Foundations of Clinical Practice
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Foundations of Clinical Practice introduces students to the essential principles and skills required for effective patient care in clinical settings. The course covers core concepts such as patient assessment, basic history-taking, physical examination techniques, clinical reasoning, communication, and professional behavior. Emphasis is placed on developing a patient-centered approach, fostering interprofessional collaboration, and understanding the ethical and legal frameworks that underpin clinical practice. Through interactive lectures, simulations, and supervised practical sessions, students gain the foundational knowledge and confidence needed to progress in healthcare training and deliver safe, compassionate care.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Nursing Skills and Techniques 7th Edition by
Anne Griffin Perry
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1516 Verified Questions
1516 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Using Evidence in Nursing Practice
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is getting ready to develop a plan of care for a patient who has a specific need.The best source for developing this plan of care would probably be:
A) The Cochrane Library
B) MEDLINE
C) The NGC
D) CINAHL
Answer: C
Q2) The researcher explains how to apply findings in a practice setting for the type of subjects studied in the _________________ section of a research article.
Answer: "Clinical Implications"
A research article includes a section that explains if the findings from the study have "Clinical Implications." The researcher explains how to apply findings in a practice setting for the types of subjects studied.
Q3) __________________ are the gold standard for research.
Answer: Randomized controlled trials
Individual randomized control trials (RCTs)are the gold standard for research (Titler and others,2001).An RCT establishes cause and effect and is excellent for testing therapies.
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Chapter 2: Admitting, transfer, and Discharge
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Sample Questions
Q1) The plan for patient discharge from a health care facility begins:
A) At admission
B) After a medical diagnosis is determined
C) When the patient's physical needs are identified
D) After a home environment assessment is completed
Answer: A
Q2) The nurse is admitting the patient to the medical unit.The patient indicates that he has had several surgeries in the past and has been a diabetic for the last 15 years.He also states that he has allergies to sulfa and eggs.He claims that he had severe back pain earlier that morning,but the pain has finally gone since he received a "pain shot" in the Emergency Department.The nurse realizes that she must:
A) Provide the patient with an allergy arm band and document his allergies
B) Postpone routine admission procedures immediately
C) Ask the patient if he wants a smoking room
D) Have all family or friends leave the room
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Communication
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is explaining a procedure to a 2-year-old child.The best approach to use is:
A) Showing the needles and bandages in advance
B) Telling the patient exactly what discomfort to expect
C) Using dolls and stories to demonstrate what will be done
D) Asking the child to draw pictures of what he/she thinks will happen
Answer: C
Q2) The patient tells the nurse that his mother left him when he was 5 years old.The nurse responds by saying,"You say that your mother left you when you were 5 years old?"
This is an example of _______________.
Answer: restating
Restating is a technique whereby the nurse repeats the main thought that the patient has expressed.It indicates that the nurse is listening and validates,reinforces,or calls attention to something important that has been said.
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Chapter 4: Reporting and Recording
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Sample Questions
Q1) ___________________ provide a format for documenting a record of a patient's health status and progress.
Q2) The patient is ready to go home from the hospital.Prior to his leaving,the nurse provides the patient and family with a:
A) Discharge summary
B) Standardized care plan
C) Patient care summary
D) Flow sheet
Q3) The patient is a 24-year-old man who is diagnosed with possible HIV infection while being treated for active pneumonia.He has stated that the nurse may share test result information with his significant other but nothing else at this time.The nurse may:
A) Update the patient's parents as well
B) Update the patient's significant other only
C) Update no one in the hospital until the patient says so
D) Update the patient's physician, significant other, laboratory personnel
Q4) ________________ measurements for patients on a unit serve as a guide for determining staffing needs.
Q5) More than ________ % of sentinel events are caused by communication problems.
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Vital Signs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The gold standard for assessing a patient's core temperature is:
A) The pulmonary artery thermometer
B) The oral temperature
C) The tympanic membrane temperature
D) The temporal artery temperature
Q2) The nurse is about to teach the patient about risk factors for hypertension.Which of the following are risk factors for hypertension? (Select all that apply.)
A) Obesity
B) Cigarette smoking
C) High blood cholesterol
D) Renal disease
E) None of above
Q3) The nurse is working on the general surgical unit and is caring for a patient who has a right total mastectomy.To take the patient's vital signs and to accurately assess the patient's blood pressure,it will be necessary to:
A) Place the blood pressure cuff on the left upper arm
B) Place the blood pressure cuff on the right upper arm
C) Place the blood pressure cuff on the right lower arm
D) Use direct (invasive) blood pressure measurement
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Health Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient has had chronic lung disease for many years.This would lead the nurse to expect his anteroposterior (AP)ratio to be:
A) 2:1
B) The same as a child's
C) Twice as wide as it is deep
D) Normal
Q2) Breast self-examination should be done once a month.For women who menstruate,the best time is ______________.
