Foundations of Clinical Psychology Final Exam
Course Introduction
Foundations of Clinical Psychology introduces students to the essential principles, theories, and practices within the field of clinical psychology. The course covers the historical development of clinical psychology, major approaches to psychological assessment and intervention, ethical issues, and the scientist-practitioner model that guides evidence-based practice. Students gain a broad understanding of the diagnostic process, common psychological disorders, treatment modalities, and the cultural and social factors influencing mental health. Through critical analysis of case studies and current research, students build foundational knowledge necessary for further study or practical application in clinical settings.
Recommended Textbook
Abnormal Psychology 17th Edition by Jill M. Hooley
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17 Chapters
2107 Verified Questions
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Chapter 1: Abnormal Psychology: Overview and Research Approaches
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Sample Questions
Q1) What does Scott's case best illustrate?
A) The problems associated with higher education in America today.
B) That homelessness often causes psychopathology.
C) That some psychological conditions are "late onset" -initially occurring in adolescence or young adulthood.
D) That lower social economic status is a causal factor of psychosis.
Answer: C
Q2) According to the DSM, when is deviant behavior viewed as indicative of a mental disorder?
A) Always
B) Only when the behavior is inconsistent with cultural norms
C) When it is a symptom of a dysfunction in the individual
D) Never
Answer: C
Q3) What is external validity?
A) The extent to which research findings are consistent with hypotheses.
B) The extent to which the sample equals the population.
C) The extent to which research findings can be generalized beyond the study.
D) A measure of how powerful the statistics being used are within a study.
Answer: C
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Historical and Contemporary Views of Abnormal Behavior
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following increased the availability of treatment for the mentally ill in the United States?
A) Dorothea Dix
B) Benjamin Rush
C) Emil Kraepelin
D) Philippe Pinel
Answer: A
Q2) Why was the discovery of the malarial treatment for general paresis important? Answer: It was the first scientifically demonstrated connection between a mental illness and brain pathology.
Q3) Describe classical conditioning.
Answer: Classical conditioning is a form of learning in which a neutral stimulus is paired repeatedly with an unconditioned stimulus. After repeated pairings, the neutral stimulus becomes a conditioned stimulus that elicits a conditioned response.
Q4) ______________ was the person who revolutionized moral management in the treatment of mental patients in the late 1700s.
Answer: Benjamin Rush
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Chapter 3: Causal Factors and Viewpoints
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145 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the diathesis-stress model, a stressor is ________
A) a distal, sufficient cause of a mental disorder.
B) a necessary or contributory cause that is distal from the onset of symptoms.
C) a necessary or contributory cause that is proximal to the onset of symptoms.
D) a biological vulnerability.
Answer: C
Q2) Andrea and her parents are shy and quiet. Her parents never take Andrea to any activities where there are many people. They buy her books and crafts that she can do by herself. This shows ________
A) an evocative effect of genotype on environment.
B) a passive effect of genotype on environment.
C) an active effect of genotype on environment.
D) a lack of genotype-environment correlation.
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following is an example of a nonshared environmental influence?
A) Family economic status
B) Divorce
C) Death of a parent
D) Sibling rivalry
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Clinical Assessment and Diagnosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dr. Bruce says "Its beneficial features are the ability to map ongoing psychological activities of the brain without injecting radioactive substances into the patient's body. In addition, they are much more widely available procedures than what was used before."
What is Dr. Bruce describing?
A) Positron emission tomography (PET) scans
B) Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI)
C) Electroencephalograms (EEGs)
D) Computerized axial tomography (CAT) scans
Q2) A clinician sits down with an individual and conducts an assessment interview. The clinician arrives at a diagnosis of schizophrenia. While writing up the notes on this interview, the clinician is mindful of preferred terminology by mental health professionals. What is the preferred way to refer to the individual in the assessment?
A) Schizophrenic patient
B) Schizophrenic person
C) Client with schizophrenia
D) Patient with schizophrenia
Q3) What are the purposes of the initial clinical assessment of a person?
Q4) What is a projective test?
Q5) The term MRI in assessment of the brain means __________.
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Chapter 5: Stress and Physical and Mental Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) Stress-inoculation training ________
A) has been employed in the military and been found to be ineffective.
B) prepares one to deal with a stressor by considering solutions to the problems that are likely.
C) is a form of cognitive preparation that can be used to minimize the impact of an anticipated threat.
D) can be used to prepare for most any disaster.
Q2) The field of psychoneuroimmunology ________
A) focuses on the relationship between stress and mental illness.
B) explores the neurological basis of autoimmune conditions.
C) seeks to establish a link between psychological functioning and vulnerability to illness.
D) examines the effects of stressors on the immune system.
Q3) Which of the following is not considered a life change?
A) Being promoted
B) Being diabetic
C) Getting pregnant
D) A death in the family
Q4) What is stress-inoculation training?
Q5) What is a risk factor?
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Chapter 6: Panic, Anxiety, Obsessions, and Their Disorders
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Q1) Neurotic behavior is ________
A) maladaptive and means that a person is out of touch with reality.
