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Foundations of Criminal Justice provides a comprehensive introduction to the systems, processes, and institutions that define the criminal justice landscape. The course explores the historical development and philosophical underpinnings of criminal law, law enforcement, courts, and corrections in both national and global contexts. Students will examine the roles and responsibilities of key actors, from police officers to judges, and analyze how policies, societal values, and contemporary issues impact justice administration. Emphasis is placed on due process, crime control models, and the interplay between ethics, rights, and public safety, equipping students with the foundational knowledge required for more advanced studies in the field.
Recommended Textbook Essentials of Criminal Justice 7th Edition by Larry J. Siegel
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Q1) Explain how the formal criminal justice system differs from the informal criminal justice system. What factors in the formal system of criminal justice impact and influence the informal criminal justice system?
Answer: Answer not provided.
Q2) The term ____________________ became prominent around 1967 when the President's Commission on Law Enforcement and the Administration of Justice began a nationwide study of the nation's crime problem.
Answer: criminal justice
Q3) The contemporary criminal justice system can be divided into three main components:
A)Law enforcement, the courts, and the legislature.
B)The courts, the correctional system, and the legislature.
C)Law enforcement, the courts, and the correctional system.
D)Law enforcement, the correctional system, and the legislature.
Answer: C
Q4) The first police agency was developed in 1829 in ____________________.
Answer: London
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Q1) ____ theory recognizes that as people mature, the factors that influence their behavior change.
A)Social structure
B)Psychological
C)Developmental
D)Social process
Answer: C
Q2) Describe the social, economic, personal, and demographic factors suggested by experts to account for the recent crime drop in the United States.
Answer: Answer not provided.
Q3) What type of crime is not reported in Part I or Part II of the offense section of the UCR?
A)Drug offenses
B)Traffic violations
C)Liquor law violations
D)Sex offenses
Answer: B
Q4) Crime, most simply, is a violation of ____________________.
Answer: criminal law
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Q1) Insanity, intoxication, and age are examples of what?
A)Legal defenses used to negate the required proof of mens rea
B)Legal defenses that negate the required proof of actus reus
C)Defenses based on double jeopardy
D)Legal defenses based on a presumption of conclusive incapacitation
Answer: A
Q2) An immediate relationship must always exist between the act and the actor's intent for a crime to occur.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Differentiate between criminal law and civil law.
Answer: Answer not provided.
Q4) Describe three tests of the insanity defense and how each is applied. Answer: Answer not provided.
Q5) Elaborate the meaning of due process through the use of an example.
Answer: Answer not provided.
Q6) Discuss the historical development of criminal law.
Answer: Answer not provided.
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Q1) What term is used to describe the use of computer software to identify geographic "hot spots" where a majority of predatory crimes are concentrated?
A)Crime mapping
B)CODIS
C)Data mining
D)Systems analysis
Q2) The ____________________ are responsible for fugitive investigations.
Q3) Which American city created the first formal U.S. police department?
A)Boston
B)New York City
C)Philadelphia
D)Chicago
Q4) Roughly how many metropolitan police agencies employ more than 1,000 sworn officers?
A)70
B)800
C)2,000
D)3,100
Q5) Secret Service is a branch of teh Department of ____________________.
Q6) The nation's oldest federal law enforcement agency is the
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Q1) The time-in-rank system used in police departments often discourages the:
A)recruitment and hiring of college-educated officers.
B)recruitment and hiring of minority officers.
C)transfer of experienced officers to other departments.
D)use of a military-like organizational structure.
Q2) Who is the person with general administrative control over the police organization?
A)Captain
B)Chief
C)Lieutenant
D)Sergeant
Q3) Creating a feeling of security is one of the major purposes of police patrol.
A)True
B)False
Q4) ____________________ policing strategies require police agencies to identify particular long-term community issues and to develop strategies to eliminate these issues.
Q5) The detective bureau is considered the backbone of policing.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The Mollen Commission is an example of what type of effort to control police corruption?
A)Outside review board or special prosecution
B)Civil litigation
C)Citizen review board
D)Internal review board
Q2) The Supreme Court has created a good faith exception to the exclusionary rule which indicates that evidence is admissible in court if the police officers acted in good faith by first obtaining court approval for their search, even if the warrant they received was deficient or faulty.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The ____________________ style of policing thinks of officers as troubleshooters who repair the social fabric of society.
Q4) In the case of ____________________, the Supreme Court created objective standards for questioning by police after a defendant has been taken into custody.
Q5) Identify and describe the factors that have been related to police shootings.
Q6) Describe how the role of police is of concern to the public.
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Q1) Which of the following is not one of the judicial functions of a judge?
A)Considering leniency or severity requests from police and prosecutors
B)Administrative control over probation
C)Consulting with probation staff on treatment decisions
D)Drafting legislative language to be forwarded to congressional sponsors
Q2) Which of the following cases would be eligible to be heard in U.S. district court?
A)A $100,000 civil case involving residents from two states
B)A kidnapping case
C)A civil rights case
D)All of the above
Q3) Discuss the rationale behind specialty courts and how such courts fit into the larger structure of the state court system.
Q4) The ____________________ is known as the nation's court of last resort.
Q5) Plea bargaining is rare.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Using examples, elaborate on the expanding role of technology in the court process.
Q7) Explain the selection and functions of a trial judge.
