Foundations of Biology Test Preparation
Course Introduction
Foundations of Biology introduces students to the core concepts of modern biological science, including the structure and function of cells, principles of genetics and heredity, mechanisms of evolution, and the diversity of life forms. Emphasis is placed on the scientific method, experimental design, and critical analysis of biological data. Through integrated lectures and laboratory experiences, students explore how living systems interact with their environments and examine current issues in biology such as biotechnology, ecology, and human health. This course provides a fundamental framework for further study in the biological sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Biology 8th Edition by Neil A. Campbell
Available Study Resources on Quizplus
56 Chapters
4292 Verified Questions
4292 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1558
Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction: Themes in the Study of Life
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
66 Verified Questions
66 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30806
Sample Questions
Q1) Why is it important that an experiment include a control group?
A)The control group is the group that the researcher is in control of; it is the group in which the researcher predetermines the nature of the results.
B)The control group provides a reserve of experimental subjects.
C)A control group is required for the development of an "if, then" statement.
D)A control group assures that an experiment will be repeatable.
E)Without a control group, there is no basis for knowing if a particular result is due to the variable being tested or to some other factor.
Answer: E
Q2) Recent evidence points to the conclusion that the ancestral finches of the Galapagos originated in the islands of the Caribbean.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) A theory in science is equivalent in scope to a well-structured hypothesis.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 3
Chapter 2: The Chemical Context of Life
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
83 Verified Questions
83 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30807
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is False?
A)Atoms of the various elements differ in their number of subatomic particles.
B)All atoms of a particular element have the same number of protons in their nuclei.
C)The neutrons and protons present in the nucleus of an atom are almost identical in mass; each has a mass of about 1 dalton.
D)An atom is the smallest unit of an element that still retains the properties of the element.
E)Protons and electrons are electrically charged particles. Protons have one unit of negative charge, and electrons have one unit of positive charge.
Answer: E
Q2) Which drawing depicts an atom that is inert or chemically unreactive?
Answer: E
Q3) Which drawing depicts an atom with a valence of 2?
Answer: C
Q4) Which drawing depicts the electron configuration of neon ( \({ } _ { 10 } ^ { 20 } \mathrm { Ne }\) )?
Answer: E
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 4
Chapter 3: Water and the Fitness of the Environment
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
66 Verified Questions
66 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30808
Sample Questions
Q1) Based on your knowledge of the polarity of water molecules, the solute molecule is most likely
A)positively charged.
B)negatively charged.
C)without charge.
D)hydrophobic.
E)nonpolar.
Answer: A
Q2) A given solution contains 0.0001(10 )moles of hydrogen ions [H ] per liter. Which of the following best describes this solution?
A)acidic: H acceptor
B)basic: H acceptor
C)acidic: H donor
D)basic: H donor
E)neutral
Answer: C
Q3) Draw three water molecules and label the atoms. Draw solid lines to indicate covalent bonds and dotted lines for hydrogen bonds. Add partial charge labels as appropriate.
Answer: 11ea4e3a_1ad5_a4ff_9ed3_91b8bd4142d5_TB2680_00
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 5
Chapter 4: Carbon and the Molecular Diversity of Life
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
68 Verified Questions
68 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30809
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following contains nitrogen in addition to carbon, oxygen, and hydrogen?
A)an alcohol such as ethanol
B)a monosaccharide such as glucose
C)a steroid such as testosterone
D)an amino acid such as glycine
E)a hydrocarbon such as benzene
Q2) Which is the best description of a carbonyl group?
A)an oxygen joined to a carbon by a single covalent bond
B)a nitrogen and two hydrogens joined to a carbon by covalent bonds
C)a carbon joined to two hydrogens by single covalent bonds
D)a sulfur and a hydrogen joined to a carbon by covalent bonds
E)a carbon atom joined to an oxygen by a double covalent bond
Q3) Which of the following statements best describes the carbon atoms present in all organic molecules?
A)They were incorporated into organic molecules by plants.
B)They were processed into sugars through photosynthesis.
C)They are ultimately derived from carbon dioxide.
D)Only A and C are correct.
E)A, B, and C are correct.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 6
Chapter 5: The Structure and Function of Large Biological
Molecules
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
109 Verified Questions
109 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30810
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following molecules act as building blocks (monomers)of polypeptides?
A)1, 4, and 6
B)2, 7, and 8
C)7, 8, and 13
D)11, 12, and 13
E)12, 13, and 15
Q2) Enzymes that break down DNA catalyze the hydrolysis of the covalent bonds that join nucleotides together. What would happen to DNA molecules treated with these enzymes?
A)The two strands of the double helix would separate.
B)The phosphodiester linkages between deoxyribose sugars would be broken.
C)The purines would be separated from the deoxyribose sugars.
D)The pyrimidines would be separated from the deoxyribose sugars.
E)All bases would be separated from the deoxyribose sugars.
Q3) Enzymes are
A)carbohydrates.
B)lipids.
C)proteins.
D)nucleic acids.
Page 7
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 6: A Tour of the Cell
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
75 Verified Questions
75 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30811
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following contains its own DNA and ribosomes?
A)lysosome
B)vacuole
C)mitochondrion
D)Golgi apparatus
E)peroxisome
Q2) Cells require which of the following to form cilia or flagella?
A)centrosomes
B)ribosomes
C)actin
D)A and B only
E)A, B, and C
Q3) Which of the following are capable of converting light energy to chemical energy?
A)chloroplasts
B)mitochondria
C)leucoplasts
D)peroxisomes
E)Golgi bodies
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
8
Chapter 7: Membrane Structure and Function
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
75 Verified Questions
75 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30812
Sample Questions
Q1) Of the following functions, which is most important for the glycoproteins and glycolipids of animal cell membranes?
