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Course Introduction
This course explores the fundamental principles and theories underlying the physical, cognitive, emotional, and social development of children and adolescents. Students will examine key developmental milestones from infancy through adolescence, considering the impact of genetics, environment, and culture. The course also introduces major theoretical frameworks, such as those of Piaget, Erikson, and Vygotsky, and encourages analysis of real-world case studies to deepen understanding of developmental processes. By the end of the course, students will be able to apply foundational concepts to educational, clinical, and social contexts, fostering informed perspectives on supporting the growth and well-being of children and adolescents.
Recommended Textbook
Developmental Psychology Childhood and Adolescence 4th Edition by Shaffer
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the term for a set of concepts and propositions designed to organize,describe,and explain an existing set of observations?
A) a hypothesis
B) a theory
C) an observation
D) an experiment
Answer: B
Q2) Explain how cross-cultural studies are carried out and identify why these studies are important in fully understanding human development.To illustrate your points,refer to the historical and cultural changes in our conceptions of childhood and adolescence discussed in the text.
Answer: Answers will vary.
Q3) List four general observations concerning the character of human development. Answer: Answers will vary.
Q4) What method of studying children did G.Stanley Hall and Sigmund Freud use?
Answer: Answers will vary.
Q5) How have our changing conceptions of childhood influenced Canadian policy and the development of children's rights?
Answer: Answers will vary.
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is one key difference between Vygotsky's sociocultural perspective and Piaget's view of cognitive development?
A) From Vygotsky's perspective, cognitive development is less stage-like.
B) From Vygotsky's perspective, cognitive development is more stage-like.
C) From Vygotsky's perspective, the child plays a more active role in his or her own cognitive development.
D) From Vygotsky's perspective, the child plays a more central role in his or her own cognitive development.
Answer: A
Q2) Carmen was ridiculed by her friends when she wore a sweater to school that she had made herself.Now she no longer wears that sweater.According to Skinner,what process is represented by the ridicule?
A) reinforcement
B) conditioned stimulation
C) punishment
D) internal drive
Answer: C
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antonio has a sex chromosome abnormality.He is taller than most of his friends and his body proportions are slightly feminized.He scored within the normal range on a recent intelligence test,although his score for the verbal scale was lower than average.Based on this description,which syndrome does Antonio have?
A) Turner's
B) fragile-X
C) Klinefelter's
D) Supermale
Answer: C
Q2) What did both Waddington and Gottesman emphasize as being important to the interaction of heredity and environment in development?
A) Heredity sets limits on the extent environment can influence outcomes.
B) The influence of environmental factors decreases over time.
C) An individual's intelligence and personality are determined during infancy and the preschool years.
D) The influence of genes is most important in early childhood.
Answer: A
Q3) Summarize the range-of-reaction principle using appropriate examples. Answer: Answers will vary.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Beth has just had an ultrasound and is devastated to learn that although the placental membranes have grown,the embryonic disk has not.Given what you know about the survival rate of zygotes,should Beth be surprised?
A) yes, because the survival rate is about 80 percent
B) yes, because the survival rate is about 50 percent
C) no, because the survival rate is about 25 percent
D) no, because the survival rate is about 10 percent
Q2) Of the following,which part of the body is susceptible to teratogenic effects throughout all three trimesters of pregnancy?
A) the lower extremities
B) the central nervous system
C) the heart and the circulatory system
D) the genitals
Q3) Which disease can be contracted from cat feces?
A) rubella
B) toxoplasmosis
C) herpes
D) toxic plasmosis
Q4) Briefly describe the effects of a mother's age on prenatal development.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Shannon and David are expecting their first child.David is in the military and has been stationed overseas.He is not sure that he can be there for the birth,and so his sister Lesley has volunteered to take his place if he cannot take leave.Based on research findings,what will be the impact of Lesley's presence?
A) Because Lesley is a close family member, and Shannon's trusted companion, her presence at the birth might be beneficial, but it is not essential.
B) Although Lesley is a close family member, without David present at the birth, the baby may have difficulty bonding to Shannon.
C) Although Lesley is a close family member, David's presence at the birth is essential if he and Shannon are to have a healthy relationship, and crucial to the baby's feelings of love and security.
D) David's and Lesley's presence or absence is irrelevant to the development of attachments to David as the father.
Q2) Summarize techniques in soothing a fussy baby,assuming that you do not know the baby very well.
Q3) Outline the developmental changes that occur in an infant's sleep patterns during the first six months.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the sex differences in skeletal ossification that are present at birth,and compare these to sex differences that are present at age 12.
Q2) With a few exceptions,all neurons are formed early in development.When does this milestone occur?