Q3) The assessment technique that involves striking the body surface directly with one of two fingers is known as:
A) Indirect percussion
B) Deep palpation
C) Direct percussion
D) Light palpation
Q4) What technique should the nurse implement for assessment of the carotid artery?
A) Massaging the arteries briskly
B) Using the diaphragm of the stethoscope
C) Palpating each carotid artery separately
D) Placing the patient in a supine position
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Chapter 7: Medical Asepsis
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Sample Questions
Q1) ________________ is the absence of pathogenic (disease-producing)microorganisms.
Q2) Hand washing with soap and water is:
A) The most effective way to reduce the number of bacteria on the nurse's hands
B) More effective than alcohol-based products for washing hands
C) Necessary for hand hygiene if hands are visibly soiled
D) Not necessary if the nurse wears artificial nails
Q3) What is the single most important technique to prevent and control the transmission of infection?
A) Hand hygiene
B) The use of disposable gloves
C) The use of isolation precautions
D) Sterilization of equipment
Q4) For an infection to take place,which of the following must be present? (Select all that apply.)
A) Pathogen and reservoir
B) Portals of exit and entry
C) A mode of transmission
D) A susceptible host
E) None of above
9
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Chapter 8: Sterile Technique
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient requires a sterile dressing change for a mid-abdominal surgical incision.An appropriate intervention for the nurse to implement in maintaining sterile asepsis is to:
A) Put sterile gloves on before opening sterile packages
B) Discard items that may have been in contact with the area below waist level
C) Place povidone-iodine bottle well within the sterile field
D) Place sterile items on the very edge of the sterile drape
Q2) An appropriate technique for the nurse to use when performing sterile gloving is to:
A) Put the glove on the nondominant hand first
B) Interlock the hands after both gloves are applied
C) Pull the cuffs down on both gloves after gloving
D) Grasp the outside cuff of the other glove with the gloved hand
Q3) The minimum standard for infection control as established by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)is _______________.
Q4) A type I hypersensitivity to latex is evident if the nurse assesses:
A) Localized swelling
B) Skin redness and itching
C) Runny eyes and nose and cough
D) Tachycardia, hypotension, and wheezing
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Safe Patient Handling, transfer, and Positioning
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse realizes that her patient needs to improve his or her mobility as quickly as possible.This is because the nurse realizes that mobilization: (Select all that apply.)
A) Improves joint motion
B) Decreases circulation
C) Increases social activity
D) Enhances mental stimulation
Q2) Awareness of posture and changes in equilibrium is known as _______________.
Q3) The patient is immobile and has been repositioned in bed using a drawsheet.When finished,the patient is in a supported Fowler's position with the head of the bed elevated 45 degrees.Also important for positioning this patient is to:
A) Support his calves with pillows
B) Place a large pillow behind his head to prevent extension
C) Place a pillow behind his upper back
D) Avoid using pillows if patient does not have use of hands and arms.
Q4) Plantar flexion contracture,otherwise known as _____________,is caused when the force of gravity pulls an unsupported,weakened foot into a plantar-flexed position.
Q5) Body balance is achieved when a wide _____________ exists.
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Chapter 10: Exercise and Ambulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is concerned that the patient may fall while he is ambulating.To help her maintain control while the patient walks the nurse may apply a ______________ around the patient's waist.
Q2) ____________ refers to an ability to move about freely.
Q3) The nurse is caring for a patient who has just been treated for a broken leg.She needs to teach the patient how to use crutches.The crutch gait that is most appropriate for this patient is the:
A) Four-point gait
B) Three-point gait
C) Two-point gait
D) Swing-to gait
Q4) Antiembolic stockings (TEDs)are ordered for the patient on bed rest after surgery.The nurse explains to the patient that the primary purpose for the elastic stockings is to:
A) Keep the skin warm and dry
B) Prevent abnormal joint flexion
C) Apply external pressure
D) Prevent bleeding
Q5) A person's inability to move about freely is known as _______________.
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Chapter 11: Orthopedic Measures
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Sample Questions
Q1) After application of the cast,the nurse ensures that plaster crumbs are removed and rough edges are _________ to prevent skin breakdown.
Q2) For a client in traction who has skeletal pins,a nurse should:
A) Use povidone-iodine to cleanse the pin site
B) Apply antiseptic ointment and cover with a split dressing
C) Use hydrogen peroxide as a rinse before a dressing is applied
D) Do both pin sites at the same time, with the same swab and solution
Q3) _________________ may occur when pressure within a casted extremity increases.
Q4) An appropriate technique for the nurse to implement for the client who is being casted is to:
A) Apply ice to the top of the cast
B) Maintain the extremity below heart level
C) Handle the wet cast with the fingertips
D) Fold the stockinette or padding over the outer cast edges
Q5) _______________ traction begins externally but continues internally directly through the bone.
