Foundations of Genetics Question Bank
Course Introduction
Foundations of Genetics introduces students to the fundamental principles underlying heredity and variation in living organisms. Covering classical Mendelian genetics, molecular genetics, and population genetics, this course explores how genetic information is transmitted, expressed, and modified. Topics include chromosome structure and function, DNA replication, gene expression and regulation, genetic mutations, and quantitative genetics. Emphasis is placed on real-world applications such as genetic disorders, biotechnology, and the ethical considerations in genetics. Through lectures, discussions, and practical exercises, students gain a solid grounding in the key concepts essential for advanced studies in biology and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Human Genetics Concepts and Applications 9th Edition by Ricki Lewis
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998 Verified Questions
998 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Overview of Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) In general,RNA molecules
A) comprise the chromosomes.
B) use the information in specific DNA sequences to construct proteins.
C) use the information in specific proteins to construct DNA molecules.
D) entwine with DNA molecules to encode proteins.
E) form double helices that encode DNA sequences.
Answer: B
Q2) Gene expression profiles of different cell types reflect different sets of A) genes.
B) mRNAs.
C) proteins.
D) genomes.
E) SNPs.
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ribosomes are in the cells of A) bacteria only.
B) eukaryotes only.
C) animals only.
D) vertebrates only.
E) all organisms.
Answer: E
Q2) In a human cell,the genetic material is in the A) endoplasmic reticulum.
B) lysosome.
C) ribosome.
D) nucleus.
E) cytoplasm.
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Meiosis and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cigarette smoking during pregnancy can cause
A) spontaneous abortion, prematurity, low birth weight, and stillbirth.
B) diabetes and hypertension later in the life of the offspring.
C) lung cancer in the fetus.
D) large fetal size and hypertension in the woman.
E) emphysema and lung cancer in the newborn.
Answer: A
Q2) Centenarians are
A) segmented worms.
B) people in the military.
C) people who live past 100 years.
D) people who die just before their 100<sup>th</sup> birthday.
E) people who live past 90.
Answer: C
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Single-Gene Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mendel's laws derive from
A) mitosis.
B) meiosis.
C) evolution.
D) processes unique to pea plants.
E) calculus and algebra.
Q2) Hillary is 8 years old and has neuronal ceroid lipofuscinosis,also known as Batten disease.It is autosomal recessive.She was fine until age five,when she began to lose her vision and stumble.She had learning difficulties in school and was diagnosed at age six.Hillary may only live into her twenties,experiencing dementia and seizures.Her younger brother Jaden,age six,is healthy,as are her parents.The probability that Jaden is a heterozygote is
A) 1/8.
B) 1/4.
C) 1/3.
D) 2/3.
E) 0.
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Chapter 5: Beyond Mendels Law
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Addams family has an autosomal dominant condition in which webbing attaches the second toe to the third toe and the second toe is longer than the big toe.Only some of the Addams' who inherit the mutant allele have a second toe longer than the big toe.In addition,the extent of webbing varies.This phenotype is
A) both inherited and non-inherited.
B) dominant and recessive.
C) variably expressive and incompletely penetrant.
D) invariably expressive and completely penetrant.
E) genetically heterogeneic and a phenocopy.
Q2) A gene may have many alleles,but a person has only two alleles for a gene,because
A) having more than two alleles is always lethal.
B) a gene can be altered in many ways, but a person has only two copies of any gene.
C) a person is haploid because of meiosis.
D) having more than two alleles unbalances the chromosomes.
E) humans are not normally triploid.
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7
Chapter 6: Matters of Sex
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Sample Questions
Q1) In humans,if the SRY gene is not expressed,the unspecialized gonads develop into A) testes.
B) ovaries.
C) a penis.
D) a tumorous mass.
E) gametes.
Q2) A carrier of an X-linked recessive trait who experiences the phenotype is called a
A) manifesting homozygote.
B) manifesting mutant.
C) manifest destiny.
D) manifesting heterozygote.
E) imprinting heterozygote.
Q3) Human males are the _______ sex.
A) homozygous
B) homogametic
C) heterogametic
D) heterozygous
E) hermaphroditic
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8
Chapter 7: Multifactorial Traits
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Sample Questions
Q1) DNA sequences that contribute to polygenic traits are called
A) qualitative trait loci.
B) quantitative trait loci.
C) multifactorial trait loci.
D) single nucleotide polymorphisms.
E) polygenes.
Q2) Traditional ways of evaluating multifactorial traits include
A) empiric risk and heritability.
B) Punnett squares and pedigrees.
C) surveys that ask people what they have been exposed to.
D) tests for several Mendelian traits or diseases.
E) IQ tests and assessments of athletic performance.
Q3) Polygenic traits are
A) determined by a single gene.
B) determined by more than one gene.
C) phenotypically different in different organisms.
D) associated with many symptoms.
E) determined by genes on the same chromosome.
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9
Chapter 8: Genetics of Behavior
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Sample Questions
Q1) Anandamide (and THC)differ from neurotransmitters in that they bind
A) presynaptic receptors.
B) postsynaptic receptors.
C) dendrites.
