Foundations of Disease Mechanisms
Exam Materials
Course Introduction
This course provides an in-depth exploration of the fundamental principles underlying human disease mechanisms, emphasizing the molecular, cellular, and physiological processes that contribute to pathogenesis. Students will examine how alterations in genetic, biochemical, and environmental factors disrupt normal biological functions, leading to various diseases. Through case studies and analysis of current research, the course highlights common themes in disease development such as inflammation, immune responses, cell injury, and repair. This foundational knowledge equips students with a robust framework for understanding the complexities of disease and informs future study in clinical or biomedical contexts.
Recommended Textbook
Pathology Secrets 3rd Edition by Ivan Damjanov MD PhD
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23 Chapters
386 Verified Questions
386 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Cell Pathology
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/20520
Sample Questions
Q1) Myocardial infarct represents a form of:
A) Dystrophic calcification
B) Metastatic calcification
C) Fibrinoid necrosis
D) Coagulation necrosis
E) Wet gangrene
Answer: D
Q2) Enlargement of the heart caused by hypertension is a result of:
A) Hyperplasia
B) Hypertrophy
C) Atrophy
D) Metaplasia
E) Dysplasia
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Inflammation
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Aspirin can inhibit some aspects of inflammation by inhibiting the synthesis of:
A) Histamine
B) Prostaglandin and thromboxane
C) Serotonin
D) Hageman factor
E) Arachidonic acid
Answer: B
Q2) Granulomas consist of all the following cells except:
A) Lymphocytes
B) Macrophages
C) Epithelioid cells
D) Giant cells
E) Polymorphonuclear leukocytes
Answer: E
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Chapter 3: Immunopathology
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tissue transplantation between genetically identical twins is called:
A) Allograft
B) Isograft
C) Homograft
D) Xenograft
E) Heterograft
Answer: B
Q2) For the diagnosis of AIDS,it is important to test the patient for antibodies to:
A) Human papillomavirus (HPV)
B) Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
C) Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
D) Pneumocystis carinii
E) Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Neoplasia
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Carcinoma of the stomach has the highest incidence in:
A) England
B) Japan
C) United States
D) Israel
E) France
Q2) A lung tumor that has spread to the brain has metastasized via:
A) Lymphatics
B) Nerves
C) Blood vessels
D) Cerebrospinal fluid
E) Pleural fluid
Q3) Many tumors secrete their own growth factors.This form of stimulation is called:
A) Autocrine
B) Heterocrine
C) Paracrine
D) Endocrine
E) Exocrine
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6
Chapter 5: Genetic and Developmental Diseases
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13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cystic fibrosis may present in newborns with signs of:
A) Dehydration
B) Meconium peritonitis
C) Malabsorption
D) Diarrhea
E) Bronchiectasis
Q2) All the following are considered possible causes of the TORCH syndrome except:
A) Toxoplasma
B) Rubella virus
C) Cytomegalovirus
D) Herpesvirus
E) Alcohol
Q3) A male who was tall and slightly effeminate with eunuchoid body proportions and gynecomastia was found to have a 47,XXY karyotype.These findings are typical of:
A) Turner's syndrome
B) Klinefelter's syndrome
C) Fragile X syndrome
D) Marfan's syndrome
E) Duchenne's muscular dystrophy
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Fluid and Hemodynamic Disorders
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Red cheeks in a person who is blushing are an example of:
A) Hemorrhage
B) Petechia
C) Ecchymoses
D) Active hyperemia
E) Passive hyperemia
Q2) Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome caused by endotoxemic shock is characterized by:
A) Bleeding into the adrenals and skin
B) Active hyperemia
C) Mural thrombi of the left ventricle
D) Hematoma of the brain
E) Hypertension
Q3) Clinically significant emboli are most often composed of:
A) Air
B) Amniotic fluid
C) Foreign particulate material
D) Fat
E) Thrombi
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Page 8
Chapter 7: The Cardiovascular System
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following has been implicated in the pathogenesis of atherosclerosis?