A) at the beginning of the embryonic period
B) at the end of the second trimester of pregnancy
C) at 4 years of age
D) at 6 years of age
Q3) Anne is investigating the timing of the onset of puberty in a large sample of adolescents.In her sample,she finds the correlation for identical twin pairs is almost twice that of fraternal twin pairs,which in turn,is almost twice that of singleton siblings.Based on this information,what can you conclude regarding the potential cause of pubertal timing?
A) Heredity plays a strong role in physical maturation.
B) Environmental factors play a strong role in physical maturation.
C) Genetic regulation of hormones is the trigger for physical maturation.
D) Environmental factors.
Q4) Explain what is meant by the cephalocaudal trend in physical development and provide an example that illustrates this trend.
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Q1) Terri has been abused constantly by her stepsisters,and she runs away from home to escape the abuse.Terri's running away exemplifies which principle of operant conditioning?
A) positive reinforcement
B) positive punishment
C) negative punishment
D) negative reinforcement
Q2) Of the following stimuli,which would be most likely to attract a neonate's visual attention?
A) a random display of red, white, and yellow disks
B) a simple pattern
C) a human face
D) a bull's-eye pattern
Q3) Identify one common ear infection among infants and preschool children,and discuss the long-term consequences of recurring ear infections for cognitive development.
Q4) Identify three potentially harmful side effects of using physical punishment to control behaviour.
Q5) Outline the basics of enrichment theory and differentiation theory.
Q6) Describe the auditory capabilities of the full-term newborn infant.
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Q1) When Amber's father picked her up from her preschool class on Wednesday,he was surprised to find that she had learned eight new words that day.According to Vygotsky,what type of development does Amber's increased vocabulary represent?
A) ontogenetic
B) sociohistorical
C) phylogenetic
D) microgenetic
Q2) Trace the development of object permanence as originally proposed by Piaget.
Q3) According to Piaget,which period of development occurs from the age of 7 through to age 11?
A) sensorimotor
B) concrete operational
C) preoperational
D) formal operational
Q4) How did Robbie Case view Piaget's concept of assimilation?
A) as dependent on scaffolding
B) as dependent on a zone of proximal development
C) as imitation and memory
D) as consolidation and automatization
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Q1) Which statement best summarizes the results of Goswami's study of preschoolers and analogical reasoning?
A) Transitive mappings cannot be understood until the age of 5 years.
B) Familiarity with the material helped the preschoolers to reason with transitive mappings.
C) Preschoolers look to parents for transitive hints.
D) Transitive mappings are confused with strategic memory.
Q2) Explain what information-processing theorists mean when they refer to the mind's hardware and software.
Q3) Discuss how culture influences the memory strategies we learn and employ.Does the evidence support Vygotsky's sociocultural theory?
Q4) Which memory strategy involves grouping or classifying stimuli into meaningful clusters?
A) rehearsal
B) semantic organization
C) cued encoding
D) elaboration
Q5) Describe,and provide an example of,production deficiencies and utilization deficiencies.
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Q1) How did Cattell and Horn elaborate on Spearman's and Thurstone's conceptualizations of intelligence?
A) by subdividing intelligence into fluid and crystallized intelligence
B) by identifying a total of 180 intelligence factors through factor analysis
C) by proposing a triarchic theory of intelligence
D) by subdividing intelligence into verbal and nonverbal components
Q2) What are the three components of Robert Sterberg's conceptualization of intelligence?
A) verbal fluency, numerical ability, and memory
B) information processing, an experiential component, and practical intelligence
C) crystallized intelligence, fluid intelligence, and transient intelligence
D) artistic intelligence, performance intelligence, and rational intelligence
Q3) Identify three attributes that can be measured in the first four to eight months of infancy,and which show a moderate correlation with later IQ scores.
Q4) List the seven kinds of intelligence Gardener proposed in his theory of multiple intelligences and identify vocations in which each type of intelligence would be a valuable asset.
Q5) Discuss the research evidence that relates to the long-term impact of early compensatory intervention programs.
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Q1) Which type of sentences are parents most likely to respond to and reinforce when a child is first learning to speak?
A) those that are grammatically correct, even if those same sentences are factually incorrect
B) those that are both grammatically and factually correct
C) those that are factually correct, even if those same sentences are grammatically incorrect
D) those that are pronounced clearly and accurately
Q2) Caretakers will often respond to their infant's vocalizations and smiles with similar behaviours.What is the function of such interchanges?
A) They are playful responses that have no other function than to strengthen the caretaker-infant bond.
B) They are informal "lessons" on conversational turn-taking .
C) They are playful interchanges that serve no other function than to reinforce vocalization.
D) They are entertaining, incidental interactions that play no particular role in language development.
Q3) Explain what holophrases are,and how children use them in early communication.
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Q1) If the behaviour of a child's primary attachment figure changes substantially,how will this affect the attachment relationship with?