Q6) __________________ involves monitoring for the five P's (Pain,Pallor,Pulselessness,Paresthesia,and Paralysis).
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Support Surfaces and Special Beds
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following patients is at greatest risk for developing a pressure ulcer?
A) A bedridden patient on a high-specification foam mattress who is being turned every 2 hours
B) A patient who had a laminectomy 3 days ago and is ambulatory
C) A comatose patient who is on an air-fluidized bed who is repositioned frequently
D) A patient on a standard hospital mattress who turns himself in bed and who is ambulatory during the day
Q2) An ______________ rests on top of the hospital mattress and uses foam,air,water,gel,or combinations of these products to provide pressure relief.
Q3) The major cause of pressure ulcers is ________________.
Q4) The most important factor in preventing and treating pressure ulcers is:
A) The proper use of foam or air mattresses
B) The proper utilization of an air-fluidized bed
C) Frequent repositioning of the patient
D) The proper use of a low-air-loss bed
Q5) It is recommended that the Rotokinetic bed stay in the rotation mode for at least _______hours a day.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Safety
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient is an elderly gentleman who is admitted for a medical problem.While doing his admission assessment,the nurse learns that the patient gets up two to three times a night to go to the bathroom.The institution only has beds with split side rails.The nurse uses her assessment skills and knowledge to leave the lower rails in the down position since she knows that:
A) Falls rarely happen in the inpatient setting
B) Raised side rails increase the occurrence of falling
C) Side rails have no bearing on whether or not a patient falls
D) Patient falls rarely result in physical injury
Q2) To prevent patient aspiration during a seizure,the nurse should:
A) Insert an oral airway
B) Restrain the patient securely
C) Sit the patient in an upright position
D) Turn the patient onto his/her side
Q3) _________________ are sudden,abnormal,and excessive electrical discharges from the brain that change motor or autonomic function,consciousness,or sensation.
Q4) More than ____________ of adults 65 years of age and older fall annually in the United States.
Q5) __________ are the most common type of inpatient accident.
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Chapter 14: Disaster Preparedness
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Sample Questions
Q1) Personal protection equipment is categorized by the level of safety provided.Standard work uniforms or work clothes offer what level of protection?
A) Level A
B) Level B
C) Level C
D) Level D
Q2) Which of the following are goals of the Department of Homeland Security (DHS)? (Select all that apply.)
A) Prevention
B) Response
C) Recovery
D) Service
E) None of above
Q3) An _________________ provides a standard approach to managing emergencies in which multiple agencies are involved.
Q4) A _________________ is the dispersal of radioactive material via a "dirty bomb" or by deliberate contamination of food supplies or water supplies or over the terrain.
Q5) An epidemic that occurs in many parts of the world is known as a
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Chapter 15: Pain Assessment and Basic Comfort Measures
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Sample Questions
Q1) __________________ is an interactive method of pain management that permits patient control over pain through self-administration of analgesics.
Q2) Before administering an epidural medication,the nurse aspirates and suspects that the catheter has migrated into subarachnoid space when:
A) Clear drainage is noted
B) No drainage is noted
C) Purulent drainage is noted
D) Redness, warmth, and swelling are noted
Q3) The ______________ is just around the spinal cord and contains CSF.Only physicians and nurse anesthetists administer drugs in this space.
Q4) An advantage of intraspinal analgesia is the:
A) Smaller doses of epidural medication than intrathecal
B) Lack of significant patient complications
C) Systemic distribution of morphine faster than fentanyl
D) Ability to produce deeper analgesia with smaller dosages
Q5) Pain that extends beyond the period of healing and often lacks an identified pathology is known as _______________.
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Chapter 16: Palliative Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) An _______________ is the surgical dissection of a body after death.
Q2) _____________ helps people live as well as possible through the dying process.
Q3) The nurse recognizes that anticipatory grieving can be most beneficial for a patient or family because it can:
A) Be done in private
B) Be discussed with others
C) Promote separation of the ill patient from the family
D) Allow time for the process of grief
Q4) Nurses provide _______________ that is defined as care of the body after death in a manner consistent with the patient's religious and cultural beliefs.
Q5) A nurse-initiated or independent activity for promotion of respiratory function in a terminally ill patient is to:
A) Limit fluids
B) Position the patient in semi-Fowler's or Fowler's position
C) Reduce narcotic analgesic use
D) Administer bronchodilators
Q6) The irreversible absence of all brain function is termed ______________.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Personal Hygiene and Bedmaking
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is about to provide oral hygiene for an unconscious patient.To do so,she places the patient in which position?