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Q1) The concept of the grand jury was incorporated in the ____ Amendment of the U.S. Constitution.
A)Fourth
B)Fifth
C)Sixth
D)Eighth
Q2) A __________ is the dismissal of a prospective juror for unexplained, discretionary reasons.
Q3) The Batson doctrine holds that:
A)peremptory challenges based on race by the defense are unconstitutional
B)prosecutorial peremptory challenges based on race are unconstitutional
C)the use of "content" questions is unconstitutional
D)peremptory challenges may not be limited to less than five by state statute
Q4) What did the Court establish in Stack v. Boyle?
A)That misdemeanors are entitled to an absolute right to bail.
B)That only the most heinous and violent crimes are unbailable.
C)That all defendants are entitled to an absolute right to bail.
D)That if a crime is bailable, the amount set should not be frivolous, unusual, or beyond a person's ability to pay under similar circumstance.
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Q1) By punishing an offender severely as an example to others achieves the goal of:
A)general deterrence.
B)rehabilitation .
C)specific deterrence.
D)incapacitation.
Q2) Discuss whether or not determinate, mandatory, or truth-in-sentencing models deter crime?
Q3) "Let the sentence fit the criminal" best describes the basic philosophy of:
A)determinate sentencing.
B)mandatory minimums.
C)fixed terms.
D)indeterminate sentencing.
Q4) List the factors that influence sentencing and discuss how each factor does so.
Q5) In Roper v. Simmons (2005) the Court:
A)Set a limit of 18 years as the age of defendants who could be sentenced to death
B)Ruled that execution of the mentally retarded is prohibited by the Eighth Amendment
C)Ruled that only those who commit felony murder may be executed
D)Ruled that rapists may not be punished with death
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Q1) Describe the strengths and weaknesses of shock probation and split sentencing.
Q2) What happens when probation is revoked?
A)The probation contract is terminated and the original sentence is imposed
B)The judgment is deferred until such time as the defendant is rehabilitated
C)The suspended sentence is held in abeyance and the defendant is subject to mandatory participation in a pretrial diversion program
D)The probation contract is extended and a prison term is imposed
Q3) How has the historical development of probation affected its modern operation? How would you answer someone who says that intensive probation is merely a return to probation as it was originally envisioned by John Augustus?
Q4) Which of the following is a considered to be a federal forfeiture program?
A)DRC programs
B)The RICO Act
C)The Organized Crime and Antidrug Act
D)RCC centers
Q5) Intensive probation supervision has been proven effective at reducing re-offending rates.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Boot camps are a form of shock incarceration.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Alcatraz was classified as a super-maximum-security prison.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The Auburn Prison design became known as the tier system.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The U.S. Corrections Corporation opened the first ____________________ prison in 1986.
Q5) Which of the following is false regarding new-generation jails?
A)Unobserved inmates are essentially unsupervised.
B)Continuous observation of residents is permitted.
C)Direct supervision jails involve a cluster of cells surrounding a living area.
D)Indirect supervision jails are a type of new-generation jail.
Q6) The ____________________ was the judicial policy of not interfering in the administrative affairs of prisons.
Q7) ____________________ are facilities that hold both people that are guilty of a crime and those that are awaiting trial. Page 13
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Q1) What is the most common outcome for children when a single mother is sent to prison?
A)They are temporarily sent to a foster home or state facility.
B)They are permanently removed from her custody and put up for adoption.
C)They are placed in the care of a relative or family friend.
D)They are housed in a prison nursery.
Q2) Before the 1960s, it was the norm for convicted criminals to forfeit all rights and be declared civilly dead in the eyes of the state.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Given its designed segregation and surveillance, the modern prison is a model ____________________.
Q4) The desire for warm stable relationships that are otherwise unobtainable in the prison environment often leads the female inmate to:
A)engage in self-mutilation behavior.
B)develop elaborate black market economies.
C)create make-believe families.
D)marry prison guards and staff.
Q5) The first treatment programs in prison were ____________________.
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Q1) What stage in the juvenile justice process is designed to help youths make the transition from residential or institutional settings back into the community?
A)Intake
B)Detention
C)Disposition
D)Aftercare
Q2) Which case is said to have established the theoretical basis for the chancery courts acting on the behalf of the crown?
A)The Carriers case
B)Breed v. Jones
C)In re Gault
D)Wellesley v. Wellesley
Q3) Discuss the three reform efforts that have been undertaken in the area of juvenile sentencing. How might these reforms change the juvenile justice system?
Q4) The term "agree to a finding" is used in place of ____________________ when plea bargaining juvenile cases.
Q5) What are the major factors influencing the decision to waive a juvenile into adult court?
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Q1) Which of the following is not an aim of the USA Patriot Act?
A)To give sweeping new powers to domestic law enforcement and international intelligence agencies to in an effort to fight terrorism
B)To expand the definition of terrorist activities
C)To alter sanctions for violent terrorism
D)All of the above are aims of the USA Patriot Act.
Q2) Spending on IT and telecommunications will grow by more than 6 percent each year, soon reaching about ____.
A)$200,000
B)$2 million
C)$2 billion
D)$2 trillion
Q3) The salami slice is a computer program secretly attached to a company's computer system.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Discuss the purposes of the USA Patriot Act and then detail the concern about this Act by civil libertarians.
Q5) Select and discuss three types of computer crimes.
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