guest account a security risk?
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Chapter 30: Virtualization
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Sample Questions
Q1) An example of a guest operating system that must be licensed is __________.
Q2) Which hypervisor product easily interfaces with large storage,such as network attached storage and storage area networks?
A) KVM
B) ESX
C) Fusion
D) Parallels
Q3) Which of the following is the most limiting factor in a host's ability to run virtual machines?
A) Hard disk space
B) Network bandwidth
C) CPU
D) RAM
Q4) Which of the following operating systems,when added as a virtual machine,requires a separate,licensed copy?
A) Microsoft Windows
B) Ubuntu Linux
C) FreeDOS
D) OpenBSD
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Chapter 31: The Right PC for You
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Q1) Which of the following is NVIDIA's technology for linking multiple graphics cards?
A) HDMI
B) i7 Extreme Edition
C) CrossFire
D) Scalable Link Interface
Q2) Which of the following are motherboard considerations for a thick client?
A) Monitor support
B) RAM support
C) Speaker support
D) HDMI-capable
Q3) What specialized input devices do digital audio workstations use?
Q4) What kind of case fits in with a home-theater system?
Q5) What is the most important hardware component in virtualization?
A) RAM
B) Disk storage
C) Video
D) Sound
Q6) The home server should connect via __________ to minimize any lag or dropped frames during streaming.
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Chapter 32: The Complete PC Tech
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain escalation.
Q2) The ____________________ is nothing more than a set of steps you use along with the computing process to diagnose and fix a computer.
Q3) Explain the troubleshooting theory.
Q4) What kind of report should detail what happened and where it happened?
A) Down time
B) Formalized
C) Incident
D) Performance
Q5) What is an FRU?
A) A field-replaceable unit
B) A free-reigning usability
C) A failed removable unit
D) A fire reduction utility
Q6) What are the four primary stages of the computing process?
A) Keyboard,CPU,monitor,mouse
B) Input,loading,processing,storing
C) Input,processing,storage,output
D) Processing,displaying,storing,output
Q7) What are the six major steps in troubleshooting?
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