Foundations of Criminal Justice Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Foundations of Criminal Justice introduces students to the core concepts, processes, and institutions that form the basis of the criminal justice system. The course explores the historical development and contemporary operations of law enforcement, courts, and corrections, emphasizing the roles these components play in maintaining social order and administering justice. Students examine key legal principles, stages of criminal case processing, and important issues such as due process, crime control, and the balance between individual rights and public safety. Through case studies and analysis, the course encourages critical thinking about justice policies, ethical challenges, and the impact of the criminal justice system on society.
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CJ2 2nd Edition by Larry K. Gaines
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17 Chapters
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Chapter 1: Criminal Justice Today
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Q1) The federal agency with the primary responsibility for combating white-collar crime, organized crime, and cyber crime is the Federal Bureau of Investigation.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) The crime control model assumes which of the following?
A) The criminal justice system strives to make it more difficult to prove guilt.
B) It is more desirable for society that ninety-nine guilty suspects go free than that a single innocent person be condemned.
C) Absolute efficiency can be realized only if the power of the state is absolute.
D) Police are in a better position than the courts to determine the guilt of an arrested suspect.
Answer: D
Q3) Rising crime rates in the 1970s and 1980s led to:
A) a get tough on crime attitude
B) a decrease in prison admissions
C) a decrease in arrests
D) the creation of a Department of Homeland Security
Answer: A
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Causes of Crime
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Q1) According to Freud, the abstract system that interacts in the brain to "learn" the expectations of family and society and also acts as the conscience for an individual is called the:
A) id
B) ego
C) superego
D) oral
Answer: C
Q2) Some adoption studies show that fraternal twins are considerably more likely to exhibit similar criminal behavior than identical twins.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Labeling theory suggests the hypothesis that delinquents and criminals must be taught both the practical and emotional skills necessary to participate in illegal activity.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Defining and Measuring Crime
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Q1) Explain the differences between crimes mala in se and mala prohibita and give an example of each type of crime.
Answer: -Mala in se is a descriptive term for acts that are inherently wrong, regardless of whether they are prohibited by law -are said to go against "natural laws"-that is, against the "natural, moral, and public" principles of a society -murder, rape, and theft are examples of mala in se crimes. These crimes are generally the same from country to country or culture to culture
-Mala prohibita is a descriptive term for acts that are made illegal by criminal statute and are not necessarily wrong in and of themselves -they are wrong only because they have been codified as such through statute-"human-made" laws
-considered wrong only because it has been prohibited; it is not inherently a wrong, though it may reflect the moral standards of a society at a given time -thus, the definition of a mala prohibita crime can vary from country to country and even from state to state -bigamy could be an example of this type of crime in the U.S.
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Inside Criminal Law
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Q1) When using deadly-force in self-defense, which of the following must be true?
A) A gun must be used on your own property against you.
B) The crime must take place at night on your own property.
C) There is a reasonable belief that imminent death or bodily harm will occur.
D) The defender has to have initiated or provoked the attack.
Q2) List and then explain the three different insanity tests that are used in different American jurisdictions.
Q3) __________ _________ is a person's mental state, or intent.
Q4) A Hate Crime Law is a statute that provides for ___________________ against those who commit crimes motivated by bias against an individual or a group based on race, ethnicity, religion, gender, sexual orientation, disability, or age.
A) lesser sanctions
B) greater sanctions
C) mediation sanctions
D) apology sanctions
Q5) _______________ __________ is the act of willful neglect or physical violence that occurs within a familial or other intimate relationship.
Q6) Explain the development of the due process clause to the Constitution.
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Chapter 5: Law Enforcement Today
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Q1) The Secret Service is responsible for the Treasury Police Force.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When law enforcement officers use their judgment in deciding which offenses to punish and which to ignore, they are said to be using __________.
Q3) Which of the following is not an agency that is housed in the Department of Homeland Security?
A) U.S. Customs and Border Protection
B) Federal Bureau of Investigation
C) U.S. Immigration and Customs Enforcement
D) U.S. Secret Service
Q4) Which of the following is NOT one of the duties of a member of the U.S. Marshals Service?
A) investigate federal crimes
B) transport federal prisoners to and from court
C) capture fugitives from federal law
D) provide security for federal courts
Q5) List and explain the four basic responsibilities of the police.