D) axons.
E) mitochondria.
Q2) About __ in 10 people with autism have other symptoms.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 5
E) 8
Q3) Which of the following psychiatric disorders has the highest risk of death?
A) depression
B) schizophrenia
C) anorexia nervosa
D) bulimia
E) narcissism
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Chapter 9: DNA Structure and Replication
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Sample Questions
Q1) The directional nature of the DNA double helix is observed in the A) locations of the hydrogen bonds.
B) locations of the numbered carbons in the sugars.
C) locations of the oxygen atom in the phosphate.
D) double helix when it is separated into single strands.
E) mirror.
Q2) Meselson and Stahl's experiment followed
A) the distribution of different-weighted DNA over three generations of bacteria.
B) the distribution of different-labeled DNA over three generations of humans.
C) the ability of a protease or nuclease to stop the transmission of DNA over generations.
D) viruses injecting their DNA into bacteria.
E) DNA sequences in people who are politically liberal compared to those who are sometimes politically conservative.
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11
Chapter 10: Gene Action: From Dna to Protein
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Sample Questions
Q1) The enzyme that synthesizes messenger RNA from a DNA template is A) DNA polymerase.
B) Rnase.
C) RNA polymerase.
D) reverse transcriptase.
E) ligase.
Q2) Ribosomes begin translation of an mRNA transcript at the first A) methionine.
B) anticodon.
C) AUG.
D) promoter.
E) tRNA.
Q3) The nitrogenous base that is in RNA but not in DNA is A) thymine.
B) thiamine.
C) uracil.
D) urea.
E) adenine.
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Chapter 11: Gene Expression and Epigenetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pseudogenes are
A) not transcribed.
B) transcribed but not translated.
C) transcribed and translated.
D) rare in the human genome.
E) double strand RNA loops.
Q2) The most abundant type of DNA repeat sequence is called a A) genome.
B) lipidome.
C) proteome.
D) transposon.
E) transcriptome.
Q3) In the adult pancreas,the beta,alpha,gamma,and F cells are A) stem cells.
B) progenitor cells.
C) differentiated cells.
D) blood cells.
E) connective tissue cells.
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13
Chapter 12: Gene Mutation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Protection against inherited prion disorders seems to depend upon
A)whether people are heterozygotes at particular part of the prion protein gene.
B)whether people have extra copies of the prion protein gene.
C)whether people eat food contaminated with toxin from E.coli.
D)whether people eat tainted beef.
E)whether people inherit a sickle cell allele.
Q2) A somatic mutation
A) occurs only in microbes.
B) affects a particular subset of cells.
C) affects all cells of an individual.
D) is expressed only in embryos.
E) affects sleep cycles.
Q3) Mutations are more likely to occur in or near repeated DNA sequences because
A) these bases are unstable.
B) bases in the strand can form base pairs, generating loops that interfere with replication and repair enzymes.
C) the repeats hold onto the replication enzymes, causing base mismatches.
D) the repeats attract and bind to mutagens, increasing the mutation rate.
E) repeated sequences do not have a sugar-phosphate backbone.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Chromosomes
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Sample Questions
Q1) CVS reveals a fetus has the karyotype 47,XX,+21.What is the diagnosis?
A) normal female
B) Edward syndrome
C) Turner syndrome
D) Down syndrome
E) Klinefelter syndrome
Q2) The meiotic error that results in aneuploid cells is
A) crossing over.
B) nondisjunction.
C) recombination.
D) unequal segregation.
E) mosaicism.
Q3) A man with trisomy 21 could pass Down syndrome to offspring if he
A) produces sperm that have two copies of chromosome 21.
B) produces sperm lacking chromosome 21.
C) also has Turner syndrome.
D) is a carrier of a deletion for chromosome 21.
E) drinks too much alcohol just before the child is conceived.
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Chapter 14: Constant Allele Frequencies
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Sample Questions
Q1) CODIS is
A) a fifteen-base DNA sequence used in DNA profiling.
B) a type of mutation used in forensic applications.
C) a system for crime laboratories to share DNA profiles.
D) the last name of the person who invented DNA profiling.
E) a technology used to amplify DNA found at crime scenes.
Q2) Who invented DNA profiling?
A) Godfrey Hardy
B) William Weinberg
C) Alec Jeffreys
D) Linus Pauling
E) Godfrey Hardy and William Weinberg
Q3) Which of the following have the longest DNA sequences?
A) VNTRs
B) STRs
C) SNPs
D) thymine dimers
E) base pairs
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Chapter 15: Changing Allele Frequencies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Consanguineous marriages are between men and women who are A) from different cultures.
B) "blood" relatives.
C) carriers of a disorder.
D) from the same town.
E) too young to be married.
Q2) Genetic disorders such as Tay-Sachs disease,Bloom syndrome,Gaucher disease and Canavan disease are more common in Ashkenazi Jewish populations because
A) spontaneous mutations occur more frequently in this group.
B) the gene pool has been highly variable over thousands of years.
C) microevolution has not influenced this culture.
D) their history includes several population bottlenecks.
E) genetic screening programs identify carriers.