A) Regular exercise
B) Alcohol
C) Cigarette smoking
D) Aspirin
E) Antihypertensive drugs
Q2) The most common complication of rheumatic endocarditis is:
A) Bacterial endocarditis
B) Viral endocarditis
C) Fungal myocarditis
D) Parasitic endocarditis
E) Pulmonary embolism
Q3) Atherosclerotic aneurysms are most often located in the:
A) Coronary arteries
B) Ascending aorta
C) Thoracic aorta
D) Abdominal aorta
E) Iliac arteries
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Chapter 8: The Respiratory System
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection usually causes:
A) Lobar pneumonia
B) Lobular pneumonia
C) Aspiration pneumonia
D) Interstitial pneumonia
E) Abscesses
Q2) Approximately 90% of all patients with lung cancer present with a history of:
A) Alcoholism
B) Hereditary cancer syndromes
C) Cigarette smoking
D) Exposure to chemical carcinogens in food and water
E) Obesity
Q3) Coal-workers' lung disease is best classified as:
A) Asbestosis
B) Pneumoconiosis
C) Acute hypersensitivity reaction
D) Chronic hypersensitivity reaction
E) Chronic bacterial pneumonitis
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Chapter 9: The Hematopoietic and Lymphoid Systems
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Consumption of platelets associated with widespread hemorrhages is a feature of:
A) Hemophilia A
B) Hemophilia B
C) Aplastic anemia
D) Leukemia
E) Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
Q2) Macrocytic,megaloblastic anemia occurs typically in association with:
A) Chronic dermatitis
B) Atrophic gastritis
C) Hypothyroidism
D) Old age
E) Chronic osteoarthritis
Q3) Fibrin split products are typically found in the urine of patients who have:
A) Hemophilia A
B) Hemophilia B
C) Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
D) Aplastic anemia
E) Thrombocytopenia
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Chapter 10: The Gastrointestinal System
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Genetic predisposition to colonic cancer is inherited as an autosomal dominant trait in:
A) Hirschsprung's disease
B) Familial adenomatous polyposis syndrome
C) Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
D) Colonic diverticulosis
E) Ulcerative colitis
Q2) Most pedunculated colonic neoplastic polyps are classified as:
A) Hyperplastic polyp
B) Juvenile polyp
C) Inflammatory polyp
D) Tubular adenoma
E) Villous adenoma
Q3) Atrophic gastritis is characterized by:
A) Xerostomia
B) Achlorhydria
C) Gastric hyperacidity
D) Achalasia
E) Reflux esophagitis
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Page 12
Chapter 11: The Liver and Biliary System
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which aspect of cirrhosis accounts for the development of esophageal varices?
A) Portal hypertension
B) Decreased level of fibrinogen in blood
C) Retention of sodium
D) Low osmolality of the plasma
E) Hypersplenism
Q2) In the preantibiotic era the most common cause of pylephlebitic abscesses of the liver was:
A) Peptic ulcer
B) Crohn's disease
C) Ulcerative colitis
D) Acute appendicitis
E) Intestinal tuberculosis
Q3) In Wilson's disease the serum contains decreased amounts of:
A) Hemosiderin
B) Transferrin
C) Ferritin
D) Ceruloplasmin
E) Haptoglobin
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Page 13
Chapter 12: The Pancreas
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is most typical of diabetes mellitus?
A) Oliguria
B) Anuria
C) Polyuria
D) Proteinuria
E) Cylindruria
Q2) X-ray examination of patients with chronic pancreatitis typically reveals:
A) Edema of the head of the pancreas
B) Swelling of the tail of the pancreas
C) Distention of the papilla of Vater
D) Calcifications of the pancreas
E) Loss of endocrine cells from the pancreas
Q3) The most prominent histologic feature of chronic pancreatitis is:
A) Metaplasia
B) Hyperplasia
C) Fibrosis
D) Ongoing necrosis
E) Apoptosis
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Chapter 13: The Urinary Tract
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hypertension of chronic kidney disease is medicated with:
A) Erythropoietin
B) Antidiuretic hormone
C) Renin
D) Calcitonin
E) Adrenalin
Q2) Acute "honeymoon" cystitis is caused by:
A) Viruses
B) Bacteria
C) Parasites
D) Fungi
E) Mechanical irritation
Q3) All the following are features of acute glomerulonephritis except:
A) Proteinuria
B) Hematuria
C) Polyuria
D) Hypertension
E) Edema
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Chapter 14: The Male Reproductive System
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An infertile man was found to have no scrotal testicles.The most likely diagnosis is:
A) Klinefelter's syndrome
B) Polyorchidism
C) Cryptorchidism
D) Orchitis
E) Epididymo-orchitis
Q2) Which of the following is a typical feature of secondary syphilis?
A) Penile ulcer
B) Chancre on the prepuce
C) Condyloma latum
D) Aortic aneurysm
E) Tabes dorsalis
Q3) All the following are typical complications of prostatic enlargement except:
A) Cystitis
B) Urinary retention
C) Hydroureters
D) Hydronephrosis
E) Glomerulonephritis
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16
Chapter 15: The Female Reproductive System
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) More than 50% of all cases of cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN)contain intranuclear inclusions of:
A) Gardnerella vaginalis
B) Herpes simplex virus type 1
C) Herpes simplex virus type 2
D) Human papillomavirus
E) Treponema pallidum
Q2) Most spontaneous abortions are consequences of:
A) Developmental anomalies of the fetus and/or placenta
B) Internal infections
C) Autoimmune disorders
D) Lack of estrogen in the maternal organism
E) Excess of progesterone during early pregnancy
Q3) Swelling and cystic transformation of the placental villi resembling a bunch of grapes are typical of:
A) Choriocarcinoma
B) Hydatidiform mole
C) Placenta accreta
D) Placenta previa
E) Endometriosis
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Chapter 16: The Breast
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the most common histologic type of breast carcinoma?
