Foundations of Biomedical Science Practice Exam
Course Introduction
Foundations of Biomedical Science introduces students to the essential principles underlying the biomedical sciences, covering the molecular, cellular, and physiological mechanisms that govern human health and disease. The course explores the structure and function of biomolecules, cells, and organ systems, as well as concepts in genetics, biochemistry, microbiology, and immunology. Emphasis is placed on understanding the scientific methods and experimental approaches used in biomedical research, while also considering ethical and societal implications. This foundational knowledge equips students for advanced study in biomedical fields and helps them appreciate the scientific basis of medical practices.
Recommended Textbook Principles of Medical Biochemistry 3rd Edition by Gerhard Meisenberg
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Biomolecules
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Q1) Linkages are important in structural polysaccharides because:
A)They are easily hydrolyzed by glycosidase enzymes.
B)They allow the chains to form compact coils.
C)They cause the chains to exist in an extended form, thus allowing them to form fibers.
D)They cause the chains to absorb more water.
E)They can be formed by any hydroxy group in the monomer, whereas a linkages can be formed only by C-1.
Answer: C
Q2) Unlike covalent bonds, all noncovalent interactions are:
A)Formed in irreversible reactions.
B)Constantly forming and breaking on the molecular time scale.
C)Susceptible to cleavage by strong acids and bases.
D)Classified as energy-rich, because they are cleaved easily.
E)Independent of the solvent that surrounds the bond-forming groups.
Answer: B
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3
Chapter 2: Introduction to Protein Structure
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Q1) Which amino acid residues are used as attachment sites for covalently bound oligosaccharides in glycoproteins?
A)Asparagine and serine.
B)Tryptophan and glutamic acid.
C)Alanine and lysine.
D)Arginine and proline.
E)Leucine and histidine.
Answer: A
Q2) An amino acid whose side chain is most likely to be found in the center of a tightly packed, water-soluble globular protein such as myoglobin is:
A)Serine.
B)Glutamine.
C)Aspartate.
D)Leucine.
E)Arginine.
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Oxygen Transporters: Hemoglobin and Myoglobin
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Q1) Most of the carbon dioxide that is formed during oxidative metabolism is transported in the blood:
A)Covalently bound to the C-terminal amino acids of the hemoglobin chains.
B)Covalently bound to the N-terminal amino acids of the hemoglobin chains.
C)In the form of inorganic bicarbonate ion (HCO -).
D)In the form of carbonic acid (H CO ).
E)And physically dissolves as CO in the blood.
Answer: C
Q2) The effect of high 2,3-BPG in red blood cells is:
A)To maintain the reducing environment and prevent methemoglobin formation.
B)To facilitate tetramer formation from and subunit monomers.
C)To increase the P50 of hemoglobin.
D)To convert the oxygen saturation curve of hemoglobin from sigmoid to hyperbolic.
E)To increase the rate of conversion of the T to the R form.
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Enzymatic Reactions
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Q1) The rate of a typical enzyme-catalyzed reaction:
A)Is independent of pH over a broad range of pH values.
B)Is approximately proportional to the substrate concentration as long as the substrate concentration is much lower than the Michaelis constant (Km).
C)Rises by a factor of about 4 when the temperature is raised by 10° C.
D)Is no longer affected by the enzyme concentration at saturating substrate concentrations.
E)Is virtually independent of the temperature, as long as heat denaturation is avoided.
Q2) Tadalafil (Cialis) is a competitive inhibitor of phosphodiesterase type 5.As a competitive inhibitor, you can expect tadalafil to:
A)Covalently modify the enzyme.
B)Bind to allosteric sites on the enzyme.
C)Lower the Vmax of the reaction.
D)Increase the Km of the enzyme for the substrate.
E)Reduce the free energy of activation for the reaction.
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Chapter 5: Coenzymes
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Q1) Coenzyme A has a very specific function in metabolic pathways.Its task is:
A)Transfer of hydrogen.
B)Transfer of electrons.
C)Attachment of carboxyl groups.
D)Activation of monosaccharides for the synthesis of complex carbohydrates.
E)Activation of organic acids.
Q2) The cleavage of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) to adenosine monophosphate (AMP) + pyrophosphate is said to supply more energy than the cleavage of ATP to ADP + phosphate.Why?
A)ATP ADP + phosphate cleaves a phosphoanhydride bond, and ATP AMP + pyrophosphate cleaves a phosphodiester bond.
