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Foundations of Health Professions provides an introduction to the diverse fields within the health sector, covering the roles, responsibilities, and ethical considerations of various health professionals. The course explores the history and evolution of health professions, interdisciplinary collaboration, core competencies, and the impact of social, cultural, and economic factors on healthcare delivery. Students will gain insight into the education, skills, and attributes needed for different health careers, as well as examine contemporary issues and trends shaping the industry. This foundational knowledge prepares students for informed decision-making regarding their future roles within the health professions.
Recommended Textbook
Exploring Medical Language A Student Directed Approach 8th Edition by Myrna Brooks
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Q1) The word part that contains the fundamental meaning of the word is the A) prefix
B) word root
C) suffix
D) combining vowel
Answer: B
Q2) All medical terms have at least one A) prefix B) combining vowel C) suffix
D) word root
Answer: D
Q3) The word part that is attached to the end of a word root to modify its meaning is the A) combining vowel
B) suffix
C) word root
D) prefix
Answer: B
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Q1) The term idiopathic is defined as
A) the absence of signs of disease
B) becoming progressively worse
C) pertaining to a disease of unknown origin
D) a response to injury
Answer: C
Q2) The term neuroma is built from which of the following combinations of word parts?
A) word root and suffix
B) word root, combining vowel, and suffix
C) prefix and word root
D) prefix and word root embedded in suffix
Answer: A
Q3) The combining form onc/o is defined as
A) cancer
B) disease
C) tumor
D) organ
Answer: C
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Q1) The four abdominopelvic quadrants are named
A) upper right quadrant, upper left quadrant, lower left quadrant, lower right quadrant
B) frontal quadrant, coronal quadrant, sagittal quadrant, transverse quadrant
C) umbilical quadrant, epigastric quadrant, lumbar quadrant, iliac quadrant
D) right upper quadrant, left upper quadrant, left lower quadrant, right lower quadrant
Answer: D
Q2) The abbreviation for the directional term meaning pertaining to above is
A) RLQ
B) sup
C) med
D) ant
Answer: B
Q3) The term unilateral means pertaining to
A) the foot
B) one side
C) underneath
D) both sides
Answer: B
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Q1) The term paronychia is defined as
A) inflammation of a sweat gland
B) an ingrown nail
C) a diseased state around the nail
D) inflammation of a hair follicle
Q2) Another term for loss of hair is
A) nevus
B) keloid
C) alopecia
D) cicatrix
Q3) The suffix that means berry-shaped is
A) -ia
B) -phagia
C) -coccus
D) -malacia
Q4) The term percutaneous is defined as pertaining to
A) under the skin
B) within the skin
C) on the skin
D) through the skin
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Q1) The suffix -ary is defined as
A) breathing
B) blood condition
C) constriction
D) pertaining to
Q2) The term that means narrowing of the trachea is
A) tracheitis
B) atelectasis
C) tracheostenosis
D) bronchopneumonia
Q3) Because of the near drowning, the young man experienced a temporary absence of oxygen, or
A) anoxia
B) acapnia
C) apnea
D) eupnea
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Q1) The suffix that means nourishment, development is
A) -ptosis
B) -megaly
C) -trophy
D) -iasis
Q2) The term that means pertaining to the force and flow of urine within the urinary tract is
A) urology
B) hemodialysis
C) urinalysis
D) urodynamics
Q3) The suffix -iasis is defined as
A) development
B) loosening
C) condition
D) measurement
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Q1) The term that means excision of the prostate gland is
A) prostatocystotomy
B) prostatectomy
C) vesiculectomy
D) prostatolithotomy
Q2) The term balanorrhea is defined as
A) a protrusion of the glans penis
B) discharge from the prostate gland
C) a stone in the prostate
D) discharge from the glans penis
Q3) Which of the following is a surgical procedure in which successive pieces of the prostate gland tissue are surgically removed?
A) TUIP
B) TUMP
C) TURP
D) PSA
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Q1) Egg cells are stored in the
A) ovaries
B) ovum
C) uterus
D) vagina
Q2) The term that means excision of the uterine tube and the ovary is
A) hystero-oophorectomy
B) salpingo-oophorectomy
C) hysterosalpingo-oophorectomy
D) episioperineorrhaphy
Q3) The combining form men/o is defined as
A) last, ending
B) menstruation
C) first, beginning
D) regular
Q4) Which of the following means abnormal passageway between two organs?
A) menopause
B) fistula
C) speculum
D) dyspareunia
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Q1) The newborn, who had an abnormal passageway between his esophagus and trachea, was diagnosed as having a(n)
A) polyhydramnios
B) tracheoesophageal fistula
C) gastroschisis
D) esophageal atresia
Q2) The word part that means bear, give birth to, labor, childbirth is
A) par/o
B) nat/o
C) puerper/o
D) gravid/o
Q3) The term used to describe a woman who is convinced that she is pregnant, and even has signs of being pregnant, but in effect is not is
A) primigravida
B) puerperal
C) pseudocyesis
D) nulligravida
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Q1) The combining form that means heart is
A) atri/o
B) phleb/o
C) ventricul/o
D) cardi/o
Q2) A test to monitor anticoagulation therapy is
A) CBC
B) HCT
C) Hgb
D) PT
Q3) The procedure in which a balloon is passed through a blood vessel to the area in which the plaque is formed is called
A) percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty
B) embolectomy
C) coronary artery bypass graft
D) coronary stent
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Q1) An instrument used for visual examination of the stomach is a(n)
A) bronchoscope
B) gastroscope
C) colonoscope
D) laparoscope
Q2) The term that means salivary stone is
A) sialolith
B) cholangioma
C) adhesion
D) polyp
Q3) Bile is produced in the
A) liver
B) pancreas
C) gallbladder
D) spleen
Q4) The term that means surgical removal of gum tissue is
A) cheilorrhaphy
B) palatoplasty
C) gingivectomy
D) glossorrhaphy