A) Fowler's
B) Semi-Fowler's
C) Sims'
D) Supine
Q2) The patient is admitted with the diagnosis of pediculosis capitis.Proper treatment for this condition would include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Use of medicated shampoo or permethrin (Nix)
B) Use of products containing lindane
C) Combing hair with a nit comb for 2 to 3 days after treatment
D) Washing linens in cold water for 30 minutes
Q3) ____________ is the largest human organ.
Q4) When teaching parents oral care for a child,the nurse instructs them to:
A) Give bottles with juice at bedtime
B) Begin dental visits after the child is 8 years old
C) Allow the preschool child to floss his teeth without parental supervision
D) Limit snacks to three to four per day
Q5) The act of chewing is also known as ________________.
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Chapter 18: Pressure Ulcer Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a darkly pigmented patient who is immobile and needs turning every 2 hours.While turning the patient,the nurse who is performing the assessment should pay particular attention to:
A) Edema
B) Massaging any reddened area
C) Touching the skin
D) Pallor or mottling of the skin
Q2) The nurse has been caring for a patient with a stage IV ulcer.The ulcer has been steadily improving and now almost is healed.The nurse,at this point,can classify the ulcer as a:
A) Stage III pressure ulcer
B) Stage II pressure ulcer
C) Healing stage IV pressure ulcer
D) Stage I pressure ulcer
Q3) The client with a nasogastric (NG)tube in place may experience skin breakdown at the:
A) Nose
B) Tongue
C) Area behind the ears
D) Area around the lips
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Chapter 19: Care of Eye and Ear Prostheses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Correct insertion of a hearing aid includes:
A) Pulling up and out on the outer ear
B) Holding the aid with the long portion upright
C) Fitting the aid snugly in the midline of the canal
D) Turning the aid to the desired sound level before insertion
Q2) In providing eye care for the comatose patient,the nurse should:
A) Place the patient in a prone position for easier access
B) Use a different corner of the washcloth for each eye
C) Wipe each eye from outer to inner canthus
D) Use a sterile medicine cup to instill lubricant
Q3) The elderly client is instructed to store his hearing aid:
A) In a cold place
B) In a silica gel case
C) On a low shelf that is easy to reach
D) In a cup of water
Q4) The nurse assesses that a hearing aid is operating correctly by:
A) Speaking very softly behind the client
B) Covering the client's unaffected ear and speaking
C) Determining the client's response to a normal tone of voice
D) Removing the hearing aid and sending it to be checked by an audiologist
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Chapter 20: Safe Medication Preparation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A medication that is ordered pc is given:
A) STAT
B) prn
C) On call
D) After eating
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient who has been getting morphine sulfate regularly every 4 hours for the last 2 weeks.The patient has a history of renal failure and liver disease.While on rounds,the nurse finds the patient is lethargic with a respiratory rate of 6 breaths per minute.The nurse expects that the physician will order naloxone (Narcan)to counter the ______________ of the morphine.
A) Toxic effects
B) Idiosyncratic reaction
C) Allergic reaction
D) Side effect
Q3) A potentially fatal adverse drug event (ADE)is known as ___________________.
Q4) All medications have a ______________,which is the time it takes for excretion processes to lower the serum medication concentration by half.
Q5) The most common type of medical error is a _______________.
Q6) The eighth leading cause of death in the United States is _______________.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Oral and Topical Medications
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Sample Questions
Q1) What should the nurse do first when preparing to administer ear drops to an adult patient?
A) Warm the medication
B) Pull the pinna down and back
C) Massage the pinna of the ear
D) Remove cerumen from the inner ear canal
Q2) Which of the following tubes are used for long-term enteral feedings? (Select all that apply.)
A) PEG tube
B) Percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy tube
C) Jejunostomy tube
D) Nasogastric decompression tube
Q3) Handheld devices that disperse medications through an aerosol spray or mist to penetrate lung airways are known as ___________.
Q4) ___________ medications are applied locally to skin,mucous membranes,or tissue membranes.
Q5) Handheld devices that deliver inhaled medication in a fine powder to penetrate lung airways are known as ___________.
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Chapter 22: Parenteral Medications
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Sample Questions
Q1) Intradermal injections are administered correctly when the nurse:
A) Uses a 1-inch needle
B) Selects a 22-gauge needle
C) Injects at a 45-degree angle
D) Identifies the site at 3 fingerwidths below the antecubital space
Q2) An intravenous (IV)administration set that attaches just below the primary infusion bag or bottle to control small volumes of fluid is known as a ________________.
Q3) The nurse is preparing to administer an immunization to a toddler.The preferred site for administration of immunizations in this age group is the:
A) Deltoid muscle
B) Dorsogluteal muscle
C) Vastus lateralis muscle
D) Buttock
Q4) Research suggests that the _____________ area is the most appropriate site for all age groups of children receiving IM injections.
Q5) A subcutaneous medication delivery system that allows for continuous administration of medication is known as ________________.