A)facilitated diffusion of molecules down their concentration gradients
B)active transport of molecules against their concentration gradients
C)maintaining the integrity of a fluid mosaic membrane
D)maintaining membrane fluidity at low temperatures
E)a cell's ability to distinguish one type of neighboring cell from another
Q2) Which of the following statements correctly describes the normal tonicity conditions for typical plant and animal cells?
A)The animal cell is in a hypotonic solution, and the plant cell is in an isotonic solution.
B)The animal cell is in an isotonic solution, and the plant cell is in a hypertonic solution.
C)The animal cell is in a hypertonic solution, and the plant cell is in an isotonic solution.
D)The animal cell is in an isotonic solution, and the plant cell is in a hypotonic solution.
E)The animal cell is in a hypertonic solution, and the plant cell is in a hypotonic solution.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 9
Chapter 8: An Introduction to Metabolism
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
79 Verified Questions
79 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30813
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following represents the activation energy required for a noncatalyzed reaction?
A)a
B)b
C)c
D)d
E)e
Q2) Substance A functions as
A)a coenzyme.
B)an allosteric inhibitor.
C)the substrate.
D)an intermediate.
E)a competitive inhibitor.
Q3) The active site of an enzyme is the region that A)binds allosteric regulators of the enzyme.
B)is involved in the catalytic reaction of the enzyme.
C)binds the products of the catalytic reaction.
D)is inhibited by the presence of a coenzyme or a cofactor.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 10
Chapter 9: Cellular Respiration: Harvesting Chemical
Energy
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
103 Verified Questions
103 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30814
Sample Questions
Q1) The immediate energy source that drives ATP synthesis by ATP synthase during oxidative phosphorylation is
A)the oxidation of glucose and other organic compounds.
B)the flow of electrons down the electron transport chain.
C)the affinity of oxygen for electrons.
D)the H concentration gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane.
E)the transfer of phosphate to ADP.
Q2) What is the reducing agent in the following reaction?
Pyruvate + NADH + H Lactate + NAD
A)oxygen
B)NADH
C)NAD
D)lactate
E)pyruvate
Q3) Which step involves an endergonic reaction?
Q4) Which step consists of a phosphorylation reaction in which ATP is the phosphate source?
Q5) In which reaction does an intermediate pathway become oxidized?
Q6) In which step is an inorganic phosphate added to the reactant?
Q7) Which step shows a split of one molecule into two smaller molecules? Page 11
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 12
Chapter 10: Photosynthesis
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
74 Verified Questions
74 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30815
Sample Questions
Q1) Referring to Figure 10.3, oxygen would inhibit the CO fixation reactions in
A)cell I only.
B)cell II only.
C)neither cell I nor cell II.
D)both cell I and cell II.
E)cell I during the night and cell II during the day.
Q2) Suppose the interior of the thylakoids of isolated chloroplasts were made acidic and then transferred in the dark to a pH-8 solution. What would be likely to happen?
A)The isolated chloroplasts will make ATP.
B)The Calvin cycle will be activated.
C)Cyclic photophosphorylation will occur.
D)Only A and B will occur.
E)A, B, and C will occur.
Q3) Requires CO
A)light reactions alone
B)the Calvin cycle alone
C)both the light reactions and the Calvin cycle
D)neither the light reactions nor the Calvin cycle
E)occurs in the chloroplast but is not part of photosynthesis
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 13
Chapter 11: Cell Communication
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
62 Verified Questions
62 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30816
Sample Questions
Q1) In general, a signal transmitted via phosphorylation of a series of proteins
A)brings a conformational change to each protein.
B)requires binding of a hormone to a cytosol receptor.
C)cannot occur in yeasts because they lack protein phosphatases.
D)requires phosphorylase activity.
E)allows target cells to change their shape and therefore their activity.
Q2) Which of the substances below is a protein that can hold several other relay proteins as it binds to an activated membrane receptor?
A)active transcription factor
B)third messenger
C)ligand
D)scaffolding protein
E)protein kinase
Q3) Chemical signal pathways
A)operate in animals, but not in plants.
B)are absent in bacteria, but are plentiful in yeast.
C)involve the release of hormones into the blood.
D)often involve the binding of signal molecules to a protein on the surface of a target cell.
E)use hydrophilic molecules to activate enzymes.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 14
Chapter 12: The Cell Cycle
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
80 Verified Questions
80 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30817
Sample Questions
Q1) Proteins that are involved in the regulation of the cell cycle, and that show fluctuations in concentration during the cell cycle, are called A)ATPases.
B)kinetochores.
C)centrioles.
D)proton pumps.
E)cyclins.
Q2) If mammalian cells receive a go-ahead signal at the G checkpoint, they will A)move directly into telophase.
B)complete the cycle and divide.
C)exit the cycle and switch to a nondividing state.
D)show a drop in MPF concentration.
E)complete cytokinesis and form new cell walls.
Q3) An enzyme that attaches a phosphate group to another molecule is called a A)phosphatase.
B)phosphorylase.
C)kinase.
D)cyclase.
E)ATPase.
Q4) at prometaphase of mitosis
15
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 13: Meiosis and Sexual Life Cycles
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
68 Verified Questions
68 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30818
Sample Questions
Q1) After telophase I of meiosis, the chromosomal makeup of each daughter cell is
A)diploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of a single chromatid.
B)diploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of two chromatids.
C)haploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of a single chromatid.
D)haploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of two chromatids.
E)tetraploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of two chromatids.
Q2) Which of the steps take place in both mitosis and meiosis?
A)2
B)3
C)5
D)2 and 3 only
E)2, 3, and 5
Q3) How does the sexual life cycle increase the genetic variation in a species?