B) a current term, used to describe many disorders in the DSM-5.
C) what we now refer to as "hysteria."
D) maladaptive but means that a person is not out of touch with reality.
Q2) The effectiveness of benzodiazepines in treating GAD supports the hypothesis that
A) a serotonin deficiency underlies GAD.
B) heightened autonomic arousal causes the anxiety of those with GAD.
C) a GABA deficiency underlies GAD.
D) anxiety increases noradrenergic activity.
Q3) Panic disorders are often misdiagnosed because ________
A) the symptoms overlap so much with major depression.
B) the symptoms are so chronic and mild, they do not seem like serious forms of psychopathology.
C) patients are so embarrassed by their problems, they do not make them known to professionals.
D) symptoms are so somatic they are treated by physicians for medical problems.
Q4) One of the best behavioral treatments for specific phobias is __________ therapy.
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Chapter 7: Mood Disorders and Suicide
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Sample Questions
Q1) A hypomanic episode is best described as a _________
A) mild manic episode.
B) short manic episode.
C) manic episode characterized by inactivity.
D) manic episode followed by symptoms of a mild depression.
Q2) The hormone __________ has been found to be elevated in 60 to 80 percent of patients who have been hospitalized with major depressive disorder.
Q3) Efforts to find the gene or genes that underlie bipolar disorder suggest that
A) multiple genes are involved.
B) the underlying gene is on the Y chromosome.
C) the underlying gene is on the X chromosome.
D) there is a genetic basis for bipolar disorder, but not for cyclothymia.
Q4) What do all mood disorders have in common?
A) The presence of a negative mood state.
B) They are at least 6 months in duration.
C) The presence of irrational thoughts.
D) They are characterized by emotional extremes.
Q5) Discuss the risk factors for adolescent suicide.
Q6) What changes in sleep are seen in depression?
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Somatic Symptom and Dissociative Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Research on somatic symptom disorder has shown that people with the disorder tend to ________
A) ignore information about illness.
B) overestimate the dangerousness of diseases.
C) underestimate the dangerousness of diseases.
D) overestimate their ability to handle being ill.
Q2) What is dissociative fugue? Under what circumstances is this disorder likely to develop?
Q3) Assuming a new identity in a new place is characteristic of ________
A) depersonalization disorder.
B) all forms of dissociative amnesia.
C) dissociative fugue.
D) dissociative identity disorder.
Q4) The inability to learn new information is known as ________
A) anterograde amnesia.
B) retrograde amnesia.
C) continuous amnesia.
D) generalized amnesia.
Q5) ______________ amnesia is the inability to recall information from before some traumatic experience.
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Chapter 9: Eating Disorders and Obesity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which scenario represents a cyclical pathway can develop that eventually leads to obesity?
A) A child stops eating because of low self-esteem, becomes anorexic and then is successfully treated but still has negative feelings about her- or himself.
B) A thin child eats normally but is teased about his or her weight and begins to diet further.
C) A child eats because of feelings of depression and low self-esteem, gains weight, is rejected by peers, binges, and continues to gain weight.
D) A thin child binges because of depression and low self-esteem, purges and feels better, then feels safe to binge again, eating more later.
Q2) Which of the following is likely to put whites at higher risk of developing an eating disorder than non-whites?
A) Body dissatisfaction
B) Living in an industrialized society
C) Fear of stomach bloating
D) Desire to please the family
Q3) What are the differences between binge-eating disorder and bulimia nervosa?
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Chapter 10: Personality Disorders
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Q1) Harold is perfectionistic and extremely concerned with maintaining a set routine. He probably suffers from ________ personality disorder.
A) schizoid
B) obsessive-compulsive
C) dependent
D) avoidant
Q2) Parental overvaluation is associated with which personality disorder?
A) Antisocial
B) Borderline
C) Histrionic
D) Narcissistic
Q3) Sharon says, "I would love to be in an intimate relationship. My life is terribly boring and lonely. But I am extremely shy and I would fall apart if any man criticized me in the slightest." This description best matches the symptoms of ________ personality disorder.
A) antisocial
B) dependent
C) avoidant
D) borderline
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Chapter 11: Substance-Related Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an opiate?
A) Alcohol
B) Codeine
C) Marijuana
D) Tobacco
Q2) What is the evidence for and against genetics in alcoholism?
Q3) The incidence of alcoholism among Muslims and Mormons is low because
A) individuals who practice these religions are likely to live in areas where alcohol is not readily available.
B) these religions prohibit alcohol consumption.
C) members of both groups are likely to have inherited an inability to metabolize alcohol properly.
D) strong family and community bonds protect these populations from all psychological disorders.
Q4) Who has the highest self-reported quit rate among smokers?
A) Young adults who have just started smoking
B) People who used nicotine replacement such as gum
C) People who were hospitalized for cancer or lung problems
D) People who underwent cognitive behavior treatment
Page 13
Q5) Describe and give an example of the abstinence violation effect.
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Chapter 12: Sexual Variants, Abuse, and Dysfunctions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Julia has a shoe fetish-she is not able to enjoy sex unless her partner is wearing her shoes. She needs to be touching the shoes in order to achieve sexual gratification. She becomes aroused by the sight of her own shoes. What is unusual about Julia's case of shoe fetishism?