B)The cleavage to AMP and pyrophosphate is followed by the degradation of AMP by adenosine deaminase.
C)The cleavage to AMP and pyrophosphate is followed by the degradation of pyrophosphate.
D)ATP ADP + phosphate cleaves a phosphoanhydride bond, and ATP AMP + pyrophosphate cleaves a phosphate ester bond.
E)ATP ADP + phosphate cleaves a phosphate ester bond, and ATP AMP + pyrophosphate cleaves a phosphoanhydride bond.
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Chapter 6: DNA, RNA, and Protein Synthesis
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Q1) Mutations are hazardous to the health of E.coli (and Homo sapiens as well).To reduce this health hazard, E.coli employs:
A)The 3' --> 5' endonuclease activity of DNA polymerase I.
B)The 5' --> 3' exonuclease activity of DNA polymerase III.
C)The 3' --> 5' exonuclease activity of DNA polymerase III.
D)The 3'--> 5' exonuclease activity of DNA polymerase II.
E)The 5' --> 3' endonuclease activity of DNA polymerase I.
Q2) In a particular bacterial operon, there are two genes that are transcribed into one mRNA transcript.In order, how many promoter regions, how many ribosomal binding sites, how many AUG initiation codons, and how many stop codons do you expect to find in the operon or its mRNA?
A)2, 2, 2, 2.
B)2, 1, 1, 1.
C)2, 2, 2, 1.
D)1, 1, 1, 1.
E)1, 2, 2, 2.
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Chapter 7: The Human Genome
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Q1) The closest equivalent to bacterial DNA polymerase III in eukaryotes is:
A)DNA polymerase .
B)DNA polymerase .
C)DNA polymerase .
D)DNA polymerase .
E)DNA polymerase .
Q2) Cycloheximide inhibits the peptidyl transferase reaction in eukaryotes.It does so by binding to:
A)The 50S ribosomal subunit.
B)Elongation factor Tu.
C)The 60S ribosomal subunit.
D)The 30S ribosomal subunit.
E)Elongation factor eEF-2.
Q3) Eukaryotes and prokaryotes share which of the following characteristics during transcription?
A)A subunit that binds to the promoter.
B)A template that is read in the 3'-to-5' direction.
C)A primase to initiate RNA synthesis.
D)Cotranscriptional attachment of a cap to the 5' end of the RNA.
E)Proofreading through a 3'-exonuclease activity.
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Chapter 8: Protein Targeting
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Q1) In glycoproteins, the terminal position in the oligosaccharide is most commonly occupied by:
A)N-acetylglucosamine.
B)Glucose.
C)Mannose.
D)Iduronic acid.
E)N-acetylneuraminic acid.
Q2) Misfolded proteins accumulate in some age-related degenerative diseases.Normally, however, misfolded proteins are escorted to the proteosome for destruction.This process begins with the covalent attachment of the protein:
A)Ubiquitin.
B)Adaptin.
C)Clathrin.
D)Tubulin.
E)Dolichol.
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Chapter 9: Introduction to Genetic Diseases
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Q1) Some abnormal bases that are produced by DNA-damaging chemicals can be removed by base excision repair.In this repair system, the initial removal of the abnormal base is followed up by which of the following enzymes?
A)AP endonuclease.
B)Topoisomerase II.
C)The 3'-exonuclease activity of DNA polymerase I.
D)A helicase that separates the strands.
E)An exonuclease that is part of the mismatch repair system.
Q2) In every cell of the body, about 100 cytosine residues in the DNA are deaminated to uracil per day.The enzyme that recognizes this kind of damage and catalyzes the first reaction in the repair pathway is:
A)An exonuclease.
B)A DNA glycosylase.
C)AP endonuclease.
D)A topoisomerase.
E)A helicase.
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Chapter 10: Viruses
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Q1) The long terminal repeats of the acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) virus are recognized by integrase and help direct the incorporation of viral complementary DNA (cDNA) into the genome.What else are they good for?
A)They encode the matrix and core proteins.
B)They form the primer for reverse transcriptase.
C)They encode reverse transcriptase.
D)They encode the proteins required to process gag-pol.
E)They contain the viral promoter region.
Q2) Which of the following enzymes are never encoded by viral genes?
A)RNA replicase.
B)Reverse transcriptase.
C)RNA polymerase I.
D)Proteases.
