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Foundations of Criminal Justice provides an in-depth introduction to the principles, structures, and processes that define the criminal justice system. The course explores the historical development of policing, courts, and corrections, examining the roles and responsibilities of each component. Emphasis is placed on the social, legal, and ethical context in which criminal justice operates, including an overview of relevant policies, procedures, and landmark cases. Through examining crime measurement, criminal law, and the rights of the accused, students will gain a fundamental understanding of how justice is administered and the challenges facing contemporary criminal justice in society.
Recommended Textbook
Introduction to Criminal Justice 4th Edition by Robert M. Bohm
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Q1) How much did the federal government spend to execute mass murderer Timothy McVeigh (the cost of the entire process)?
A) $1 million
B) $10 million
C) $100 million
D) $1 billion
Answer: C
Q2) Because there is considerable conflict and confusion between different agencies of criminal justice,an accurate definition of American criminal justice may be to call it:
A) a system.
B) a nonsystem.
C) extremely uniform.
D) smoothly operating.
Answer: B
Q3) A prosecutor always reviews a case before an arrest is made.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) One problem with finding an appropriate definition of crime is that:
A) too many behaviors exist that could be defined as crimes.
B) crime should be defined only by the presence of physical injury to another person.
C) many dangerous and harmful behaviors are not defined as crimes, while many less dangerous and less harmful behaviors are.
D) most behaviors that are defined as criminal are actually "victimless crimes."
Answer: C
Q2) A study by the National Institute of Justice (NIJ)determined which crimes have the highest annual victim costs.Three of the following crimes have the highest annual victim costs.Which one does NOT belong?
A) Assault
B) Rape
C) Murder
D) Arson
Answer: D
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a problem with psychotherapy?
A) it rests on faith; much of its theoretical structure is scientifically untestable
B) the emphasis of psychotherapy as an approach to rehabilitation is on the individual offender and not the individual offender in interaction with the environment in which the criminal behavior occurs
C) the behaviors that are treated in psychotherapy are not criminal, but are the deep-seated problems
D) it is unable to make patients aware of unconscious and deep-seated problems in order to resolve the symptoms associated with them
Answer: D
Q2) Who argued that criminals are,by birth,a distinct type,and that this type can be recognized by physical characteristics or "stigmata" such as enormous jaws,high cheekbones,insensitivity to pain,etc.?
A) Cesare Beccaria
B) Johan Caspar Lavater
C) Cesare Lombroso
D) William Sheldon
Answer: C
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Q1) The criminal law of the United States,for the most part,is derived from the laws of:
A) colonial America.
B) Israel.
C) Sumeria.
D) England.
Q2) Name the five ideal features of good criminal laws.
Q3) The Fourth Amendment requires that a search warrant contain a particular description of the place to be searched and the person or things to be seized.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court broaden the protection against compelled self-incrimination to cover nearly all custodial police interrogations?
A) Miranda v. Arizona
B) Escobedo v. Illinois
C) Brown v. Mississippi
D) Arizona v. Fulminante
Q5) Your textbook names six provisions of the Sixth Amendment.Name four of them.
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Q1) Because of relatively low wages,private security officers frequently work part-time or have another primary job and use their security job wages to supplement their incomes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) After the Civil War,municipal police officers began to take on the characteristics of today's police.Three of these characteristics are listed below.Which one does NOT belong?
A) They began to carry nightsticks.
B) They began to carry firearms.
C) They began to wear uniforms.
D) They began to form posses.
Q3) Three of the following statements describe how politics affects the role of sheriff in most counties.Which one does NOT belong?
A) The authority to appoint special deputies and to award patronage jobs contribute to the sheriff's power and influence in a county.
B) The sheriff's office is limited to counties that vote to approve it.
C) Local politics governs the operation of the sheriff's department.
D) The sheriff must operate as a partisan politician to remain in office.
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Q1) Sometimes a police officer's role may be simply to solve problems in the course of providing service.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Emphasis is on helping in the community
A)Legalistic
B)Watchman
C)Service
Q3) Police detectives seem to have a number of advantages over patrol officers,and seven of these advantages are listed in your textbook.Three are listed below.Which is NOT one of these advantages?
A) They have offices and desks.
B) They enjoy more freedom than patrol officers do from the police radio and geographical boundaries.
C) They often move on to patronage jobs.
D) In many agencies, they receive higher compensation and hold a higher rank.
Q4) Name and define the four special characteristics that successful police work requires,as described in your textbook.
Q5) Name and define James Q.Wilson's three operational styles of policing.
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Q1) According to your text,a precise definition of brutality is not possible.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What percent of blacks believe that police brutality against blacks happens occasionally or more often in their communities?
A) 15%
B) 33%
C) 60%
D) 80%
Q3) When did the systematic psychological testing of police officers begin?
