Foundations of Clinical Dentistry Final Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Foundations of Clinical Dentistry introduces students to the essential principles and practices that underpin clinical dental care. The course covers fundamental topics such as oral anatomy, infection control, patient assessment, dental materials, and basic clinical procedures. Emphasis is placed on developing professional behavior, understanding ethical responsibilities, and fostering effective communication skills with patients and colleagues. Through a combination of lectures, preclinical exercises, and simulated patient scenarios, students acquire the foundational knowledge and practical skills necessary for safe and competent participation in clinical settings.
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Illustrated Dental Embryology Histology and Anatomy 4th Edition by Margaret J. Fehrenbach
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Chapter 1: Face and Neck Regions
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Q1) The _____ region of the face is composed of the soft tissue of the cheek.
A) infraorbital
B) orbital
C) temporal
D) buccal
Answer: D
Q2) The lips are outlined from the surrounding skin by a transition area called the:
A) philtrum.
B) mucogingival junction.
C) mucocutaneous junction.
D) mandibular symphysis.
Answer: C
Q3) One of the muscles forming the cheek is the strong _____ muscle,which is felt when a patient clenches the teeth together.
A) lateral pterygoid
B) masseter
C) medial pterygoid
D) temporalis
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Oral Cavity and Pharynx
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Q1) Which of the following oral landmarks separates the base from the body of the tongue?
A) Sublingual fold
B) Lingual tonsil
C) Plica fimbriatae
D) Sulcus terminalis
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following oral landmarks may be noted on the soft palate?
A) Incisive papilla
B) Palatine rugae
C) Median palatine raphe
D) Uvula
Answer: D
Q3) Each body of the maxilla is superior to the teeth and contains the _____ sinuses.
A) sphenoidal
B) ethmoidal
C) frontal
D) maxillary
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Prenatal Development
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Q1) Which of the following can occur that mainly involves the abnormal development of one or more structures from ectoderm within the embryonic period?
A) Treacher Collins syndrome
B) Ectodermal dysplasia
C) Congenital syphilis
D) Fetal alcohol syndrome
Answer: B
Q2) The neural crest cells migrate from which embryonic structures during prenatal development?
A) Stomodeum
B) First branchial arch
C) Neural folds
D) Frontonasal process
Answer: C
Q3) During which week of prenatal development does the neural plate differentiate?
A) Second week
B) Third week
C) Fourth week
D) Fifth week
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Face and Neck Development
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Q1) The philtrum of the upper lip forms during sixth week of prenatal development from the:
A) mandibular processes.
B) medial nasal processes.
C) lateral nasal processes.
D) nasal placodes.
Q2) What is the first event in the development of the face during the later part of the fourth week of prenatal development?
A) Disintegration of the oropharyngeal membrane
B) Paired mandibular processes fusion at the midline to form the mandibular arch
C) Folding of the embryonic structure into a tubal one
D) Thickening of the facial placodes
Q3) The frontonasal process is a swelling that appears over the developing brain in the embryo during prenatal development and forms the future:
A) forehead.
B) otic placodes.
C) mandibular arch.
D) neck area.
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Chapter 5: Orofacial Development
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Q1) Which paired processes fuse to form the intermaxillary segment internally within the embryo during prenatal development?
A) Lateral nasal processes
B) Medial nasal processes
C) Palatal shelves
D) Mandibular processes
Q2) Which of the following structures is initially formed during the fifth week of prenatal development?
A) Neural tube
B) Palatal processes
C) Mandibular arch
D) Intermaxillary segment
Q3) Which of the following statements concerning tongue development is correct?
A) Tongue development begins as a triangular median swelling, the tuberculum impar.
B) The copula is formed from the fusion of mesenchyme of mainly the second parts of the fourth branchial arches.
C) The foramen cecum is the beginning of the thymus.
D) The tongue develops during the eighth week of prenatal development.
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Chapter 6: Tooth Development and Eruption
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Q1) Which of the following statements is correct when considering odontogenesis?
A) Has a clear-cut beginning and end point to the process
B) Does not include the maturation of the dental tissues
C) Parallels the formation of the face
D) Does not have any identifiable stages
Q2) Where does the initial teeth for both dentitions develop?
A) Anterior maxillary region
B) Anterior mandibular region
C) Posterior maxillary region
D) Posterior mandibular region
Q3) Enamel hypocalcification is a type of enamel dysplasia that involves:
A) an increased number of ameloblasts.