A)By allowing independent assortment of chromosomes
B)By allowing fertilization
C)By increasing gene stability
D)By conserving chromosomal gene order
E)By decreasing mutation frequency
Q4) How can you tell this cell is undergoing meiosis, not mitosis?
Q5) Identify the stage of meiosis shown.
Page 16
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 14: Mendel and the Gene Idea
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
89 Verified Questions
89 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30819
Sample Questions
Q1) In snapdragons, heterozygotes for one of the genes have pink flowers, whereas homozygotes have red or white flowers. When plants with red flowers are crossed with plants with white flowers, what proportion of the offspring will have pink flowers?
A)0%
B)25%
C)50%
D)75%
E)100%
Q2) The relationship between genes S and N is an example of A)incomplete dominance.
B)epistasis.
C)complete dominance.
D)pleiotropy.
E)codominance.
Q3) A black guinea pig crossed with an albino guinea pig produces 12 black offspring. When the albino is crossed with a second black one, 7 blacks and 5 albinos are obtained. What is the best explanation for this genetic situation? Write genotypes for the parents, gametes, and offspring.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 15: The Chromosomal Basis of Inheritance
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
75 Verified Questions
75 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30820
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the reason that linked genes are inherited together?
A)They are located close together on the same chromosome.
B)The number of genes in a cell is greater than the number of chromosomes.
C)Chromosomes are unbreakable.
D)Alleles are paired together during meiosis.
E)Genes align that way during metaphase I of meiosis.
Q2) A man with Klinefelter syndrome (47, XXY)is expected to have any of the following EXCEPT
A)lower sperm count.
B)possible breast enlargement.
C)increased testosterone.
D)long limbs.
E)female body characteristics.
Q3) You design Drosophila crosses to provide recombination data for gene a, which is located on the chromosome shown in Figure 15.12 in the textbook. Gene a has recombination frequencies of 14% with the vestigial-wing locus and 26% with the brown-eye locus. Where is a located on the chromosome?
Q4) What pattern of inheritance would lead a geneticist to suspect that an inherited disorder of cell metabolism is due to a defective mitochondrial gene?
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 18
Chapter 16: The Molecular Basis of Inheritance
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
72 Verified Questions
72 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30821
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the function of topoisomerase?
A)relieving strain in the DNA ahead of the replication fork
B)elongation of new DNA at a replication fork by addition of nucleotides to the existing chain
C)the addition of methyl groups to bases of DNA
D)unwinding of the double helix
E)stabilizing single-stranded DNA at the replication fork
Q2) What is the basis for the difference in how the leading and lagging strands of DNA molecules are synthesized?
A)The origins of replication occur only at the 5' end.
B)Helicases and single-strand binding proteins work at the 5' end.
C)DNA polymerase can join new nucleotides only to the 3' end of a growing strand.
D)DNA ligase works only in the 3' 5' direction.
E)Polymerase can work on only one strand at a time.
Q3) A space probe returns with a culture of a microorganism found on a distant planet. Analysis shows that it is a carbon-based life-form that has DNA. You grow the cells in ¹ N medium for several generations and then transfer them to ¹ N medium. Which pattern in Figure 16.1 would you expect if the DNA was replicated in a conservative manner?
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
19
Chapter 17: From Gene to Protein
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
84 Verified Questions
84 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30822
Sample Questions
Q1) A mutant bacterial cell has a defective aminoacyl synthetase that attaches a lysine to tRNAs with the anticodon AAA instead of a phenylalanine. The consequence of this for the cell will be that
A)none of the proteins in the cell will contain phenylalanine.
B)proteins in the cell will include lysine instead of phenylalanine at amino acid positions specified by the codon UUU.
C)the cell will compensate for the defect by attaching phenylalanine to tRNAs with lysine-specifying anticodons.
D)the ribosome will skip a codon every time a UUU is encountered.
E)None of the above will occur; the cell will recognize the error and destroy the tRNA.
Q2) Accuracy in the translation of mRNA into the primary structure of a polypeptide depends on specificity in the
A)binding of ribosomes to mRNA.
B)shape of the A and P sites of ribosomes.
C)bonding of the anticodon to the codon.
D)attachment of amino acids to tRNAs.
E)both C and D
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 20
Chapter 18: Control of Gene Expression
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
101 Verified Questions
101 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30823
Sample Questions
Q1) The lactose operon is likely to be transcribed when
A)there is more glucose in the cell than lactose.
B)the cyclic AMP levels are low.
C)there is glucose but no lactose in the cell.
D)the cyclic AMP and lactose levels are both high within the cell.
E)the cAMP level is high and the lactose level is low.
Q2) One of the human leukemias, called CML (chronic myelogenous leukemia)is associated with a chromosomal translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22 in somatic cells of bone marrow. Which of the following allows CML to provide further evidence of this multi-step nature of cancer?
A)CML usually occurs in more elderly persons (late age of onset).
B)The resulting chromosome 22 is abnormally short; it is then known as the Philadelphia chromosome.
C)The translocation requires breaks in both chromosomes 9 and 22, followed by fusion between the reciprocal pieces.
D)CML involves a proto-oncogene known as abl.
E)CML can usually be treated by chemotherapy.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 21
Chapter 19: Viruses
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30824
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following describes plant virus infections?
A)They can be controlled by the use of antibiotics.
B)They are spread throughout a plant by passing through the plasmodesmata.
C)They have little effect on plant growth.
D)They are seldom spread by insects.
E)They can never be inherited from a parent.
Q2) RNA viruses require their own supply of certain enzymes because
A)host cells rapidly destroy the viruses.
B)host cells lack enzymes that can replicate the viral genome.