A) Medullary carcinoma
B) Mucinous carcinoma
C) Infiltrating duct carcinoma
D) Lobular carcinoma
E) Tubular carcinoma
Q2) All the following are features of fibrocystic disease of the breast except:
A) Fibrosis
B) Cystic change
C) Epithelial cell proliferation
D) Adenosis
E) Cystosarcoma
Q3) Fine-needle aspiration biopsy of breast masses has an accuracy of:
A) 100%
B) 95%
C) 75%
D) 50%
E) 25%
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Chapter 17: The Endocrine System
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most important clinical finding in patients with pheochromocytomas is:
A) Hyperglycemia
B) Hypertension
C) Hyperestrinism
D) Hypocalcemia
E) Polyuria
Q2) Which of the following hormones regulates the homeostasis of potassium and sodium?
A) Calcitonin
B) Parathyroid hormone
C) Androgen
D) Aldosterone
E) Glucagon
Q3) The most common cause of hyperparathyroidism is:
A) Pituitary adenoma
B) Parathyroid adenoma
C) Parathyroid hyperplasia
D) Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid
E) Multiple endocrine neoplasia syndrome
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Page 19
Chapter 18: The Skin
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13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Flat,slightly pigmented skin patch measuring 1 cm is best classified as a:
A) Macule
B) Papule
C) Pustule
D) Vesicle
E) Bulla
Q2) Bullae may be caused by all the following except:
A) Sunbathing
B) Allergic reaction
C) Poison ivy
D) Porphyria
E) Tumors
Q3) Measles present with:
A) Maculopapular rash
B) Vesicular eruption
C) Billions eruption
D) Disseminated furunculosis
E) Ulcerations
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Chapter 19: Bones and Joints
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25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Benign bone tumor composed of cartilage cells is called:
A) Osteoma
B) Chondroma
C) Fibroma
D) Paget's disease
E) Ewing's disease
Q2) Subcutaneous nodules composed of a central area of fibrinoid necrosis surrounded by macrophages and lymphocytes are typical of:
A) Infectious arthritis
B) Rheumatoid arthritis
C) Osteoarthritis
D) Gout
E) Rickets
Q3) Aseptic necrosis of bones may be caused by all the following except:
A) Sickle cell anemia
B) Thrombotic occlusion of a nutrient artery
C) Trauma
D) Bacteria
E) Drugs
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Muscles
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22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Frontal baldness,testicular atrophy,and muscle spasm arc typical of which autosomal dominant muscular dystrophy?
A) Duchenne's
B) Becker's
C) Facioscapulohumeral
D) Limb-girdle
E) Myotonic
Q2) Patients with myasthenia gravis given edrophonium,an antagonist of cholinesterase,show:
A) Aggravation of symptoms
B) Complete paralysis
C) Temporary improvement of muscle weakness
D) Reduced levels of circulating antibodies
E) Reduced calcium in blood
Q3) Malignant tumor of striated muscle is called:
A) Leiomyosarcoma
B) Rhabdomyosarcoma
C) Liposarcoma
D) Synovial sarcoma
E) Malignant fibrous histiocytoma
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Chapter 21: The Nervous System
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Axons are cytoplasmic extensions of:
A) Astrocytes
B) Oligodendroglia cells
C) Microglia cells
D) Neurons
E) Ependymal cells
Q2) The most prominent clinical feature of Alzheimer's disease is:
A) Ataxia
B) Tremor
C) Dementia
D) Aphasia
E) Apraxia
Q3) Tabes dorsalis is characterized by:
A) Atrophy in frontal (motor)cortex
B) Atrophy of basal ganglia
C) Hypertrophy of putamen
D) Atrophy of anterior horns of the spinal cord
E) Atrophy of the posterior columns of the spinal cord
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23
Chapter 22: The Eye
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13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common cause of cataracts in the United States is:
A) Old age
B) Trauma
C) Endophthalmitis
D) Trachoma
E) Radiation
Q2) Senile macular degeneration of elderly persons,a common cause of blindness,is:
A) Immune mediated
B) Caused by diabetes
C) Of unknown pathogenesis
D) Found only in myopic persons
E) Caused by high blood pressure
Q3) The sensory innermost layer of the eye composed of rods and cones is called:
A) Iris
B) Cornea
C) Sclera
D) Retina
E) Choroid
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Chapter 23: The Ear
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10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most typical feature of Ménière's disease is:
A) Deafness
B) Vertigo
C) Strabismus
D) Otosclerosis
E) Acoustic hallucinations
Q2) Otosclerosis involves all the following except:
A) Malleus
B) Incus
C) Stapes
D) Oval window
E) Acoustic nerve
Q3) Sensory hearing loss of unknown etiology that affects elderly persons is called:
A) Glaucoma
B) Otosclerosis
C) Presbycusis
D) Ménière's disease
E) Vertigo
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