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Foundations of Health provides an introduction to the fundamental concepts and determinants that influence health and well-being on both individual and societal levels. The course explores physical, mental, emotional, and social aspects of health, examining topics such as nutrition, physical activity, disease prevention, stress management, and healthcare systems. Students will develop an understanding of health behaviors, health promotion strategies, and current public health challenges. Emphasis is placed on evidence-based approaches to health, critical thinking, and the development of skills necessary for making informed health decisions throughout life.
Recommended Textbook
Connect Core Concepts in Health BIG 15th Edition by Paul M. Insel
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Q1) The concept of wellness defines health as the absence of disease.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) The single most important factor in determining an individual's level of wellness is A)age.
B)lifestyle.
C)environment.
D)genetics.
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following lifestyle choices can lead to development of all of the major chronic diseases (though not simultaneously)?
A)alcohol consumption
B)poor financial health
C)tobacco use
D)poor eating habits
Answer: D
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Q1) In general,increased levels of cortisol are linked to a decreased function of the immune system.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Unrealistic expectations are a type of _______________ stressor.
A)interpersonal
B)internal
C)environmental
D)social Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following statements regarding exercise and stress is TRUE?
A)A long walk can help increase blood pressure.
B)A brisk 10-minute walk can relax and energize you up to ten hours.
C)Three 45-minute walks per week can increase your sense of wellness.
D)People who exercise regularly have stronger physical responses to stress. Answer: C
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Q1) People who are "real" and not afraid to be themselves can be described as A)authentic.
B)creative.
C)intimate.
D)distressed.
Answer: A
Q2) Expecting the worst and expecting perfection are both examples of negative self-talk.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The model of human nature that focuses on what people do is the _______________ model.
A)biological
B)behavioral
C)cognitive
D)psychodynamic
Answer: B
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Q1) Intimate partnerships differ from friendships in that intimate partnerships
A)do not require exclusiveness.
B)are more accepting and less critical.
C)are more stable and enduring over time.
D)include the presence of sexual desire.
Q2) The satisfaction in a relationship may increase when the intensity and excitement of initial passionate love subsides.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Of the following,which would be the longest-lasting element of successful love?
A)euphoria.
B)preoccupation with the loved one.
C)commitment.
D)idealization of the loved one.
Q4) In order to develop an identity as a couple,individuals need to lose some autonomy. A)True
B)False
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Q1) Everything you do in your daily life that expresses your maleness or femaleness to others determines your
A)gender.
B)gender identity.
C)gender role.
D)sex.
Q2) What happens to the corpus luteum if pregnancy occurs?
A)It begins to produce progesterone and estrogen.
B)It degenerates almost immediately,and the levels of estrogen and progesterone decline.
C)It is maintained by human chorionic gonadotropin,so it continues to produce hormones.
D)It forms the placenta for the embryo.
Q3) There are many theories about the development of sexual orientation.Outline some of the biological,cultural,and psychological factors that psychologists believe may influence an adult's sexual orientation.
Q4) Klinefelter syndrome occurs when women have only a single complete X chromosome.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which of the following statements about IUDs is TRUE?
A)IUDs do not offer protection against STIs.
B)IUDs terminate rather than prevent pregnancy.
C)IUDs are suitable for women with suspected pregnancy.
D)IUDs are not recommended for women who have never had a child.
Q2) The active ingredient in the minipill form of oral contraceptives is estrogen.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When using the contraceptive skin patch,women must spend one week each month without wearing a patch.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A woman needs to have the fit of her diaphragm checked ONLY if she gains more than 20 pounds.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Oral contraceptives are the most popular reversible contraceptive among American women.Identify five advantages and five disadvantages associated with the use of oral contraceptives.
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Q1) All of the following are likely side effects of the mifepristone/misoprostol two-drug regimen EXCEPT
A)nausea.
B)breast cancer.
C)vomiting.
D)diarrhea.
Q2) Supporters of the pro-choice position believe that the rights of the fetus are the same no matter what its stage of development.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Without knowing which state Melissa lives in,which of the following legal restrictions is she most likely to encounter if seeking an abortion in her state?
A)The abortion must be performed by a licensed physician.
B)She must undergo state-mandated counseling.
C)A mandated waiting period must be observed before she can have an abortion.
D)The abortion must be performed in a hospital.
Q4) Identify and describe the most common method of abortion used in the United States during the second trimester of pregnancy.How is it performed?
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Q1) An expectant mother's nutritional status is an important factor in the health of the fetus.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The chorionic villi form the umbilical cord.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Describe at least three of the early signs and symptoms of pregnancy.
Q4) The major body structures and organ systems form during
A)the first trimester.
B)the second trimester.
C)the third trimester.
D)the entire course of the pregnancy.
Q5) Alice delivered a set of fraternal twins.Which of the following statements about them is TRUE?
A)They will be exactly alike in terms of their genetic code.
B)They came from an ovum that was fertilized by two sperm.
C)They resulted from two ova,each fertilized by a separate sperm.