C)these enzymes translate viral mRNA into proteins.
D)these enzymes penetrate host cell membranes.
E)these enzymes cannot be made in host cells.
Q3) Given Baltimore's scheme, a positive sense single-stranded RNA virus such as the polio virus would be most closely related to which of the following?
A)T-series bacteriophages
B)retroviruses that require a DNA intermediate
C)single-stranded DNA viruses such as herpesviruses
D)nonenveloped double-stranded RNA viruses
E)linear double-stranded DNA viruses such as adenovirus
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 22
Chapter 20: Biotechnology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30825
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following cuts DNA molecules at specific locations?
A)restriction enzymes
B)gene cloning
C)DNA ligase
D)gel electrophoresis
E)reverse transcriptase
Q2) Genetic engineering is being used by the pharmaceutical industry. Which of the following is not currently one of the uses?
A)production of human insulin
B)production of human growth hormone
C)production of tissue plasminogen activator
D)genetic modification of plants to produce vaccines
E)creation of products that will remove poisons from the human body
Q3) Which of the following are probably siblings?
A)A and B
B)A and C
C)A and D
D)C and D
E)B and D
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 23
Chapter 21: Genomes and Their Evolution
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30826
Sample Questions
Q1) In order to determine the probable function of a particular sequence of DNA in humans, what might be the most reasonable approach?
A)Prepare a knockout mouse without a copy of this sequence and examine the mouse phenotype.
B)Genetically engineer a mouse with a copy of this sequence and examine its phenotype.
C)Look for a reasonably identical sequence in another species, prepare a knockout of this sequence in that species and look for the consequences.
D)Prepare a genetically engineered bacterial culture with the sequence inserted and assess which new protein is synthesized.
E)Mate two individuals heterozygous for the normal and mutated sequences.
Q2) Alu elements account for about 10% of the human genome. What does this mean?
A)Alu elements cannot be transcribed into RNA.
B)Alu elements evolved in very ancient times, before mammalian radiation.
C)Alu elements represent the result of transposition.
D)No Alu elements are found within individual genes.
E)Alu elements are cDNA and therefore related to retrotransposons.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 24
Chapter 22: Descent With Modification: a Darwinian View of Life
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
57 Verified Questions
57 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30827
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is an inference of natural selection?
A)Subsequent generations of a population should have greater proportions of individuals that possess traits better suited for success in unchanging environments.
B)An individual organism undergoes evolution over the course of its lifetime.
C)Habitats do not generally have unlimited resources.
D)Natural populations tend to reproduce to their full biological potential.
E)Some of the variation that exists among individuals in a population is genetic.
Q2) Which group is composed entirely of individuals who maintained that species are fixed (i.e., unchanging)?
A)Aristotle, Cuvier, and Lamarck
B)Linnaeus, Cuvier, and Lamarck
C)Lyell, Linnaeus, and Lamarck
D)Aristotle, Linnaeus, and Cuvier
E)Hutton, Lyell, and Darwin
Q3) If "x" indicates the location of fossils of two closely related species, then fossils of their most-recent common ancestor are most likely to occur in which stratum?
Q4) Which stratum should contain the greatest proportion of extinct organisms?
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 25
Chapter 23: The Evolution of Populations
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
84 Verified Questions
84 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30828
Sample Questions
Q1) Over the course of evolutionary time, what should occur?
A)Methylated DNA should become fixed in the gene pools of bacterial species.
B)Nonmethylated DNA should become fixed in the gene pools of bacteriophages.
C)Methylated DNA should become fixed in the gene pools of bacteriophages.
D)Methylated and nonmethylated strains should be maintained among both bacteria and bacteriophages, with ratios that vary over time.
E)Both A and B are correct.
Q2) Over time, the movement of people on Earth has steadily increased. This has altered the course of human evolution by increasing
A)non-random mating.
B)geographic isolation.
C)genetic drift.
D)mutations.
E)gene flow.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 24: The Origin of Species
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
60 Verified Questions
60 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30829
Sample Questions
Q1) Beetle pollinators of a particular plant are attracted to its flowers' bright orange color. The beetles not only pollinate the flowers, but they mate while inside of the flowers. A mutant version of the plant with red flowers becomes more common with the passage of time. A particular variant of the beetle prefers the red flowers to the orange flowers. Over time, these two beetle variants diverge from each other to such an extent that interbreeding is no longer possible. What kind of speciation has occurred in this example, and what has driven it?
A)allopatric speciation, ecological isolation
B)sympatric speciation, habitat differentiation
C)allopatric speciation, behavioral isolation
D)sympatric speciation, sexual selection
E)sympatric speciation, allopolyploidy
Q2) What was the species concept most used by Linnaeus?
A)biological
B)morphological
C)ecological
D)phylogenetic
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 27
Chapter 25: The History of Life on Earth
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
85 Verified Questions
85 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30830
Sample Questions
Q1) On the basis of their morphologies, how might Linnaeus have classified the Hawaiian silverswords?
A)He would have placed them all in the same species.
B)He would have classified them the same way that modern botanists do.
C)He would have placed them in more species than modern botanists do.
D)He would have used evolutionary relatedness as the primary criterion for their classification.
E)Both B and D are correct.
Q2) Which free-living cells were the earliest contributors to the formation of Earth's oxidizing atmosphere?
A)cyanobacteria
B)chloroplasts
C)mitochondria
D)seaweeds
E)endosymbionts
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
28
Chapter 26: Phylogeny and the Tree of Life
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
90 Verified Questions
90 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30831
Sample Questions
Q1) The best classification system is that which most closely
A)unites organisms that possess similar morphologies.
B)conforms to traditional, Linnaean taxonomic practices.