E)Integrase.
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Chapter 11: DNA Technology
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Q1) RNA interference can be used for experimental and possibly therapeutic purposes.RNA interference is triggered by:
A)Shortening of telomeres in aging cells.
B)Activation of oncogenes in malignant cells.
C)Exposure to viral spike proteins.
D)Double-stranded RNA molecules.
E)DNA-RNA hybrid molecules.
Q2) The binding of an oligonucleotide probe to a specific sequence of DNA is influenced by which of the following:
A)Temperature, salt concentration, nucleotide sequence, and radioactivity only.
B)Temperature, salt concentration, pH, and nucleotide sequence only.
C)Temperature, salt concentration, and nucleotide sequence only.
D)Temperature, nucleotide sequence, and pH only.
E)Temperature and nucleotide sequence only.
Q3) PCR and DNA sequencing differ in which of the following requirements?
A)DNA polymerase.
B)An oligonucleotide primer.
C)Deoxynucleoside triphosphates.
D)DNA template.
E)Dideoxynucleoside triphosphates
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Chapter 12: Biological Membranes
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Q1) Most sphingolipids are glycolipids.However, there is one sphingolipid that contains phosphate but no carbohydrate.This lipid is:
A)Ceramide.
B)Sphingomyelin.
C)Ganglioside.
D)Sphingosine.
E)Cerebroside.
Q2) How do most integral membrane proteins interact with the lipid bilayer?
A)By covalent attachment to a glycosylphosphatidylinositol anchor.
B)Through covalently bound fatty acids.
C)By electrostatic interactions with the head groups of membrane lipids.
D)By a little piece of hydrophobic a helix that traverses the lipid bilayer.
E)By hydrogen bonds with the head groups of membrane lipids.
Q3) The mechanism that absorbs glucose from the intestinal lumen can be characterized as:
A)Electroneutral.
B)Facilitated diffusion.
C)Secondary active transport.
D)Antiport.
E)Passive diffusion.
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Chapter 13: The Cytoskeleton
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Q1) Cells can exchange inorganic ions and small metabolites with neighboring cells in the tissue.This process requires the protein:
A)Vinculin.
B)Dynein.
C)Connexin.
D)Cadherin.
E) -Catenin.
Q2) A bound guanosine triphosphate (GTP) is involved in the reversible assembly of:
A)Thick filaments in skeletal muscle.
B)Keratin filaments in the skin.
C)Actin microfilaments in the cytoplasm of most cells.
D)Microtubules during mitosis.
E)Lamins in the nucleus.
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Chapter 14: The Extracellular Matrix
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Q1) Most glycosaminoglycans (GAGs) are covalently bound to a core polypeptide.One GAG, however, is usually found as a free polysaccharide without covalent protein attachment.This GAG is:
A)Chondroitin sulfate.
B)Dermatan sulfate.
C)Keratan sulfate.
D)Hyaluronic acid.
E)Heparan sulfate.
Q2) Patients with Hurler syndrome (complete deficiency of -L-iduronidase) have mental deficiency in addition to physical deformities, corneal clouding, and valvular heart disease.Their mental deficiency is caused by the accumulation of:
A) -L-iduronic acid.
B)Heparan sulfate.
C)Chondroitin sulfate.
D)Hyaluronic acid.
E)Keratan sulfate.
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Chapter 15: Plasma Proteins
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Q1) Some clotting factors contain g-carboxyglutamate.The function of this unusual amino acid residue in the clotting factors is to bind calcium and to:
A)Increase the substrate specificity of the clotting factors, thereby preventing the incidental cleavage of other proteins.
B)Bind the clotting factors to exposed components of the extracellular matrix.
C)Serve as a feedback mechanism that makes the activated clotting factors sensitive to protease inhibitors.
D)Create cleavage sites for proteolytic activations during zymogen processing.
E)Bind the clotting factors to activated platelets.
Q2) Patients with vitamin K deficiency have prolonged bleeding because several clotting factors are abnormal, including:
A)Factor V.
B)Factor VIII.
C)Factor IX.
D)High-molecular-weight kininogen.
E)Von Willebrand factor.
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Chapter 16: Extracellular Messengers
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Q1) Renin plays a role in blood pressure regulation.What exactly does it do?
A)Contracts blood vessels and thereby raises the blood pressure.
B)Degrades angiotensin.
C)Makes angiotensin.