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Oxygen Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient has been diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)and is on oxygen therapy at 2 L per nasal cannula.Why must the nurse monitor this patient's respiratory status during the night?
A) Small changes in carbon dioxide can affect ventilation
B) Carbon dioxide levels override oxygen levels in this type of patient
C) High levels of oxygen can extinguish the stimulus to breathe
D) Patients with COPD easily rid the body of carbon dioxide through the lungs
Q2) The patient is admitted with a diagnosis of COPD,and the physician orders the patient to be placed on continuous noninvasive ventilation (NIV).The nurse realizes that the patient should:
A) Keep the mask on his face as tightly as possible
B) Have arterial blood gas (ABGs) done at least every 6 hours
C) Have a mask without quick-release straps
D) Have increased blood pressure because of anxiety
Q3) The amount of air given to a patient (in milliliters per breath)by way of a ventilator is known as the ________________.
Q4) An oxygen delivery device that allows the patient to breathe through the nose or mouth and is delivered at a flow rate from 1 to 6 L/min is known as a ____________.
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Performing Chest Physiotherapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is planning to perform CPT with postural drainage on a patient who is receiving continuous tube feedings.Before performing CPT,what should the nurse do? (Select all that apply.)
A) Stop tube feedings for 30 to 45 minutes before postural drainage
B) Check for residual feeding in the patient's stomach
C) Give bronchodilators immediately before the procedure
D) Withhold free water to increase the viscosity of mucus
Q2) An Acapella device requires that the patient:
A) Fill the lungs completely
B) Cough while the device is vibrating
C) Hold breath for 2 to 3 seconds
D) Adjust the device to a medium resistance setting
Q3) The system that lines the internal lumen of the tracheobronchial tree and consists of a thin layer of mucus that constantly is propelled toward the larynx by cilia is called the ________________.
Q4) ________________ is positioning the patient so that the position of the lung segment to be drained allows gravity to have its greatest effect.
Q5) The _______________ provides positive expiratory pressure (PEP)with oral airway oscillations.
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Chapter 25: Airway Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Upon completion of suctioning,what should the nurse do first?
A) Reduce the suction level
B) Save the face shield for future suctioning episodes
C) Reposition the patient, and complete personal care using sterile gloves
D) Pull the gloves off over the rolled catheter, and discard
Q2) A device made of rigid plastic that is used for oropharyngeal suctioning is known as a _________________.
Q3) An underinflated ET cuff is suspected with the presence of:
A) Tracheomalacia
B) Decreased phonation
C) Tracheoesophageal fistula
D) Aspiration of gastric contents
Q4) In the acute care environment,what is the wall suction pressure setting for infants?
A) 10 to 30 mm Hg
B) 40 to 60 mm Hg
C) 80 to 100 mm Hg
D) 100 to 150 mm Hg
Q5) A _______________ is inserted directly into the trachea through a small incision made in the patient's neck.
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Chapter 26: Closed Chest Drainage
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing to assist the physician in removal of a chest tube.What does the nurse do to prepare the patient? (Select all that apply.)
A) Assess the patient's need for pain medication
B) Instruct the patient about the process
C) Teach the patient to take a deep breath and hold it
D) Clamp the chest tubes
Q2) Which of the following is the correct positioning for a patient after a chest tube has been inserted for a hemothorax?
A) Supine
B) Side-lying
C) Semi-Fowler's
D) High-Fowler's
Q3) Chest tubes placed low (usually in the fifth or sixth intercostal space)and posterior or lateral are used to _________________.
Q4) A ____________ is a collapse of the lung caused by an accumulation of blood and fluid in the pleural cavity between the chest wall and the lung,usually as a result of trauma.
Q5) The interior chest wall is covered with a membrane,called the _______________.
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Chapter 27: Emergency Measures for Life Support
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34938
Sample Questions
Q1) When performing CPR on an adult patient who has an endotracheal tube in place,at what rate does the single rescuer administer breaths?
A) 8 per minute
B) 12 per minute
C) 20 per minute
D) 24 per minute
Q2) The nurse is preparing to insert an oral airway in a patient who is exhibiting signs of potential respiratory distress.The nurse knows that candidates for oral airway placement are those:
A) With oral trauma
B) With loose teeth
C) Who are unconscious
D) Who have had recent oral surgery
Q3) What should the nurse do immediately after the anesthesiologist has intubated the patient in a code event? (Select all that apply.)
A) Ventilate using a bag-mask device at a rate of 22 breaths per minute
B) Auscultate the epigastric area
C) Auscultate both lungs
D) Call for a chest radiograph
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Chapter 28: Intravenous and Vascular Access Therapy
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43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What should be the next action by the nurse,once the over-the-needle catheter (ONC)has been inserted through the skin and into the vein?