A) Most fetishes involve animate objects.
B) Sexual dysfunction usually is seen in the fetishist.
C) Partners are usually not involved.
D) Female fetishists are rare.
Q2) Why is it difficult to estimate the prevalence of incest?
Q3) ________________is the paraphilia in which the person has urges involving the real act of inflicting physical suffering on someone for sexual excitement.
Q4) The decision by APA to remove homosexuality from the DSM was ________
A) later challenged and overturned.
B) based on religious persecution.
C) based on a vote by mental health professionals.
D) based on research about the lack of treatment.
Q5) _____________is discomfort with one's sex-relevant physical characteristics.
Q6) Is rape motivated by sex or aggression? Explain and provide support for your answer.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Schizophrenia and Other Psychotic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Danish adoption studies have been criticized for ________
A) not treating the subjects found to have schizophrenia.
B) not assessing the child-rearing environments of the index and control groups.
C) only studying males.
D) not confirming the family history of the subjects.
Q2) What are two types of prenatal experience associated with increased risk of schizophrenia?
Q3) On average about _________ schizophrenia brain and __________ healthy control brains are donated to the tissue brain bank maintained by the National Institute of Mental Health each year.
A) 50, 100
B) 90, 130
C) 9, 13
D) 100, 50
Q4) Which of the following is true about second-generation antipsychotics in the treatment of schizophrenia?
A) They are more effective than first generation antipsychotics.
B) They work by decreasing frontal lobe activity.
C) They prevent prenatal brain damage.
D) They are no more effective than first generation antipsychotics.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Neurocognitive Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of athlete has the greatest risk of experiencing brain damage because of a concussion?
A) An 8-year-old boy playing football
B) A 27-year-old woman swimmer
C) A 19-year-old boy playing soccer
D) A 14-year-old girl doing gymnastics
Q2) The most common cause of major neurocognitive disorder is ________
A) intracranial tumors.
B) severe or repeated head injury.
C) Alzheimer's disease.
D) drug toxicity.
Q3) Extensive bilateral damage to the temporal lobes of the brain is most likely to result in ________
A) the inability to recognize familiar faces.
B) visual-motor coordination impairment.
C) the inability to retrieve long-term memories.
D) the inability to store new memories.
Q4) ________ is rare and caused by an autosomal dominant gene on chromosome 4.
Q5) Many people with brain damage resulting in neuropsychological disorders have problems with __________ and self-regulation.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Disorders of Childhood and Adolescence (Neurodevelopmental Disorders)
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many of the 15 symptoms of conduct disorder must be present to justify a diagnosis of CD?
A) 3
B) 7
C) 12
D) 15
Q2) For children with mild intellectual disabilities, the best approach to education is likely to be ________
A) home schooling with a tutor from the public school district.
B) home schooling with parents.
C) behavior modification programs at specialized institutions.
D) well-planned mainstreaming in a regular school.
Q3) William is an autistic child. He is probably ________
A) very talkative.
B) unable to utter any meaningful sounding words.
C) relatively withdrawn and uncommunicative.
D) aggressive and frequently attacks others.
Q4) _________________ is the habitual involuntary discharge of urine after the age of expected continence.
Q5) What are three factors that can cause intellectual disability?
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Chapter 16: Psychological Treatment
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Q1) A good example of psychotherapy being used as a guardian of the status quo
A) occurs when psychotherapy is viewed as a set of tools rather than a system of ethics.
B) is when a Rogerian therapist takes a nondirective approach with a client.
C) occurred when psychiatry was used as a means of political control in the former Soviet Union.
D) happens when therapists disregard their therapeutic approach and use whatever technique works for the client.
Q2) Which of the following would be the most objective way of evaluating treatment success?
A) Gathering information about the therapist's impression of the changes that have occurred
B) Looking at the client's reports of change
C) Asking the client's family and friends to report on the progress they have observed
D) Measuring the change through personality tests and other instruments
Q3) What is systematic desensitization, and what is its purpose?
Q4) What is rational emotive behavior therapy (REBT)? What kind of therapy is REBT?
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Chapter 17: Contemporary and Legal Issues in Abnormal Psychology
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Q1) Efforts to counterbalance the social factors that entice adolescent binge drinking are examples of ________
A) selective interventions.
B) crisis interventions.
C) indicated interventions.
D) social-learning programs.
Q2) The concepts of universal, selective, and indicated interventions were widely used by
A) psychodynamic therapists to describe ways of reducing neurotic anxiety.
B) city planners to describe ways of eliminating crime and other social problems.
C) public health experts to describe ways of preventing disease.
D) developmental psychologists to describe problems that occur in early, middle, and later childhood.
Q3) What factors increase the risk of violence in someone with mental illness?
Q4) What are the three strategies that the United States government has used to address the drug abuse problem? How effective have these strategies been?
Q5) What have been some of the negative effects of deinstitutionalization?
Page 19
Q6) What is the importance of the Tarasoff case?
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