Page 13
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Q1) An incision of the tear sac is called
A) sclerotomy
B) dacryocystorhinostomy
C) iridosclerotomy
D) dacryocystotomy
Q2) The term hyperopia is defined as
A) nearsightedness
B) poor vision in faint light
C) farsightedness
D) a normal condition of the eye
Q3) The suffix -plegia is defined as
A) vision
B) paralysis
C) abnormal fear or aversion
D) pressure
Q4) The opening in the center of the iris is the
A) lens
B) pupil
C) retina
D) cornea

Page 14
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Q1) In a mastoidectomy, the surgical procedure is a(n)
A) excision
B) repair
C) incision
D) drainage
Q2) The combining form staped/o means
A) ossicles
B) mastoid bone
C) stapes
D) malleus
Q3) A discharge of pus from the ear is called
A) otalgia
B) otopyorrhea
C) otorrhea
D) otomycosis
Q4) Inflammation of the ear and mastoid bone is called
A) mastoiditis
B) otitis externa
C) otomastoiditis
D) otomycosis

Page 15
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Q1) The physician, after hearing the patient's complaints of widespread pain and stiffness, fatigue, and inability to get a good night's sleep, suspected that the pain involved the fibrous tissues and muscles and that the patient had
A) fibromyalgia
B) osteomalacia
C) cranioschisis
D) tenosynovitis
Q2) The combining form that means rib is
A) chondr/o
B) clavic/o
C) clavicul/o
D) cost/o
Q3) The medical term for the collarbone is
A) scapula
B) clavicle
C) sternum
D) mandible
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Q1) The term meningomyelocele means that there is a protrusion through a neural arch defect in the vertebral column of the meninges and the
A) spinal cord
B) brainstem
C) cerebrum
D) ganglion
Q2) The term neuralgia is defined as
A) disease of the nerve and the joints
B) pain in the nerve
C) inflammation of many nerves
D) a developing nerve cell
Q3) The combining form encephal/o is defined as
A) spinal cord
B) brain
C) nerve root
D) cerebellum
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Q1) The anterior lobe of the pituitary gland is also called A) hypophysis cerebri
B) neurohypophysis
C) hypothalamus
D) adenohypophysis
Q2) The sum total of the chemical processes that take place in a living organism is called
A) calcipenia
B) exophthalmos
C) metabolism
D) endocrinology
Q3) The patient who was eventually diagnosed with Graves disease first presented with the abnormal protrusion of the eyeball, or
A) goiter
B) exophthalmos
C) hyperthyroidism
D) isthmus
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