A) Loosen the stylet for removal
B) Check for blood return in the flashback chamber
C) Stabilize the catheter and release the tourniquet
D) Advance the catheter until the hub rests at the insertion site
Q2) What should the nurse do upon noting that the patient's IV site is pale,cool,and edematous? (Select all that apply.)
A) Stop the infusion
B) Elevate the extremity
C) Restart a new IV
D) Flush the IV site
Q3) Fluids that have the same osmolality as body fluids are used most often to replace extracellular volume and are known as _______________ fluids.
Q4) The nurse is caring for a patient who has a peripheral IV.While performing her routine assessment,she notes that the insertion site is pale,cool,and edematous.The patient indicates that the site is also painful to the touch.The nurse recognizes these symptoms as revealing a possible _______________.
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Chapter 29: Blood Transfusions
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34940
Sample Questions
Q1) The patient is to receive 2 units of packed RBCs.Before administering the blood,the nurse needs to: (Select all that apply.)
A) Insert an 18-gauge IV cannula
B) Have patient complete a consent form
C) Obtain pretransfusion vital signs
D) Notify physician for a temperature of 37º C
Q2) The patient has been tested and found to have blood type O.This means that which antigen is present on the surface of the red blood cells?
A) The type A antigen is present
B) The type B antigen is present
C) Neither type A nor type B antigens are present
D) Both type A and type B antigens are present
Q3) Transfusion therapy is the intravenous (IV)administration of which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Whole blood
B) Plasma products
C) Red blood cells (RBC)s
D) Platelets
E) None of above
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Page 31
Chapter 30: Oral Nutrition
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse's role includes performing ___________________to assess a patient's risk status for malnutrition,assessing and assisting an adult patient with feeding,and identifying patients at risk for aspiration during oral feeding.
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient who is 6 foot 2 inches tall and weighs 250 pounds.What is the patient's body mass index (BMI)?
A) 18.5 kg/m2
B) 30.2 kg/m2
C) 32.13 kg/m2
D) 40.11 kg/m2
Q3) The Nutrition Care Process (NCP)provides structure for the provision of nutritional care to all patients and provides a framework for the registered dietitian (RD)to make decisions regarding medical nutrition therapy.The steps involved in this process include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Nutrition assessment
B) Nutrition diagnosis
C) Nutrition intervention
D) Nutrition evaluation
E) None of above
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Chapter 31: Enteral Nutrition
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24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Before the insertion of a nasogastric (NG)tube,the physician should be notified of:
A) Patent nares
B) Absent bowel sounds
C) Evident gag reflex
D) Impaired swallowing
Q2) An appropriate technique for nasogastric (NG)tube insertion is for the nurse to:
A) Position the client supine
B) Apply oil-based lubricant to the plastic tube
C) Advance the tube while the client swallows
D) Measure the tube length from the nose to the sternum
Q3) Which technique is appropriate when providing intermittent tube feeding once the placement of the tube has been checked?
A) Cool the formula
B) Lower the head of the bed
C) Allow bag to empty gradually over 30 to 60 minutes
D) Add food coloring to detect aspiration
Q4) ______________,commonly called tube feeding,is the administration of nutrients through the gastrointestinal tract when a patient cannot ingest,chew,or swallow,but can digest and absorb nutrients.
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Chapter 32: Parenteral Nutrition
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22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) _________________ is a specialized form of nutritional support given to patients who need nutrients that are given intravenously.
Q2) PPN is difficult to maintain because of frequent episodes of phlebitis in superficial arm veins and infiltrations of solutions into subcutaneous tissue.Therefore the final dextrose concentration must be no greater than _____,because the peripheral vein will sclerose at higher concentrations.
Q3) The nurse notices that the patient weighs 4 pounds more this morning than yesterday.What is the most probable cause of this weight gain?
A) Increased nutrition from the patient's parenteral infusions
B) Decreased linoleic acid intake
C) Increased fluid loss
D) Fluid retention
Q4) For patients receiving PN,___________ provide supplemental kilocalories and prevent essential fatty acid deficiencies.
Q5) The essential fatty acid that cannot be made from other fats in human metabolism and therefore must be supplied is known as ______________.
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Chapter 33: Urinary Elimination
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37 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) During an assessment,what should the nurse expect the average daily urinary output for the adult patient to be?
A) 500 to 1000 mL
B) 750 to 1500 mL
C) 1000 to 2400 mL
D) 2000 to 3000 mL
Q2) A ______________ has a separate lumen used to inflate a balloon so the catheter remains in the bladder for short- or long-term use.
Q3) Which of the following techniques can be used to determine postvoid residual (PVR)? (Select all that apply.)
A) Bladder scanner
B) Indwelling catheterization
C) Straight/intermittent catheterization
D) Foley catheterization
Q4) What should a nurse try first when attempting to promote urination?