D)They came from two ova fertilized by a single sperm.
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Q1) Ephedrine is an FDA-approved,over-the-counter medication for weight loss.
A)True
B)False
Q2) People who are under the influence of drugs are at greater risk of injury than those who are not under the influence of drugs.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Caffeine use
A)counters fatigue.
B)decreases gastric secretion.
C)induces sleep.
D)decreases blood pressure.
Q4) Which of the following would NOT be considered a psychoactive drug?
A)caffeine
B)alcohol
C)aspirin
D)codeine
Q5) The main active ingredient in marijuana is PCP.
A)True
B)False

11
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Q1) Which of the following beverages has the highest concentration of alcohol?
A)sherry
B)wine
C)beer
D)brandy
Q2) The most serious withdrawal symptom associated with alcoholism is
A)trembling hands.
B)anxiety.
C)nightmares.
D)delirium tremens.
Q3) Which of the following is true of caffeinated alcoholic beverages?
A)They may cause drinkers to consume more alcohol than they normally would.
B)They help speed the metabolism of alcohol in the bloodstream.
C)They are less potent than other canned drinks such as beer.
D)They contain the same amount of caffeine as standard soft drinks.
Q4) The rate of metabolism of alcohol
A)is faster in chronic drinkers than it is in occasional drinkers.
B)is faster in occasional drinkers than in chronic drinkers.
C)is faster when a person drinks black coffee.
D)is slower when a person eats a large meal.
Page 12
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Q1) Recent neurological studies indicate nicotine acts on the brain in much the same way as cocaine and heroin.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Evidence suggests that the tobacco industry effectively advertises its products to adolescents.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Canceling subscriptions to magazines that carry tobacco advertisements is an example of a recommended individual action against tobacco.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Charles is a nonsmoker,but several of his friends and colleagues smoke.Identify at least five tactful strategies that Charles might employ to keep the air around him smoke free.In addition,identify at least three other actions he can take to support tobacco prevention and control efforts in his community and on a national level.
Q5) Describe at least four hazardous substances found in tobacco smoke,and explain how they affect the body.
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Q1) What is the main nutrition-related problem likely to be encountered by a vegan if his or her diet is not carefully selected?
A)high cholesterol level
B)insufficient intake of vitamin B-12
C)insufficient intake of complex carbohydrates
D)insufficient intake of fiber
Q2) List the food groups in the USDA's MyPlate.For each group,provide the suggested range of daily servings.
Q3) All of the following are good sources of viscous types of fiber EXCEPT A)fruit.
B)wheat bran.
C)legumes.
D)oats.
Q4) Women who are capable of getting pregnant should include foods fortified with,and supplements of,which of the following nutrients?
A)vitamin B-12
B)vitamin C
C)potassium
D)folic acid
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Q1) High levels of which of the following are associated with reduced risk of cardiovascular disease?
A)low-density lipoproteins (LDL)
B)very-low-density lipoproteins (VLDL)
C)high-density lipoproteins (HDL)
D)triglycerides
Q2) The set of physical attributes that allow the body to respond or adapt to the demands and stress of physical effort is
A)physical fitness.
B)physical activity.
C)peak workload.
D)anaerobic capacity.
Q3) The American College of Sports Medicine recommends a workout frequency of at least _______________ per week to develop strength.
A)1 day
B)2 nonconsecutive days
C)3 nonconsecutive days
D)4 consecutive days
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Q1) Define diabetes and prediabetes,and describe the basic physiology of type 2 diabetes.List three risk factors and three preventive strategies for type 2 diabetes.
Q2) Genetic predisposition to weight gain has been identified as the main reason for the high rate of obesity in the United States. A)True B)False
Q3) Your body mass index (BMI)is calculated by dividing A)your weight by the circumference of your waist. B)the calories you eat by the calories you burn. C)your weight by the square of your height. D)the calories you burn by the calories you eat.
Q4) Psychological problems stemming from obesity include all of the following EXCEPT A)depression. B)schizophrenia.
C)body dissatisfaction. D)low self-esteem.
Q5) Carrots have a higher energy density than potato chips. A)True B)False
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Q1) Insulin resistance is a marker for metabolic syndrome.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following combinations would place someone at greatest risk for cardiovascular disease?
A)low HDL and low LDL
B)high HDL and high LDL
C)low HDL and high LDL
D)high HDL and low LDL
Q3) Atherosclerosis is most closely associated with which type of stroke?
A)hemorrhagic
B)thrombotic
C)embolic
D)infarction
Q4) The relationship between depression and CVD may be related to behavior factors,such as the possibility that depressed people may be more likely to smoke or to be sedentary.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The most common cause of cancer death in the United States is A)breast cancer.
B)colon and rectal cancer.
C)prostate cancer.
D)lung cancer.