B) a reduction in the quantity of enamel matrix.
C) grooves and pitting on the enamel surface.
D) interference in the metabolic processes of ameloblasts.
Q4) Nonsuccedaneous permanent teeth develop from buds that grow off an extension of:
A) each successional dental lamina.
B) both paired palatal shelves.
C) the posterior part of the intermaxillary segment.
D) each primary second molar's dental lamina.
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Chapter 7: Cells
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Q1) When does the nuclear membrane reappear during mitosis?
A) Metaphase
B) Prophase
C) Anaphase
D) Telophase
Q2) During the cell cycle,interphase involves the cells engaging in:
A) organelle replacement.
B) substance destruction.
C) chromatin removal.
D) centrosome reduction.
Q3) Which of the following organelles are produced by the Golgi complex and function as well in both intracellular and extracellular digestion by the cell?
A) Lysosomes
B) Ribosomes
C) Endoplasmic reticulum
D) Nucleus
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Chapter 8: Basic Tissue
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Q1) Which of the following tissue types provides nutrition for the underlying compact bone?
A) Cartilage
B) Periosteum
C) Compact bone
D) Cancellous bone
Q2) Where in the adult body does reticular connective tissue still predominate?
A) Soft palate
B) Tendons and bone
C) Lymph nodes
D) Dermis
Q3) Similar to connective tissue,most muscles are derived during prenatal development from:
A) ectoderm.
B) endoderm.
C) neural crest cells.
D) somites of mesoderm.
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Chapter 9: Oral Mucosa
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Q1) Which of the following layers of nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium produces the basal lamina of the basement membrane within the oral mucosa?
A) Basal layer
B) Intermediate layer
C) Superficial layer
D) Prickle layer
Q2) The mucogingival junction is absent from which of the following oral surfaces?
A) Buccal surface of the maxillary arch
B) Palatal surface of the maxillary arch
C) Facial surface of the mandibular arch
D) Lingual surface of the mandibular arch
Q3) The basal layer of oral mucosa in the oral cavity generally has:
A) columnar-shaped cells.
B) two cell layers.
C) cells undergoing mitosis.
D) keratin being produced.
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Chapter 10: Gingival and Dentogingival Junctional Tissue
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Q1) In what direction is the migratory route of the cells as turnover takes place in the junctional epithelium?
A) Coronal direction
B) Apical direction
C) Parallel to the apical crest of bone
D) Perpendicular to the tooth surface
Q2) Which of the following statements concerning gingival crevicular fluid within a healthy gingival sulcus is correct?
A) Flow rate is fast
B) Contains white blood cells
C) Contains watery salivary components
D) Contains secretory IgA
Q3) The interdental gingiva assumes a nonvisible concave form between the facial and lingual gingival surfaces called the:
A) col.
B) papilla.
C) free gingival crest.
D) gingival apex of the contour.
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Chapter 11: Head and Neck Structures
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Q1) Where is the lingual tonsil located in the oral cavity?
A) Dorsal tongue surface
B) Lateral tongue surface
C) Walls of the nasopharynx
D) Between the faucial pillars
Q2) What is the depression on the side of a lymph node termed?
A) Afferent vessel
B) Hilus
C) Efferent vessel
D) Lymphatic nodule
Q3) Which of the following can never be palpated during an extraoral examination of a patient?
A) Thyroid gland
B) Lymph nodes
C) Parathyroid glands
D) Parotid gland
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Chapter 12: Enamel
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Q1) Which of the following is a pronounced incremental line in enamel?
A) Neonatal line
B) Tomes granular layer
C) Imbrication line of von Ebner
D) Enamel lamella
Q2) Which of the following can occur with an excessive amount of systemic fluoride during tooth development?
A) Enamel caries
B) Enamel dysplasia
C) Enamel erosion
D) Enamel abfraction
Q3) Which of the following occurs with the deposition of minerals into mature enamel?
A) Demineralization
B) Erosion
C) Remineralization
D) Abfraction
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Chapter 13: Dentin and Pulp
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Q1) What are the smaller extensions of coronal pulp into the cusps of posterior teeth termed?
A) Accessory canals
B) Lateral canals
C) Pulp horns
D) Pulp canals
Q2) During tooth development,both the pulp and dentin in the mature tooth are products of the:
A) dental papilla.
B) enamel organ.
C) dental sac.
D) epithelium.