Q6) Explain the role of at least three federal law enforcement agencies in the U.S.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Challenges to Effective Policing
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Q1) __________ is the segment of a police recruit's training in which he or she is removed from the classroom and placed on the beat, under the supervision of a senior officer.
Q2) Explain the four categories of ethical dilemmas typically facing a police officer and give a real world example of each.
Q3) Police corruption is considered the abuse of authority by a law enforcement officer for personal gain.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The purposes of police patrols are to prevent and deter crime and also to provide social services.
A)True B)False
Q5) __________ arrests are arrests that occur because of concerted efforts by law enforcement agencies to respond to a particular type of criminal or criminal behavior.
Q6) Explain the differences between the police academy and field training and why it is important for officers to have both types of training.
Q7) Describe how forensic experts use ballistics to solve crimes.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Police and the Constitution: The Rules of Law Enforcement
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Q1) Officers may conduct a warrantless arrest in which of the following circumstances?
A) If there are exigent circumstances.
B) If the officer has knowledge that a crime has been committed and reasonable suspicion to believe the crime was committed by a particular suspect.
C) If the offense was committed in the presence of the officer.
D) If the officer has knowledge that a misdemeanor has been committed and probable cause to believe the crime was committed by a particular suspect.
Q2) Explain at least four of the circumstances where a Miranda warning does not have to be given to a person being questioned.
Q3) __________ is considered to have occurred when the arrested individual submits to the control of the officer, whether peacefully or under the threat or use of force.
A) A frisk
B) Detention
C) A stop
D) A warrant
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Chapter 8: Courts and the Quest for Justice
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Q1) The __________ is a rule of the United States Supreme Court that the Court will not issue a writ of certiorari unless at least four justices approve of the decision to hear the case.
Q2) The method of selecting judges that combines appointment and election is called the:
A) Alabama Plan
B) Missouri Plan
C) Minnesota Plan
D) Nebraska Plan
Q3) A _______________ is an election in which candidates are presented on the ballot without any party affiliation.
Q4) Which courts have jurisdiction over cases that include drug trafficking, kidnapping, bankrobbery, and illegal gambling?
A) municipal courts
B) county courts
C) district courts
D) federal courts.
Q5) Explain the difference in jurisdiction between trial courts and appellate courts?
Page 10
Q6) Explain how the Missouri Plan of judicial selection occurs.
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Chapter 9: Pretrial Procedures: The Adversary System in Action
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Q1) A __________ is a court-appointed attorney who is paid by the state to represent defendants who are unable to hire private counsel
Q2) Most criminal cases in the United States conclude with negotiated deals rather than trials.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the MOST important screening factor the prosecutor considers when making the decision to prosecute?
A) whether or not there is sufficient evidence for conviction
B) whether or not the victim is reliable
C) whether or not the victim is cooperative
D) whether or not the defendant is willing to testify against others
Q4) A prosecutor is not usually willing to drop a case or reduce the charges against a defendant who is willing to testify against other offenders
A)True
B)False
Q5) U.S. attorneys are nominated by the __________ and confirmed by the
Q6) Explain the factors that affect case attrition.
Q7) In __________ cases, the primary responsibility to set bail lies with the judge. Page 11
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Chapter 10: The Criminal Trial
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Q1) To be tried twice for the same criminal offense is called __________.
Q2) In general, prosecutions for murder and other offenses that carry the death penalty do not have a statute of limitations.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When is an appeal NOT required in most states?
A) in every case
B) when the sentence is longer than 10 years in prison
C) when the sentence is life without parole
D) when the sentences is capital punishment
Q4) Verbal evidence given by witnesses under oath is called:
A) voir dire
B) real evidence
C) a testimony
D) a cross-examination
Q5) A witness who has been granted immunity may still refuse to answer questions on the basis of self-incrimination.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Explain the difference between real evidence and testimonial evidence.
Page 13
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Chapter 11: Punishment and Sentencing
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Q1) While examining sentencing disparities and discrimination, Spohn and Holleran found that the rate of imprisonment rose significantly for which of the following populations?
A) young and unemployed
B) middle age and unemployed
C) elderly and unemployed
D) young and employed
Q2) Judicial sentencing authority has done which of the following in the last twenty years?
A) increased
B) decreased
C) stayed the same
D) is unable to be measured
Q3) An term of incarceration in which a judge determines the minimum and maximum terms of imprisonment is called __________.
Q4) Explain the concept of restorative justice.