D)Prevents the degradation of bradykinin.
E)Stimulates the bone marrow, thereby increasing the blood volume and raising the blood pressure.
Q2) g-Aminobutyric acid (GABA) is the most important inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain, and reduced action of GABA can lead to epileptic seizures.Therefore, a good strategy for the treatment of epilepsy would be:
A)An inhibitor of GABA decarboxylase.
B)A drug that binds to the GABA-binding site of the GABA receptor without activating the receptor.
C)An inhibitor of glutamate decarboxylase.
D)An inhibitor of GABA transaminase.
E)An inhibitor of glutamate dehydrogenase.
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Chapter 17: Intracellular Messengers
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Q1) What is the difference between nicotinic and muscarinic acetylcholine receptors?
A)Nicotinic receptors have guanylate cyclase activity; muscarinic receptors are ion channels.
B)Nicotinic receptors are ion channels; muscarinic receptors are coupled to G proteins.
C)Nicotinic receptors are coupled to G-proteins; muscarinic receptors have adenylate cyclase activity.
D)Nicotinic receptors are coupled to G-proteins; muscarinic receptors are ion channels.
E)Nicotinic receptors are ion channels; muscarinic receptors have tyrosine-specific protein kinase activity.
Q2) The second messenger cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) induces its effects by binding to the regulatory subunits of protein kinase A.What is the immediate target of the second messenger inositol-1,4,5-trisphosphate (IP )?
A)A calcium channel in the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) membrane.
B)Phospholipase C.
C)Protein kinase C.
D)A nuclear DNA-binding protein.
E)Calmodulin.
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Cellular Growth Control and Cancer
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Q1) Breast cancer is diagnosed in a 62-year-old woman.She already survived a soft-tissue sarcoma that had been diagnosed and successfully treated when she was 40 years old and an adrenocortical cancer that had been diagnosed and successfully treated when she was 48 years old.She probably has an inherited cancer susceptibility that affects:
A)p53.
B)BRCA1.
C)BRCA2.
D)Neurofibromin.
E)The retinoblastoma protein pRb.
Q2) The function of caspases is:
A)Stimulation of cyclin-dependent protein kinases.
B)Inhibition of cyclin-dependent protein kinases.
C)Destruction of cellular proteins during apoptosis.
D)Prevention of apoptosis by the mitochondrial pathway.
E)Activation of death receptors on the cell surface.
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Chapter 19: Digestive Enzymes
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Q1) The bacterial fermentation of undigested carbohydrates in the colon forms not only gas but also a good deal of:
A)Lactose.
B)Fatty acids.
C)Small organic acids.
D)Urea.
E)Ketone bodies.
Q2) Trypsinogen, chymotrypsinogen, proelastase, procarboxypeptidases, and prophospholipases are all produced as inactive zymogens.Each of these zymogens can be activated by the enzyme ________, and this normally occurs in ________.
A)Enteropeptidase; the duodenal epithelium.
B)Enteropeptidase; the intestinal lumen.
C)Pepsin; the stomach.
D)Chymotrypsin; the pancreas.
E)Trypsin; the intestinal lumen.
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Chapter 20: Introduction to Metabolic Pathways
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Q1) Which type of regulation is most likely for the regulated enzymes of energy-generating oxidative pathways?
A)Stimulation by adenosine triphosphate (ATP).
B)Stimulation by adenosine diphosphate (ADP).
C)Stimulation by the reduced form of nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NADH).
D)Feedback inhibition by carbon dioxide.
E)Inhibition by the substrate of the pathway.
Q2) Which is the most likely regulated step in metabolic pathways?
A)The first reaction in the pathway, regardless of whether it is reversible or irreversible.
B)The first irreversible reaction of the pathway.
C)The first endergonic reaction in the pathway.
D)The last reaction of the pathway.
E)The reaction whose enzyme is present in the highest activity in the cell.
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Chapter 21: Glycolysis, Tricarboxylic Acid Cycle, and Oxidative Phosphorylation
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Q1) Streptococcus pneumoniae is the primary cause of community-acquired pneumonia.In blood plasma, the transcription of the phosphofructokinase-1 gene in S.pneumoniae is reduced to 20% of baseline.If glycolysis is similar in S.pneumoniae and Homo sapiens, what is most likely to result from reduced transcription of the phosphofructokinase-1 gene in the bacteria?
A)Glucose utilization increases.
B)Glucose production from lactate is reduced.