Q3) Predentin is the initial material laid down by the:
A) odontoblasts.
B) ameloblasts.
C) preameloblasts.
D) odontoclasts.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Periodontium: Cementum, Alveolar Process, and Periodontal Ligament
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Q1) The most common cell in the periodontal ligament is the:
A) cementoblast.
B) fibroblast.
C) odontoclast.
D) osteoclast.
Q2) When many of the cementoblasts become entrapped by the cementum they produce,they become:
A) odontoclasts.
B) odontoblasts.
C) cementocytes.
D) dental sac cells.
Q3) The alveolar bone proper of the jaws in a mature adult refers to the:
A) cancellous bone between the alveoli.
B) layer of compact bone lining the alveolus.
C) part of the jaw that houses the teeth.
D) bone surrounding the lamina dura.
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Chapter 15: Overview of Dentitions
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Q1) Which of the following usually signals the end of the mixed dentition period?
A) Eruption of first primary tooth
B) Eruption of first permanent tooth
C) Shedding of first primary tooth
D) Shedding of last primary tooth
Q2) When two teeth in the same arch come into contact,the curvatures next to the contact areas form spaces considered:
A) line angles.
B) point angles.
C) height of contours.
D) embrasures.
Q3) An older dental term for primary teeth is the _____ dentition.
A) succedaneous
B) second
C) deciduous
D) mixed
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Chapter 16: Permanent Anterior Teeth
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Q1) The number of cusps present on the masticatory surface of a permanent canine is:
A) one.
B) two.
C) three.
D) four.
Q2) Which of the following is a factor that makes the permanent canines stable teeth within the dentition?
A) Rough crown form
B) Short root overall
C) Lingual root concavities
D) Guideposts during lateral deviation
Q3) One of the functions of the permanent canines is:
A) biting.
B) grinding.
C) tearing.
D) cutting.
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Chapter 17: Permanent Posterior Teeth
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Q1) What is the developmental disturbance that causes a peg molar?
A) Serious infection
B) Microdontia
C) Impaction
D) Supernumerary involvement
Q2) The mesial marginal ridge of the permanent mandibular second premolar is ____ degrees to the long axis of the tooth.
A) 25
B) 45
C) 60
D) 90
Q3) The permanent dentition has only ____ types of molars; the primary dentition only has two types.
A) one
B) two
C) three
D) four
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Chapter 18: Primary Dentition
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Q1) Which of the following features is noted concerning the hard dental tissue of a primary molar as compared to that of a permanent molar?
A) Thinner dentin between pulp chambers and enamel
B) Overall thinner enamel throughout the crown
C) Overall thicker dentin throughout the crown and root
D) Inconsistent enamel thickness throughout the crown
Q2) Which of the following features can always be noted on the primary maxillary central incisors?
A) Three mamelons on labial surface
B) Developmental depressions and imbrication lines
C) Lingual pits with deeper lingual fossa
D) Proximal surfaces are similar
Q3) What is the correct name given to the teeth designated as "C" and "H"?
A) Primary maxillary central incisors
B) Primary maxillary lateral incisors
C) Primary maxillary canines
D) Primary maxillary first molars
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Chapter 19: Temporomandibular Joint
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Q1) Which of the following is a depression on the inferior aspect of the temporal bone that is part of the temporomandibular joint?
A) Postglenoid process
B) Articular eminence
C) Articular fossa
D) Articulating surface
Q2) Which of the following is the inner layer of the joint capsule,which consists of a thin connective tissue that contains nerves and blood vessels?
A) Periosteum
B) Articulating surface
C) Synovial membrane
D) Joint disc
Q3) Which of the following is a thick substance that fills the temporomandibular joint,lubricates it,and provides nutrition to parts of the joint disc?
A) Immunoglobulins
B) Plasma
C) Blood
D) Synovial fluid
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Chapter 20: Occlusion
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Q1) Which of the following statements is considered correct when discussing overbite?
A) Equally distributed among women and men
B) Noted more often in women than men
C) Associated with particular craniofacial patterns
D) Increases with age due to incisal wear
Q2) When does phase one of arch development occur for the permanent dentition?
A) Permanent first molars erupt
B) Permanent anterior teeth erupt
C) Permanent premolars erupt
D) Permanent canines erupt
Q3) Which of the following is (are) not considered part of the three areas of centric contacts or centric stops?
A) Height of contour
B) Marginal ridges
C) Central fossae
D) Occlusal pits
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