Q5) Mentally handicapped individuals are subject to the death penalty in the United States.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 12: Probation and Community Corrections
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Q1) In which of the following cases did the U.S. Supreme Court rule that a meeting between probation officer and client does not equal custody and, therefore, the Fifth Amendment protection against self-incrimination does not apply?
A) Mempa v. Rhay
B) Gagnon v. Scarpelli
C) Minnesota v. Murphy
D) Morrissey v. Brewer
Q2) The criticism that intermediate sanctions designed to divert offenders from prison actually increase the number of citizens who are under the control of the corrections system is called:
A) widening the net
B) intensive supervision
C) electronic monitoring
D) shock incarceration
Q3) Describe at least three of the following judicially administered intermediate sanctions: day reporting centers, intensive supervision probation, shock incarceration, and home confinement.
Q4) Explain how an electronic monitoring device meets many of the goals of intermediatesanctions?
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Chapter 13: Prisons and Jails
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Q1) The jail population increased by _____ percent between 1995 and 2009.
A) 10
B) 25
C) 51
D) 65
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a function of a jail?
A) holding those who are awaiting trial
B) holding juveniles who have been convicted of a crime
C) holding those convicted of misdemeanors
D) holding the mentally ill pending transfer to health facilities
Q3) Which of the following is NOT one of the reasons for the growth in incarcerated populations:
A) war on poverty
B) war on crime
C) war on drugs
D) increasing rates of female imprisonment
Q4) The majority of jails in the United States are operated by the county sheriff.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain some of the consequences of our high rates of incarceration.
Page 16
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Chapter 14: Behind Bars: The Life of an Inmate
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Q1) _______________ is the practice of separating inmates based on certain characteristics, such as age, gender, race, gang affiliation, or type of crime committed.
Q2) The process of withdrawing parole and returning the parolee to prison is called:
A) mandatory sentence expiration
B) probation revocation
C) parole revocation
D) reentry
Q3) Tower officers supervise cell blocks containing as many as four hundred inmates, as well as the correctional officers on duty.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is NOT a reason for an officer to use force on an inmate?
A) acting in self-defense
B) acting to defend the safety of a third person
C) upholding the hierarchy of the institution
D) preventing an escape effort
Q5) __________ guards spend their entire shifts in isolated, silent posts high above the grounds of the facility.
Q6) Explain the process of parole revocation.
Page 17
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Chapter 15: The Juvenile Justice System
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Q1) The process of removing low-risk offenders from the formal juvenile justice system by placing them in community-based rehabilitation programs is called:
A) diversion
B) petitioning
C) referring
D) intake
Q2) A judicial waiver is the process in which the juvenile judge decides that the alleged juvenile offender should be transferred to adult court.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The first juvenile court was created in the state of __________.
Q4) The theory that a delinquent or status offender should receive a punishment that matches the severity of the wrongdoing is called deterrence.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The __________ is a hearing in which the juvenile judge or officer decides the appropriate punishment for a youth found to be delinquent or a status offender.
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Page 18
Chapter 16: Homeland Security
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Q1) Terrorist acts generally target military personnel rather than civilians or "innocent" persons.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Individuals who decide to use terror to further their aims and believe that the ends justify the often-violent means, is the definition of which of the following elements of the "supercrime" oif terrorism ?
A) the victims
B) a just cause
C) the intention
D) the violent factor
Q3) Which of the following is NOT one of the strategies used to collect information by intelligence agencies?
A) electronic surveillance
B) closed-source collection
C) intelligence sharing
D) counterintelligence
Q4) Explain how the Patriot Act has made it easier for federal agents to conduct searches during terrorism investigations.
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Chapter 17: Cyber Crime and the Future of Criminal Justice
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Q1) Explain two some of the trends for the future of criminal justice.
Q2) In which U.S. Supreme Court case did the Court ruling provide film and music companies with the ability to file piracy lawsuits against Internet file-sharing Web sites that market software used primarily to illegally download intellectual property?
A) Napster v. Illinois
B) MGM Studios v. Grokster.
C) Maxx v. Milnes
D) Roker v. Leaper
Q3) In what type of crime do the perpetrators try to get financial data and passwords from consumers by posing as a legitimate business such as a bank or credit-card company?
A) cyberbullying
B) hacking
C) phishing
D) cybertheft
Q4) Businesses sometimes fail to report cybercrimes for fear of losing customer confidence.
A)True
B)False
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