C)The rate of lactate formation increases.
D)The amount of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate increases.
E)The amount of fructose-6-phosphate increases.
Q2) Thiamine deficiency leads not only to the accumulation of pyruvate and lactate but also to the accumulation of:
A)Succinyl-CoA.
B)Oxaloacetate.
C)Malate.
D)Succinate.
E) -Ketoglutarate.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Carbohydrate Metabolism
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Q1) The activation of glucagon receptors turns the liver into a net producer of glucose.Glucagon stimulates a signal transduction pathway in liver involving:
A)SMAD protein phosphorylation.
B)Protein kinase A activation.
C)Calcium pumping into the endoplasmic reticulum.
D)Receptor tyrosine protein kinase activation.
E)Activation of G protein guanosine triphosphatase (GTPase) activity.
Q2) A 30-year-old man of Italian ancestry is treated with high doses of a combination antibiotic for his chronic sinusitis.After 1 week of drug treatment, a dark brown discoloration of the urine is noted, and the hematocrit is found to be 32%.Haptoglobin is virtually undetectable.What is a likely mechanism for the patient's drug-induced anemia?
A)Galactose metabolism is inhibited.
B)There is not enough ribose to support DNA replication.
C)Red blood cells produce too much apo-hemoglobin.
D)Glutathione reduction by the reduced form of nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADPH) is impaired.
E)The reduced form of nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NADH) oxidase overproduces oxygen radicals.
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Page 24
Chapter 23: The Metabolism of Fatty Acids and Triglycerides
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Q1) A patient complains about frequent aches and pains in his muscles.A blood test shows increased levels of creatine kinase MM, fatty acids and also myoglobin.A second blood sample, this time taken after an overnight fast, revealed low levels of blood glucose and elevated VLDL.This patient most likely has which of the following conditions?
A)Carnitine-acyl transferase deficiency.
B)Essential amino acid deficiency.
C)Type 1 glycogen storage disease.
D)Acute alcohol toxicity.
E)Elevated insulin levels, which cause hypoglycemia and increased fatty acid mobilization from adipose tissue.
Q2) A deficiency of which of the following proteins is least likely to impair the utilization of adipose tissue triglyceride for ATP production in muscle tissue?
A)Acyl-carnitine translocase.
B)Carnitine-acyl transferase-1.
C)Medium-chain acyl-CoA dehydrogenase.
D)Acetyl-CoA carboxylase.
E)Cytochrome oxidase.
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Page 25
Chapter 24: The Metabolism of Membrane Lipids
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Q1) The alleles in the ABO blood group system code for:
A)Integral membrane proteins.
B)Glycosyl transferases.
C)Peripheral membrane proteins.
D)Cytoskeletal proteins.
E)Phosphoglyceride-synthesizing enzymes.
Q2) One per 30 Ashkenazi Jews carries a mutation for Tay-Sachs disease in the heterozygous state.The heterozygotes can be identified by measuring one of the following enzymes in cultured leucocytes:
A)Glucocerebrosidase.
B)Hexosaminidase A.
C)Iduronate sulfatase.
D)Ceramidase.
E) -Galactosidase.
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Chapter 25: Lipid Transport
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Q1) You culture fibroblasts from a patient in the laboratory.In order to up-regulate the LDL receptors in these cells, you should:
A)Add cholesterol esters to the medium.
B)Add excess LDL to the medium.
C)Inhibit HMG-CoA reductase.
D)Inhibit the activity of acyl-CoA-cholesterol acyl transferase (ACAT).
E)Add cholestyramine.
Q2) A 5-year-old boy develops severe stomach pain after eating a big piece of fatty cheesecake.The serum amylase level is found to be mildly elevated.The plasma triglyceride level is 1200 mg/dL, and the total cholesterol level is 220 mg/dL.The parents mention that the child does not like fatty foods at all, but this was the first time he tasted cheesecake.Which apolipoprotein might be deficient in this patient to account for his fat intolerance?
A)A-I.
B)C-II.
C)B-100.
D)C-III.
E)E.
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Amino Acid Metabolism
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Q1) A negative nitrogen balance is most likely to be present in:
A)A heavyweight boxer training for the world championship.
B)A fast-growing teenager who eats 3500 calories of junk food every day.
C)A political prisoner who went on a hunger strike.
D)A woman who is 8 months pregnant.