C)reflects evolutionary history.
D)corroborates the classification scheme in use at the time of Charles Darwin.
E)reflects the basic separation of prokaryotes from eukaryotes.
Q2) Which process is observed in prokaryotes and is responsible for the vertical components of the various bacterial and archaean lineages?
A)mitosis
B)meiosis
C)sexual reproduction
D)binary fission
Q3) A phylogenetic tree constructed using sequence differences in mitochondrial DNA would be most valid for discerning the evolutionary relatedness of A)archaeans and bacteria.
B)fungi and animals.
C)Hawaiian silverswords.
D)sharks and dolphins
E)mosses and ferns.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 29
Chapter 27: Bacteria and Archaea
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
78 Verified Questions
78 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30832
Sample Questions
Q1) Penicillin is an antibiotic that inhibits enzymes from catalyzing the synthesis of peptidoglycan, so which prokaryotes should be most vulnerable to inhibition by penicillin?
A)mycoplasmas
B)gram-positive bacteria
C)archaea
D)gram-negative bacteria
E)endospore-bearing bacteria
Q2) Which of the following is composed almost entirely of peptidoglycan?
A)endospore
B)sex pilus
C)flagellum
D)cell wall
E)capsule
Q3) How can prokaryotes be considered to be more successful on Earth than humans?
A)Prokaryotes are much more numerous and have more biomass.
B)Prokaryotes occupy more diverse habitats.
C)Prokaryotes are more diverse in metabolism.
D)Only B and C are correct.
E)A, B, and C are correct.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 30
Chapter 28: Protists
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
79 Verified Questions
79 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30833
Sample Questions
Q1) A gelatinous seaweed that grows in shallow, cold water and undergoes heteromorphic alternation of generations is most probably what type of alga?
A)red
B)green
C)brown
D)yellow
Q2) Diatoms are mostly asexual members of the phytoplankton. Diatoms lack any organelles that might have the 9+2 pattern. They obtain their nutrition from functional chloroplasts, and each diatom is encased within two porous, glasslike valves. Which question would be most important for one interested in the day-to-day survival of individual diatoms?
A)How does carbon dioxide get into these protists with their glasslike valves?
B)How do diatoms get transported from one location on the water's surface layers to another location on the surface?
C)How do diatoms with their glasslike valves keep from sinking into poorly lit waters?
D)How do diatoms with their glasslike valves avoid being shattered by the action of waves?
E)How do diatom sperm cells locate diatom egg cells?
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 31
Chapter 29: Plant Diversity I: How Plants Colonized Land
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
74 Verified Questions
74 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30834
Sample Questions
Q1) A major change that occurred during the evolution of plants from their algal ancestors was the origin of a branched sporophyte. What advantage would branched sporophytes provide in this stage of the life cycle?
A)increased gamete production
B)increased spore production
C)increased potential for independence of the diploid stage from the haploid stage
D)increased fertilization rate
E)increased size of the diploid stage
Q2) Which of the following characteristics, if observed in an unidentified green organism, would make it unlikely to be a charophyte?
A)phragmoplast
B)peroxisome
C)apical meristem
D)chlorophylls a and b
E)rosette cellulose-synthesizing complex
Q3) Which graph of soil nitrogen loss over time in Figure 29.2 most strongly supports the hypothesis that if rhizoids had helped stabilize the soil, then less erosion and less loss of nitrogen would occur?
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 30: Plant Diversity Ii: the Evolution of Seed Plants
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
101 Verified Questions
101 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30835
Sample Questions
Q1) Arrange the following structures, which can be found on male pine trees, from the largest structure to the smallest structure (or from most inclusive to least inclusive). 1. sporophyte
2) microspores
3) microsporangia
4) pollen cone
5) pollen nuclei
A)1, 4, 3, 2, 5
B)1, 4, 2, 3, 5
C)1, 2, 3, 5, 4
D)4, 1, 2, 3, 5
E)4, 3, 2, 5, 1
Q2) Which number represents a megaspore mother cell?
A)1
B)3
C)5
D)7
E)11
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 33
Chapter 31: Fungi
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
87 Verified Questions
87 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30836
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a characteristic of hyphate fungi (fungi featuring hyphae)?
A)They acquire their nutrients by phagocytosis.
B)Their body plan is a unicellular sphere.
C)Their cell walls consist mainly of cellulose microfibrils.
D)They are adapted for rapid directional growth to new food sources.
E)They reproduce asexually by a process known as budding.
Q2) Which term below refers to symbiotic relationships that involve fungi living between the cells in plant leaves?
A)pathogens
B)endosymbioses
C)endophytes
D)lichens
E)mycorrhizae
Q3) The ascomycetes get their name from which aspect of their life cycle?
A)vegetative growth form
B)asexual spore production
C)sexual structures
D)shape of the spore
E)type of vegetative mycelium
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 34
Chapter 32: An Introduction to Animal Diversity
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
82 Verified Questions
82 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30837
Sample Questions
Q1) According to both phylogenies depicted in Fig. 32.2, if one were to create a taxon called "Radiata" that included all animal species whose members have True radial symmetry, then such a taxon would be
A)paraphyletic.
B)polyphyletic.
C)monophyletic.
D)a clade.
E)both C and D
Q2) In the traditional phylogeny (Fig. 32.2A), the sponges are considered to be a clade, whereas in the molecular phylogeny (Fig. 32.2B), sponges
A)do not all have a common ancestor that is unique only to them.
B)are polyphyletic.
C)called the Calcarea should actually be included among the eumetazoa.