A) Running water nearby
B) Having the patient lie down
C) Restricting fluid intake to 1000 mL/day
D) Administering medication before bed to stimulate voiding
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Chapter 34: Bowel Elimination
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an appropriate procedure for the nurse to implement while administering an enema?
A) Keeping the solution at room temperature
B) Positioning the patient on the right side
C) Raising the enema bag to 12 inches above the patient
D) Instructing the patient to release the enema solution as soon as possible
Q2) The nurse is preparing to administer an enema to a patient.Of the following choices,choose the enema that is most likely to lead to circulatory overload.
A) Hypertonic solution enema
B) Soapsuds enema
C) Tap water enema
D) Harris Flush enema
Q3) _________________ is the patient's inability to control the passage of feces and gas.
Q4) Enemas that are used with pharmacological therapeutic agents such as polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate)or antibiotics such as neomycin are known as
Q5) An ___________ is the instillation of a solution into the rectum and sigmoid colon to promote defecation by stimulating peristalsis.
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Chapter 35: Ostomy Care
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23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Immediately after a fecal surgical diversion,it is necessary to:
A) Place a pouch over the newly created stoma
B) Place a dressing over the stoma
C) Wait several days before placing a pouch
D) Prepare several pouches in advance
Q2) What is an appropriate procedure for the nurse to implement when pouching a colostomy or ileostomy?
A) Leave an intact skin barrier in place for 3 to 7 days
B) Use soap and water to cleanse the peristomal skin
C) Empty the pouch when it is two-thirds full
D) Use tape to secure pouches that have minor leaks
Q3) The output from a urinary or fecal stoma is called the _______________.
Q4) The opening created into the abdominal wall for fecal or urinary elimination is known as a _______________.
Q5) The patient has an ostomy that is putting out watery effluent.What is the most likely location for the ostomy?
A) The descending colon
B) The sigmoid colon
C) The ileal portion of the small intestine
D) The transverse colon
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Chapter 36: Preoperativepostoperative Care
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40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Being overweight or obese increases the risk for many diseases and health conditions,including which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Hypertension
B) Coronary heart disease
C) Sleep apnea
D) Respiratory problems
E) None of above
Q2) The nurse is helping the patient prepare for surgery.The patient has removed her jewelry and glasses.What should the nurse do with these items?
A) Put these items in the patient's bedside stand
B) Inventory the items and give them to the family
C) Place the items in a plastic bag and send them to the OR with the patient
D) Keep these items with her until the patient returns
Q3) How should a patient who has received spinal anesthesia be positioned?
A) Prone
B) Lying on the side
C) Supine, with the head flat
D) In Trendelenburg's position
Q4) The first phase of postoperative care takes place during the ____________period.
Page 38
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Chapter 37: Intraoperative Care
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21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are sources of contamination in the operating room? (Select all that apply.)
A) A wristwatch
B) Chipped nail polish
C) Artificial fingernails
D) Abrasions on the hands
E) None of above
Q2) Who of the following can assume the role of the scrub nurse/assistant? (Select all that apply.)
A) An RN
B) An LPN
C) A CST
D) A licensed nursing assistant
Q3) The surgeon is about to finish surgery and requests a sponge count.Who would normally perform this task? (Select all that apply.)
A) Scrub nurse
B) Registered nurse first assistant
C) Circulating nurse
D) Certified registered nurse anesthetist
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Page 39
Chapter 38: Wound Care and Irrigations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Healing by ________ intention occurs when surgical wounds are not closed immediately but are left open for 3 to 5 days to allow edema or infection to diminish.
Q2) ___________ are threads of wire or other materials used to sew body tissues together.
Q3) What should the nurse do when removing intermittent sutures?
A) Snip both sides of the suture before removing
B) Snip the suture as close to the knot as possible
C) Snip the suture as close to the skin as possible
D) Pull up the knot to apply as much tension as possible
Q4) ___________ are stainless steel wires used to hold body tissues together.
Q5) The Jackson-Pratt (JP)drain relies on the presence of a vacuum to withdraw drainage and is considered a __________ drainage system.
Q6) When should a nurse consider culturing a wound?
A) When the tissue is clean and dry
B) When exudate is not present
C) When the patient is afebrile
D) When the surrounding area shows inflammation
Q7) Intact ________ is the body's first line of defense against invasion by infectious microorganisms.
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Chapter 39: Dressings,bandages,and Binders
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49 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Serious hemorrhaging has resulted in the patient experiencing a fluid and electrolyte imbalance.How should the nurse respond?
A) Initiate intravenous (IV) therapy
B) Order blood for transfusions
C) Remove and reapply any dressings
D) Monitor vital signs every 15 minutes
Q2) ______________ through a wound dressing is a reliable measure of the moisture retention capacity of the dressings.
Q3) A __________ dressing comes in direct contact with the wound bed.