Q3) Resistance of sickle cell disease carriers to malaria illustrates A) genetic drift.
B) a population bottleneck.
C) balanced polymorphism.
D) a founder effect.
E) migration.
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Human Ancestry
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are classified as Homo except A) Neanderthals.
B) Cro-Magnons.
C) modern humans.
D) Orrorin tugenensis.
E) Otzi.
Q2) Evolutionary tree diagrams compare
A) anatomical similarities revealed in fossil evidence for several related species.
B) the sizes and shapes of body part in related species.
C) conserved DNA sequences for which the rate of base substitution mutation is known.
D) data derived from radioactive dating of fossils, with the half-life used to estimate time.
E) the time of origin of various species, based on differences between fossils and modern organisms.
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Chapter 17: Genetics of Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The two major types of lymphocytes are
A) T and B cells.
B) A and B cells.
C) cytokines and antibodies.
D) thymus and spleen cells.
E) RBCs and WBCs.
Q2) Which type of white blood cell secretes specific antibodies?
A) T cell
B) macrophage
C) B cell
D) neutrophil
E) erythrocyte
Q3) Antibody production begins
A) in a fetus as its bone marrow develops.
B) in a fetus in response to maternal antigens.
C) immediately after birth.
D) after birth, a few months after exposure to foreign antigens.
E) at the embryo stage.
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19
Chapter 18: Genetics of Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) Genes that normally prevent cell division are
A) tumor suppressors.
B) transcription factors.
C) proto-oncogenes.
D) growth factors.
E) oncogenes.
Q2) A cancer stem cell can divide to give rise to
A) tumor cells, abnormal daughter cells, normal cells, and more cancer stem cells.
B) more cancer stem cells only.
C) healthy stem cells and normally differentiated cells.
D) nothing. It cannot divide further.
E) invasive cells and metastatic malignant cells.
Q3) Several genes that cause inherited forms of breast cancer have _____ in common.
A) broken single DNA strands
B) increased likelihood of a translocation
C) interference with repair of a double-strand DNA breaks
D) attracting radiation from the environment to the DNA, where it causes breaks
E) undergoing mutations that form ring chromosomes
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20
Chapter 19: Genetic Technologies: Amplifying, Modifying, and Monitoring DNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) The type of RNA that carries out RNA intereference is A) tRNA.
B) mRNA.
C) rRNA.
D) siRNA.
E) fRNA.
Q2) A drug produced using recombinant DNA technology that is used illegally by athletes is
A) insulin.
B) streptokinase.
C) tPA.
D) EPO.
E) telomerase.
Q3) What innovation has improved on the thermal cycler in speeding PCR?
A) layered silicon
B) layered DNA
C) a new algorithm
D) using DNA polymerase from a cheetah
E) alternating DNA and RNA polymerase
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Chapter 20: Genetic Testing and Treatment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Germline gene therapy would correct a genetic defect in
A) an unaffected individual only.
B) an unaffected individual and his or her offspring.
C) an affected individual and all of his or her descendants.
D) the parents of an affected individual.
E) the unaffected sibling of an affected individual.
Q2) Which is an example of a germline gene therapy?
A) a transgenic plant or animal
B) a bone marrow transplant
C) a disabled cold virus that delivers genes to airway epithelium to treat cystic fibrosis
D) removing skin cells, genetically altering them, and replacing them
E) receiving cord blood stem cells from a donor
Q3) The defect in Canavan disease that causes the symptoms is
A) deficiency of an enzyme that enables T cells to stimulate B cells, providing immunity.
B) the stripping of the lipid layer from brain neurons.
C) proliferation of oligodendrocytes in the brain, causing a glioma tumor.
D) deficiency of an enzyme that is part of the urea cycle.
E) excess of a clotting factor.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Reproductive Technologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Currently in the United States,approximately _______ couples have difficulty conceiving a child.
A) 1 in 6
B) 1 in 30
C) 1 in 100
D) 1 in 200
E) 1 in 4,000
Q2) The procedure in which fertilization takes place in a laboratory dish and the resulting zygote is placed in the woman's uterine tube is called
A) embryo transfer.
B) ZIFT.
C) RhoGAM.
D) GIFT.
E) in vivo fertilization.
Q3) A woman who has a baby via embryo adoption is her child's
A) genetic mother only.
B) gestational mother only.
C) genetic and gestational mother.
D) gestational and surrogate mother.
E) clone.
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Chapter 22: Genomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Genes that are highly conserved are
A) found in a wide range of species.
B) repeated many times in a genome.
C) found in humans only.
D) found in a narrow range of closely related species.
E) deleted by natural selection.
Q2) A SNP that changes the amino acid sequence of an encoded protein is termed A) synonymous.
B) nonsynonymous.
C) transliteral.
D) mutagenic.
E) genomic.
Q3) An initial objection to sequencing the human genome was that it would take funding away from a pressing health concern of the time.This problem was A) the AIDS epidemic.
B) tuberculosis and malaria in developing nations.
C) swine flu, which was threatening to be a pandemic.
D) SARS.
E) a dramatic increase in the incidence of lung cancer.
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Page 24