D)called the Silicea are the sole organisms that should be properly called "sponges." E)called the Calcarea diverged from the lineage that eventually produced the eumetazoa earlier than did the Silicea.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 33: Invertebrates
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
98 Verified Questions
98 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30838
Sample Questions
Q1) The water vascular system of echinoderms
A)functions as a circulatory system that distributes nutrients to body cells.
B)functions in locomotion, feeding, and gas exchange.
C)is bilateral in organization, even though the adult animal is not bilaterally symmetrical.
D)moves water through the animal's body during suspension feeding.
E)is analogous to the gastrovascular cavity of flatworms.
Q2) Nematode worms and annelid worms share which of the following features?
A)use of fluid in the body cavity as a hydrostatic skeleton
B)ecdysis
C)presence of a circulatory system
D)presence of segmentation
E)absence of species with parasitic lifestyles
Q3) The name of which of the following annelid classes indicates the relative number of bristles (chaetae)its members have?
A)Oligochaeta
B)Polychaeta
C)Hirudinea (leeches)
D)all three of these
E)two of these
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 36
Chapter 34: Vertebrates
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
112 Verified Questions
112 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30839
Sample Questions
Q1) Chordate pharyngeal slits appear to have functioned first as A)the digestive system's opening.
B)suspension-feeding devices.
C)components of the jaw.
D)gill slits for respiration.
E)portions of the inner ear.
Q2) Which of the following are the only extant animals that descended directly from dinosaurs?
A)lizards
B)crocodiles
C)snakes
D)birds
E)mammals
Q3) Lampreys differ from hagfishes in A)lacking jaws.
B)having a cranium.
C)having pharyngeal clefts that develop into pharyngeal slits.
D)having a notochord throughout life.
E)having a notochord that is surrounded by a tube of cartilage.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 37
Chapter 35: Plant Structure, Growth, and Development
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
77 Verified Questions
77 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30840
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not part of an older tree's bark?
A)cork
B)cork cambium
C)lenticels
D)secondary xylem
E)secondary phloem
Q2) Before differentiation can begin during the processes of plant cell and tissue culture, parenchyma cells from the source tissue must
A)differentiate into procambium.
B)undergo dedifferentiation.
C)increase the number of chromosomes in their nuclei.
D)enzymatically digest their primary cell walls.
E)establish a new polarity in their cytoplasm.
Q3) The best word to describe the growth of plants in general is A)perennial.
B)weedy.
C)indeterminate.
D)derivative.
E)primary.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 38
Chapter 36: Transport in Vascular Plants
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
84 Verified Questions
84 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30841
Sample Questions
Q1) In plant roots, the Casparian strip is correctly described by which of the following?
A)It is located in the walls between endodermal cells and cortex cells.
B)It provides energy for the active transport of minerals into the stele from the cortex.
C)It ensures that all minerals are absorbed from the soil in equal amounts.
D)It ensures that all water and dissolved substances must pass through a cell membrane before entering the stele.
E)It provides increased surface area for the absorption of mineral nutrients.
Q2) The ancestors of land plants were aquatic algae. Which of the following is not an evolutionary adaptation to life on land?
A)C3 photosynthesis
B)a waxy cuticle
C)root hairs
D)xylem and phloem
E)guard cells
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 37: Soil and Plant Nutrition
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
85 Verified Questions
85 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30842
Sample Questions
Q1) The best explanation for the shape of the growth response curve in figure 37.1 is that
A)the plant requires air in the soil for photosynthesis.
B)the roots are able to absorb more nitrogen (N2)in high levels of air.
C)most of the decrease in weight at low air levels is due to transpiration from the leaves.
D)increased soil air produces more root mass in the soil but does not affect the top stems and leaves.
E)the roots require oxygen for respiration and growth.
Q2) For this pair of items, choose the option that best describes their relationship. (A)The amount of molybdenum in a gram of dried plant material
(B)The amount of sulfur in a gram of dried plant material
A)Item (A)is greater than item (B).
B)Item (A)is less than item (B).
C)Item (A)is exactly or very approximately equal to item (B).
D)Item (A)may stand in more than one of the above relations to item (B).
Q3) Draw a simple sketch of cation exchange, showing a root hair, a soil particle with anions, and a hydrogen ion displacing a mineral cation.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 40
Chapter 38: Angiosperm Reproduction and Biotechnology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
86 Verified Questions
86 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30843
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements regarding the endosperm is False?
A)Its nutrients may be absorbed by the cotyledons in the seeds of eudicots.
B)It develops from a triploid cell.
C)Its nutrients are digested by enzymes in monocot seeds following hydration.
D)It develops from the fertilized egg.
E)It is rich in nutrients, which it provides to the embryo.
Q2) Biofuels are mainly produced by
A)the breakdown of cell wall biopolymers into sugars that can be fermented.
B)plants that convert hemicellulose into gasoline.
C)the genetic engineering of ethanol generating genes into plants.
D)transgenic crops that have cell walls containing ethylene.
E)plants that are easy to grow in arid environments.
Q3) Based on studies of plant evolution, which flower part is not a modified leaf?
A)stamen
B)carpel
C)petals
D)sepals
E)receptacle
Q4) Which cell(s)become(s)the triploid endosperm?
Q5) Which cell(s)guide(s)the pollen tube to the egg cell?
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 41
Chapter 39: Plant Responses to Internal and External
Signals
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
111 Verified Questions
111 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30844
Sample Questions
Q1) Both red and blue light are involved in A)stem elongation.
B)photoperiodism.
C)positive phototropism.
D)tracking seasons.
E)all of the above
Q2) A long-day plant will flower only when the night is longer than a critical value.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following watering regimens will be most effective at keeping a lawn green during the hot, dry summer months?
A)daily sprinkling to soak the soil to 0.5 inch
B)sprinkling every other day to soak the soil to 1.0 inch
C)sprinkling every third day to soak the soil to 2.0 inches
D)A or B would be equally effective.