E)A patient who is recovering from successful cancer surgery and chemotherapy.
Q2) Quantitatively, the major metabolic fate of glycine in the body is:
A)Conversion to serine by addition of a one-carbon unit from tetrahydrofolate.
B)Transamination and oxidation to oxalic acid.
C)Cleavage to carbon dioxide, ammonia, and a one-carbon group on tetrahydrofolate.
D)Use for heme biosynthesis by d-aminolevulinate synthetase.
E)Use for the synthesis of pyrimidine nucleotides.
Q3) A 1-year-old child with mental retardation has a deficiency of dihydrobiopterin reductase.This enzyme deficiency leads to an increased blood level of:
A)Tyrosine.
B)Methionine.
C)Glucocerebroside.
D)Glycine.
E)Phenylalanine.
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Heme Metabolism
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Q1) Very small quantities of urobilinogen are normally found in the urine.In the clinical laboratory, urinary urobilinogen is useful for differentiating between types of jaundice.Specifically, you have to expect the following levels in patients with acute hepatitis (but without cholestasis), severe hemolysis, and cholestasis (biliary obstruction):
A)Hemolysis: reduced; hepatitis: reduced; cholestasis: elevated.
B)Hemolysis: absent; hepatitis: elevated; cholestasis: absent.
C)Hemolysis: elevated; hepatitis: elevated; cholestasis: elevated.
D)Hemolysis: elevated; hepatitis: elevated; cholestasis: absent.
E)Hemolysis: elevated; hepatitis: reduced; cholestasis: reduced.
Q2) One test that can detect many types of porphyria is the determination of urinary: A)Dihydroorotic acid.
B)Urobilinogen.
C)Stercobilin.
D)Biliverdin.
E)Porphobilinogen.
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Chapter 28: The Metabolism of Purines and Pyrimidines
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Sample Questions
Q1) The effect of the chemotherapeutic drug methotrexate is best described as:
A)Disruption of the mitotic spindle.
B)Impaired synthesis of deoxyribonucleotides from ribonucleotides.
C)Inhibition of orotic acid synthesis in the biosynthetic pathway of pyrimidine nucleotides.
D)Depletion of tetrahydrofolate.
E)Induction of mutations by DNA methylation.
Q2) Fluorouracil is a uracil analog used in the treatment of malignant disorders.It reacts covalently with which one of the following enzymes, causing irreversible inhibition?
A)Phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate aminotransferase.
B)Ribonucleotide reductase.
C)Thymidylate synthase.
D)Dihydrofolate reductase.
E)Adenosine deaminase.
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Chapter 29: Vitamins and Minerals
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/35609
Sample Questions
Q1) A 28-year-old man who saw the doctor because of numbness of the feet is found to have a hematocrit of 26%.Except for frequent bouts of gastritis for which he self-medicated with antacids, there is nothing unusual in his medical history.A blood test shows unusually large erythrocytes, and a metabolic screen reveals methylmalonic acid in his urine.This is most likely a case of:
A)Folate deficiency.
B) -Thalassemia.
C)Iron deficiency.
D)Deficiency of vitamin B6.
E)Pernicious anemia.
Q2) After developing mild jaundice, a teenage boy is found to have an alanine transaminase level eight times higher than the upper limit of normal.A low level of serum ceruloplasmin is subsequently found.There is no fever.This boy most likely has:
A)Hemochromatosis.
B)Menke disease.
C)Wilson disease.
D)Lung emphysema.
E)Acute biliary obstruction.
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Page 31
Chapter 30: Integration of Metabolism
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/35610
Sample Questions
Q1) One of the reasons for hyperglycemia in patients with diabetes mellitus is the effect of insulin on GLUT-4 transporters in:
A)All tissues.
B)Brain and erythrocytes.
C)Liver and adipose tissue.
D)Muscle and adipose tissue.
E)Liver and brain.
Q2) Mrs.Keller weighs 50 kg and is 1.5 m tall.This means she is considered: A)Obese.
B)Overweight.
C)Normal.
D)Underweight.
Q3) You are treating a diabetic/hypertensive patient.When evaluating the effectiveness of the medical and dietary regimen, which of these results should give you reason for concern?
A)Fasting blood glucose: 100 mg/dL.
B)Glycosylated hemoglobin: 9%.
C)Blood pressure: 120/80.
D)Body mass index: 24.
E)Sodium intake: 3000 mg/day.
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