A) Once a secure or insecure attachment is formed, it does not change.
B) Only secure attachments will change.
C) Only insecure attachments will change.
D) Both secure and insecure attachments can change.
Q2) Explain what emotional display rules are,and identify two skills children must acquire in order to comply with emotional display rules.
Q3) Which of the following best describes an infant who has developed an attachment for a specific adult?
A) He or she cries more in the presence of that specific adult.
B) He or she smiles more at strangers.
C) He or she maintains proximity with that specific adult.
D) He or she becomes apathetic when not in the proximity of that specific adult.
Q4) Briefly outline the ethological theory of attachment formation.
Q5) Identify and describe two fears that are related to the formation of a primary attachment relationship.
Q6) How does an infant's temperament contribute to the attachment relationship?
Q7) Explain variations in attachment patterns across different cultures.
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Q1) How does one's culture affect the development of a self-concept? Describe the results of research that has addressed the differences in the development of self-recognition and self-concept in individualistic and collectivist societies.
Q2) Which identity status is associated with the highest self-esteem?
A) achievement
B) moratorium
C) foreclosure
D) diffusion
Q3) Despite the fact that Vincenzo is not very good at the logical reasoning required in his philosophy class,he looks forward to each lecture because he is interested in the topic.He views this course as a way to improve his skills.Given this scenario,which type of achievement orientation does Vincenzo have?
A) learned strategic
B) learned helplessness
C) mastery
D) relational
Q4) List and describe four factors that could potentially influence an adolescent's progress toward achieving a stable identity.
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Q1) According to Sandra Bem,which of the following best characterizes the pattern of behaviours of an androgynous individual?
A) He or she exhibits primarily feminine behaviours.
B) He or she exhibits primarily masculine behaviours.
C) He or she exhibits a blend of both masculine and feminine behaviours.
D) He or she exhibits behaviours that are neither particularly masculine or feminine.
Q2) A group of male and female children are asked the following question: "How many capital letters of the alphabet have a flat straight line?" Based upon average sex differences in performance,what would be the sex of the highest-scoring student?
A) female, because of superior visual imagery skills
B) female, because of superior computational skills
C) male, because of superior visual imagery skills
D) male, because of superior language skills
Q3) Discuss how the four central developmental themes of the textbook relate to the issues of sex and gender,sexuality,and the differences between males and females.
Q4) Identify two potential consequences of sexual activity among adolescents.
Q5) Describe the qualities associated with expressive and instrumental traits.
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Q1) Using a single example,differentiate between sympathetic empathic arousal and self-oriented distress.
Q2) At what age do children typically begin to show evidence of proactive aggression?
A) 6 months
B) 12 months
C) 2 years
D) 4 years
Q3) List and describe three key principles derived from Kohlberg's theory,and provide specific research data in support of each principle that you describe.
Q4) Outline how the nature and frequency of aggression changes during the preschool and early elementary-school years.
Q5) According to the research of Marlene Caplan and her associates,aggressive resolutions to disputes in 1-year-olds are most likely to occur under what circumstances?
A) The play groups are dominated by girls.
B) There is no adult supervision of the children.
C) They are required to share toys with older children.
D) The play groups are dominated by boys.
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Q1) According to current research findings,what characterizes the risk of abuse toward their own children in individuals who were themselves abused or neglected as children?
A) It is extremely low because victims typically parent in an opposite fashion to how they were treated as children.
B) It is high, yet unpredictable, due to the effects of situational variables.
C) It is extremely high, because of the overriding effects of observational learning of abusive behaviour.
D) It is low, as long as the family does not live in a high-risk neighbourhood.
Q2) Which of the following best describes the authoritative pattern of parenting?
A) It is warm and children are free to express themselves as they see fit.
B) It is fair but reserved and children know the rules and the consequences for breaking the rules.
C) It is reserved and aloof and few demands are placed on the children.
D) It is warm and children are allowed considerable freedom within firmly established guidelines.
Q3) Discuss the general differences in child rearing related to social class that research studies have identified,including two possible reasons for these differences.
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Q1) Imagine that you interview a group of parents and ask them to list their top five serious concerns regarding heavy use of "video gaming" by children.If their responses are consistent with the information presented in the text,what will the majority of the respondents list as their most serious concern?
A) Gaming encourages an unhealthy lifestyle because it takes time away from physical activities.
B) Gaming exposes children to violent or pornographic content, and perpetuates social stereotypes.
C) Gaming dramatically reduces the time a child interacts with family members.
D) Gaming interferes with a child's scholastic achievement because it takes time away from homework.
Q2) The friendship-bullying training known as "coaching" resembles which cognitive principle?
A) formal reasoning
B) theory of mind
C) private speech
D) scaffolding
Q3) List and describe five strategies that parents can use to regulate their children's exposure to television.
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