E)A, B or C would be equally effective.
Q4) The cells of lateral buds are more sensitive to auxin than stem cells.
A)True
B)False
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 42
Chapter 40: Basic Principles of Animal Form and Function
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
74 Verified Questions
74 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30845
Sample Questions
Q1) Compared with a smaller cell, a larger cell of the same shape has
A)less surface area.
B)less surface area per unit of volume.
C)the same surface-to-volume ratio.
D)a smaller average distance between its mitochondria and the external source of oxygen.
E)a smaller cytoplasm-to-nucleus ratio.
Q2) Which of the following is not an adaptation for reducing the rate of heat exchange between an animal and its environment?
A)feathers or fur
B)vasoconstriction
C)nonshivering thermogenesis
D)countercurrent heat exchanger
E)blubber or fat layer
Q3) The fibers responsible for the elastic resistance properties of tendons are
A)elastin fibers.
B)fibrin fibers.
C)collagenous fibers.
D)reticular fibers.
E)spindle fibers.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 43
Chapter 41: Animal Nutrition
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
68 Verified Questions
68 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30846
Sample Questions
Q1) When more energy sources are needed than are generated by diet, in which order does the animal draw on stored sources?
A)fat, glycogen, protein
B)glycogen, protein, fat
C)liver glycogen, muscle glycogen, fat
D)muscle glycogen, fat, liver glycogen
E)fat, protein, glycogen
Q2) The pH of the stomach is low enough and the protease activity high enough that the cells of the stomach itself are at risk of self-digestion. This is prevented by which of the following?
A)a sufficient colony of H. pylori
B)mucus secretion and active mitosis of epithelial cells
C)high level of secretion by chief cells
D)high level of secretion from parietal cells
E)secretions entering the stomach from the pancreas
Q3) Make a flowchart of the events that occur after partially digested food leaves the stomach. Use the following terms: bicarbonate secretion, circulation, decrease in acid, secretin secretion, increase in acid, signal detection. Next to each term, indicate the compartment(s)involved. You may use a term more than once.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 44
Chapter 42: Circulation and Gas Exchange
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
78 Verified Questions
78 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30847
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has a blood pressure of 120/75, a pulse rate of 40 beats/min, a stroke volume of 70 mL/beat, and a respiratory rate of 25 breaths/min. This person's cardiac output per minute will be
A)500 mL.
B)1,000 mL.
C)1,750 mL.
D)2,800 mL.
E)4,800 mL.
Q2) Why is the respiratory system of a bird more efficient than the human respiratory system?
A)The bird respiratory system does not mix exhaled air with inhaled air.
B)A bird lung contains multiple alveoli, which increases the amount of surface area available for gas exchange.
C)The human respiratory system ends in small parabronchi, which reduce the amount of surface area available for gas exchange.
D)Only B and C are correct.
E)A, B, and C are correct.
Q3) Draw a pair of simple diagrams comparing the essential features of single and double circulation.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 45
Chapter 43: The Immune System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
85 Verified Questions
85 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30848
Sample Questions
Q1) An invertebrate, such as an insect, has innate immunity that can be nonspecific about which pathogens are prevented from harming its metabolism. Which of the following is most likely to function this way in the insect's intestine?
A)complement
B)lysozyme
C)mucus
D)neutrophils
E)dendritic cells
Q2) For one person to produce over a million different antibody molecules could not possibly require over a million different genes. Instead, this variability is accounted for by which processes?
A)alternative splicing of exons after transcription
B)increased rate of mutation in the RNA molecules
C)DNA rearrangements followed by alternative splicing of the transcripts
D)DNA rearrangements in the thymus cells
E)crossing-over between the light and heavy chains of each antibody molecule during meiosis I
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 44: Osmoregulation and Excretion
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
49 Verified Questions
49 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30849
Sample Questions
Q1) Which group possess excretory organs known as Malpighian tubules?
A)earthworms
B)flatworms
C)insects
D)jellyfish
E)sea stars
Q2) The advantage of excreting wastes as urea rather than as ammonia is that
A)urea can be exchanged for Na+.
B)urea is less toxic than ammonia.
C)urea requires more water for excretion than ammonia.
D)urea does not affect the osmolar gradient.
E)less nitrogen is removed from the body.
Q3) Excreted as a paste by land snails, insects, birds, and many reptiles, because of its solubility and toxicity properties
Q4) What is the main nitrogenous waste excreted by birds?
A)ammonia
B)nitrate
C)nitrite
D)urea
E)uric acid
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 45: Hormones and the Endocrine System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
71 Verified Questions
71 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30850
Sample Questions
Q1) The hypothalamus controls the anterior pituitary by means of A)releasing hormones.
B)second messengers.
C)third messengers.
D)antibodies.
E)cytokines.
Q2) Which of the following is the most likely explanation for hypothyroidism in a patient whose iodine level is normal?
A)a disproportionate production of T3 to T4
B)hyposecretion of TSH
C)hypersecretion of TSH
D)hypersecretion of MSH
E)a decrease in the thyroid secretion of calcitonin
Q3) Melatonin has been found to participate in all of the following except A)skin pigmentation.
B)monitoring day length.
C)reproduction.
D)biological rhythms.
E)calcium deposition in bone.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 48
Chapter 46: Animal Reproduction
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
85 Verified Questions
85 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30851
Sample Questions
Q1) If you observe vertebrate organisms with parthenogenetic reproduction, internal development of embryos, and the lack of parental care for its young, you should categorize these organisms as A)earthworms.
B)lizards.
C)birds.
D)frogs.
E)mammals.