Q2) Two significant actions a person can take to minimize his or her risk for cancer are to avoid tobacco and eat a diet rich in fruits and vegetables.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A diet rich in fruits,vegetables,and whole grains can reduce the risk of colon cancer.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Steps to prevent skin cancer include all of the following EXCEPT
A)avoiding prolonged exposure to the sun.
B)using tanning salons instead of sunbathing.
C)avoiding sunburns.
D)using sunscreens and protective clothing.
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Q1) Toxic shock syndrome was first diagnosed in pregnant women.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The yellowing of the skin and whites of the eyes associated with hepatitis is called A)hemorrhage.
B)toxic shock.
C)jaundice.
D)impetigo.
Q3) Colds are almost always transmitted by A)airborne respiratory droplets.
B)hand-to-hand contact.
C)coughing.
D)sharing food or drink.
Q4) If an individual has active organisms replicating in his or her body,the individual may be contagious before experiencing any symptoms.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Diagnosis of syphilis can be made with a blood test and infected tissue examinations.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The hepatitis B virus can be transmitted via all of the following EXCEPT A)toilet seats.
B)toothbrushes.
C)eating utensils.
D)razor blades.
Q3) Which one of the following statements about the global spread of HIV/AIDS is FALSE?
A)The majority of infections occur in economically emerging countries.
B)HIV disproportionately affects the poor and nonwhite ethnic and racial minorities.
C)Asia and Africa have approximately the same number of people living with HIV.
D)Political,economic,and social barriers contribute to the ongoing spread of HIV infection.
Q4) Describe the history of the current pattern of HIV infection in the United States and worldwide.What groups of people and areas of the world are affected? How is the virus most likely to be transmitted?
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Q1) Electronic items,batteries,and fluorescent lights should be disposed of in the regular trash.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Exposure to _______________ can cause headaches,chronic bronchitis,dizziness,fatigue,and death.
A)pollen
B)volatile organic compounds
C)carbon monoxide
D)asbestos
Q3) All of the following are simple steps for protecting the water supply EXCEPT A)taking showers instead of baths.
B)watering lawns and garden plants in the mid-afternoon.
C)fixing leaky faucets.
D)not pouring old medicines down the drain.
Q4) Water is usually disinfected by using A)fluoride.
B)chlorine.
C)filtration.
D)screening.
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Q1) Many managed-care plans try to reduce costs over the long term by paying for routine preventive care.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Professionally administered diagnostic tests are 100 percent accurate.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Although convenient,some online pharmacies may sell products or engage in practices that are illegal.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which statement is a helpful guideline for using over-the-counter (OTC)medications?
A)Try to select medications with only one active ingredient.
B)OTC medications are safe to combine with prescription drugs.
C)Brand name products are more effective than generic products.
D)All of these statements are helpful guidelines.
Q5) Describe the two main forms of health insurance.List two advantages and disadvantages associated with each.
Q6) List and explain six guidelines for helping a person self-medicate safely.
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Q1) All of the following are dangerous pedestrian behaviors EXCEPT
A)walking on busy roads at night.
B)wearing dark clothing.
C)crossing at intersections.
D)hitchhiking.
Q2) The leading cause of workplace death of women is
A)severe lacerations.
B)homicide.
C)electrocution.
D)crushing injuries.
Q3) Which of the following statements about school violence is TRUE?
A)Most violence occurs in suburban schools.
B)Murder and suicide make up half of all cases reported.
C)Characteristics of violent students may include depression and uncontrolled anger.
D)Children and adolescents have a higher risk of violence at school than at home.
Q4) Shelly frequently spends time using the Internet and talking with people in chat rooms.Give her five guidelines to help her stay safe while online.
Q5) List ten strategies for reducing the risk of motor vehicle injuries.
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Q1) Describe five strategies for age-proofing,and explain how each can help prevent,delay,lessen,or reverse negative changes associated with aging.
Q2) The first symptoms of Alzheimer's disease are
A)trouble remembering new information and retrieving old information.
B)confusion about events or time and disorientation.
C)aggressive behavior and depression.
D)a change in personality and hallucinations.
Q3) Regular physical activity can fend off sarcopenia.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following statements about Gayle is FALSE?
A)Gayle's diverse interests will help her enjoy her leisure time when she retires.
B)Gayle's exercise habits and hobbies can help prevent arthritis.
C)Gayle began saving for retirement at the recommended point in life to support herself.
D)Gayle will need to take special care to prepare her finances for retirement.
Q5) Aging is the normal process of change throughout life.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) All of the following are stages of dying as defined by Kübler-Ross EXCEPT
A)denial.
B)vulnerability.
C)bargaining.
D)depression.
Q2) Describe the concept of brain death and how it is used.In addition,identify four components or observable facts concerning death that are part of a mature understanding of death.
Q3) Psychiatrist Avery Weisman describes the time during terminal illness when the patient both sustains hope and acknowledges the reality of the disease as A)the coping mechanism.
B)middle knowledge.
C)bargaining.
D)acceptance.
Q4) Cremation usually involves a grave dug into the soil or entombment in a mausoleum.
A)True
B)False
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