A) 1950s
B) 1960s
C) 1970s
D) 1980s
Q4) _____ are officers who actively seek ways to make money illegally while on duty.
A) Meat eaters
B) Grass eaters
C) Vegans
D) Carnivores
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Q1) From which of the following sources does the federal government's Crime Victims Fund receive its funding?
A) annual congressional appropriations
B) fees for federal gun registration
C) fines and penalties paid by federal criminal offenders
D) all of the choices are correct
Q2) Which of the following reasons was selected by half of all respondents who favored the death penalty in a recent Gallup poll?
A) "an eye for an eye"/convicted deserve to be executed
B) save taxpayers money/cost associated with prison
C) deterrence
D) arbitrary and discriminatory application
Q3) Nearly ____ of state trial court decisions are affirmed on appeal.
A) 80 percent
B) 60 percent
C) 40 percent
D) 20 percent
Q4) Name the five methods of execution currently in use in the United States.
Q5) Define truth-in-sentencing laws.What offenders do these laws target?
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Q1) Death penalty support among the American public,at least according to the major opinion polls,remains relatively strong.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Judges almost always impose the sentence agreed upon during plea negotiations because if they did not,plea bargaining would not work.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court in 2002 rule that jurors and not judges must determine whether death is the appropriate penalty in a capital case.
A) Ring v. Arizona
B) Atkins v. Virginia
C) Furman v. Georgia
D) Gregg v. Georgia
Q4) Define truth-in-sentencing laws.What offenders do these laws target?
Q5) Name the five major rationales or justifications that have been given for punishments imposed by the criminal courts.
Q6) Name the five methods of execution currently in use in the United States.
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Q1) Which of the following was designed for younger,less hardened offenders,between 16 and 30 years of age?
A) The penitentiary
B) Transportation
C) The reformatory
D) Banishment
Q2) Inmates who are vulnerable to assault by other inmates may be designated for:
A) administrative segregation.
B) new-generation jails.
C) congregate living areas.
D) protective custody.
Q3) Some institutions at this security level have a wide,open buffer zone between the outer wall or fence and the free community.
A)Supermaximum-security
B)Maximum-security
C)High/close-security
D)Medium-security
E)Minimum-security
Q4) Some of the interrelated reasons for those problems are:
Q5) Define supermaximum,maximum,medium,and minimum prison security levels.
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Q1) The Supreme Court has stated that inmates facing a loss of good time for a rule infraction are entitled to certain rights,but not to others.Name two rights to which they are entitled,and two to which they are not entitled.
Q2) The process of<b> importation </b>occurs when an inmate enters prison for the first time,and is socialized into the customs and principles of the inmate society.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The U.S.Supreme Court has moved to ensure that inmates receive all of the elements of due process during the disciplinary process.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Approximately what percent of all prison inmates will eventually be released from prison?
A) 74
B) 86
C) 93
D) 99
Q5) Explain the four typical ways in which inmates may be released from prison.
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Q1) Net-widening occurs when the offenders placed in a program like ISP are not the offenders for whom the program was intended.
A)True
B)False
Q2) As a rule,the newer intermediate sanctions are oriented less toward ____and more toward ____ than older community correctional programs.
A) deterrence; retribution
B) rehabilitation; retribution
C) retribution; deterrence
D) rehabilitation; restoration
Q3) Part of the role of community corrections staff is to help offenders identify and address their problems and needs.This role has three aspects,which are listed here.Which is NOT one of these aspects?
A) The direct provision of services, such as counseling, to offenders
B) Advocacy
C) The provision of multilevel spiritual and religious programs
D) Resource broker
Q4) Name the four fundamental objectives of parole.
Q5) Name the five types of probation.
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Q1) Used to remove youths from particular neighborhoods and used for some nonviolent offenders instead of more restrictive placements
A)Probation
B)Intensive-supervision probation
C)Restitution
D)Wilderness probation (outdoor adventure) programs
E)Day treatment programs
F)Foster homes
G)Group homes
H)Aftercare programs
Q2) Diversion can occur at any stage of the juvenile justice process,but it is most often employed before:
A) adjudication.
B) arrest.
C) petition to the juvenile court.
D) contacting the police.
Q3) Adjudication is the juvenile court equivalent of sentencing in criminal court.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Today,the preliminary hearing is used mostly for testing evidence against the defendant.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Why is it unlikely that plea bargaining will ever be completely eliminated from the American court system?
Q3) Due process model advocates believe that the ____ is a critical stage in the administration of justice.
A) preliminary hearing
B) plea-bargaining process
C) investigation
D) finding of guilt
Q4) Why has transnational organized crime been so difficult for law enforcement agencies to address in Russia as late as the 1990s?
A) no laws against organized crime existed
B) there were no criminal penalties for phony businesses or fictitious bankruptcies
C) there was little financial or social support for law enforcement itself
D) all of the choices are correct

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