Q4) The nurse is caring for a patient who had a negative-pressure wound dressing.The nurse realizes that the system is working properly when the vacuum setting is set at which of the following levels?
A) -40 mm Hg
B) -210 mm Hg
C) -125 mm Hg
D) -25 mm Hg
Q5) ______________ dressings (e.g.,Algisite M,Restore,Sorbisan)are highly absorbent and absorb serous fluid or exudate to form a hydrophilic gel that conforms to the shape of the wound.
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Chapter 40: Warm and Cold Therapy
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33 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What procedure should the nurse follow when applying hot therapy to a patient with muscle spasm in response to an acute injury?
A) Apply the source for 20 to 30 minute periods
B) Allow the patient to adjust the temperature for comfort
C) Encourage the patient to move the application
D) Position the patient so that he or she cannot move away from the temperature source
Q2) The patient is receiving cold therapy and complains to the nurse that the area being treated is numb.How should the nurse respond?
A) Continue application of the therapy
B) Stop cold therapy
C) Apply more ice to the ice pack
D) Check for moisture on the ice pack, indicating leakage
Q3) Of the following methods of warming patients undergoing major surgery,which has been shown to be the most beneficial?
A) Placing warm blankets on the patient
B) Infusing warmed intravenous (IV) fluids
C) Active external/surface rewarming
D) None of the above
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Page 42
Chapter 41: Home Care Safety
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27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are characteristic symptoms of Alzheimer's disease? (Select all that apply.)
A) Amnesia
B) Agnosia
C) Apraxia
D) Aphasia
E) None of above
Q2) Common causes of falls in older patients include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Gait disturbances
B) Muscle weakness
C) Visual impairments
D) Environmental hazards
E) None of above
Q3) ______________ disease accounts for 50% of all dementia diagnoses.
Q4) ________________ is a chronic generalized impairment of intellectual functioning that leads to a decline in the ability to perform basic and instrumental ADLs.
Q5) ___________ is a generalized impairment of intellectual functioning,with the most common form being Alzheimer's disease.
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Chapter 42: Home Care Teaching
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an appropriate step when teaching temperature monitoring in the home?
A) Suggest aspirin to decrease fevers
B) Recommend using only tympanic membrane sensors
C) Encourage the use of alcohol rubs to reduce fevers
D) Demonstrate the technique on yourself or a family member rather than on the patient
Q2) Which of the following is essential in teaching the patient how to use a thermometer?
A) How to read a digital thermometer
B) How to shake down the thermometer before use
C) How to use the axillary thermometer
D) How to select the most appropriate thermometer
Q3) In teaching older adult patients how to exercise safely,the nurse realizes that cardiac output is lower in older adults,and that the heart of the older adult cannot adapt as well to sudden demands for increased oxygen.Therefore,the nurse uses the following calculation to determine a safe maximum heart rate during exercise in the older adult population: _______________.
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Chapter 43: Specimen Collection
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Sample Questions
Q1) When teaching a patient about home testing for occult blood,the nurse instructs the patient that:
A) Positive results are indicative of bleeding
B) Poultry and fish should be eaten before testing
C) Testing should be done carefully during the menstrual cycle
D) Two samples should be obtained from the same part of the stool specimen
Q2) _________________ is the release of chemical substances manufactured by cells of glandular organs.
Q3) An appropriate technique for the nurse to implement when preparing for a venipuncture is to:
A) Tie the tourniquet in a knot
B) Leave the tourniquet on no longer than 1 minute
C) Place the tourniquet 6 to 8 inches above the selected site
D) Make the tourniquet tight enough to occlude the distal pulse
Q4) How should the nurse identify the patient before obtaining a laboratory specimen from Mr.Smith?
A) Using at least two patient identifiers
B) Looking at the chart before entering the room
C) Asking the patient if he is Mr. Smith
D) Checking the patient's arm band twice
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Chapter 44: Diagnostic Procedures
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36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who has just undergone a bronchoscopy and has been in recovery for the last 15 minutes.The nurse should be especially watchful for which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Return of the gag reflex.
B) Laryngospasm.
C) Respiratory status.
D) Facial or neck crepitus.
Q2) A graphic representation of the heart's electrical activity or conduction system is known as an ______________.
Q3) The patient is a 56-year-old man who has terminal cirrhosis and severe ascites.He is lethargic,but demonstrating signs of discomfort and respiratory distress.The physician has spoken with the patient's wife and has obtained consent to perform an abdominal paracentesis on the patient.After the physician has left to prepare for the procedure,the wife asks the nurse if the procedure is really necessary.How should the nurse respond?
A) By saying this is the first step in the patient's recovery
B) By saying this may help the patient feel better
C) By saying this is needed to detect increased intracranial pressure
D) By saying this is needed to analyze pleural fluid
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