Q2) Human fertility drugs increase the chance of multiple births, probably because they A)enhance implantation.
B)stimulate follicle development.
C)mimic progesterone.
D)stimulate spermatogenesis.
E)prevent parturition.
Q3) The hormone progesterone is produced
A)in the pituitary and acts directly on the ovary.
B)in the uterus and acts directly on the pituitary.
C)in the ovary and acts directly on the uterus.
D)in the pituitary and acts directly on the uterus.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 49
Chapter 47: Animal Development
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
75 Verified Questions
75 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30852
Sample Questions
Q1) Contact of a sperm with signal molecules in the coat of an egg causes the sperm to undergo
A)mitosis.
B)depolarization.
C)apoptosis.
D)vitellogenesis.
E)the acrosomal reaction.
Q2) The sequence of developmental milestones proceeds as follows:
A)cleavage blastula gastrula morula
B)cleavage gastrula morula blastula
C)cleavage morula blastula gastrula
D)gastrula morula blastula cleavage
E)morula cleavage gastrula blastula
Q3) The "slow block" to polyspermy is due to
A)a transient voltage change across the membrane.
B)the consumption of yolk protein.
C)the jelly coat blocking sperm penetration.
D)formation of the fertilization envelope.
E)inactivation of the sperm acrosome.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 50
Chapter 48: Neurons, Synapses, and Signaling
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
52 Verified Questions
52 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30853
Sample Questions
Q1) A neuropeptide that might function as a natural analgesic is A)acetylcholine.
B)epinephrine.
C)endorphin.
D)nitric oxide.
E)GABA.
Q2) Which of the following is a direct result of depolarizing the presynaptic membrane of an axon terminal?
A)Voltage-gated calcium channels in the membrane open.
B)Synaptic vesicles fuse with the membrane.
C)The postsynaptic cell produces an action potential.
D)Ligand-gated channels open, allowing neurotransmitters to enter the synaptic cleft.
E)An EPSP or IPSP is generated in the postsynaptic cell.
Q3) The activity of acetylcholine in a synapse is terminated by
A)its active transport across the presynaptic membrane.
B)its diffusion across the presynaptic membrane.
C)its active transport across the postsynaptic membrane.
D)its diffusion across the postsynaptic membrane.
E)its degradation by a hydrolytic enzyme on the postsynaptic membrane.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 51
Chapter 49: Nervous Systems
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
48 Verified Questions
48 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30854
Sample Questions
Q1) Wakefulness is regulated by the reticular formation, which is present in the A)basal nuclei.
B)cerebral cortex.
C)brainstem.
D)limbic system.
E)spinal cord.
Q2) Cranial nerves originate in the brain. They belong to which system?
A)central nervous system
B)peripheral nervous system
C)autonomic nervous system
D)parasympathetic nervous system
E)sympathetic nervous system
Q3) Short-term memory information processing usually causes changes in the A)brainstem.
B)medulla.
C)hypothalamus.
D)hippocampus.
E)cranial nerves.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 52
Chapter 50: Sensory and Motor Mechanisms
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
59 Verified Questions
59 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30855
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following structures is the last one that sensory information would encounter during visual processing?
A)ganglion cells
B)bipolar cells
C)primary visual cortex
D)optic chiasma
E)lateral geniculate nuclei
Q2) The structure pictured in Figure 50.3 can be found in which types of muscles?
A)skeletal
B)cardiac
C)smooth
D)A and B only
E)A, B, and C
Q3) What are sensillae?
A)smell receptors in animals with hydrostatic skeletons
B)mechanoreceptors that help birds remain oriented during flight
C)a specific type of hair cell in the human ear
D)insect taste receptors found on feet and mouthparts
E)olfactory hairs located on insect antennae
Q4) Which section consists only of myosin filaments?
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 53
Chapter 51: Animal Behavior
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
74 Verified Questions
74 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30856
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a behavioral pattern resulting from an ultimate cause?
A)A male robin attacks a red tennis ball because it resembles the breast of another male.
B)A male robin attacks a red tennis ball because hormonal changes in spring increase its aggression.
C)A male robin attacks a red tennis ball because a part of its brain is stimulated by red objects.
D)A male robin attacks a red tennis ball because several times in the past red tennis balls have been thrown at it, and it has learned that they are dangerous.
E)A male robin attacks a red tennis ball because it confuses it with an encroaching male who will steal his territory.
Q2) Which scientist suggested that human social behavior may have a genetic basis?
A)E. O. Wilson
B)Jane Goodall
C)J. B. S. Haldane
D)Niko Tinbergen
E)William Hamilton
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 54
Chapter 52: An Introduction to Ecology and the Biosphere
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
71 Verified Questions
71 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30857
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements about ecology is incorrect?
A)Ecologists may study populations and communities of organisms.
B)Ecological studies may involve the use of models and computers.
C)Ecology is a discipline that is independent from natural selection and evolutionary history.
D)Ecology spans increasingly comprehensive levels of organization, from individuals to ecosystems.
E)Ecology is the study of the interactions between biotic and abiotic aspects of the environment.
Q2) Which of the following is not True about estuaries?
A)Estuaries are often bordered by mudflats and salt marshes.
B)Estuaries contain waters of varying salinity.
C)Estuaries support a variety of animal life that humans consume.
D)Estuaries usually contain no or few producers.
E)Estuaries support many semiaquatic species.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 53: Population Ecology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
80 Verified Questions
80 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30858
Sample Questions
Q1) Most ecologists believe that the average global carrying capacity for the human population is between
A)5 and 6 billion.
B)6 and 8 billion.
C)10 and 15 billion.
D)15 and 20 billion.
E)20 and 25 billion.
Q2) Demography is the study of
A)the vital statistics of populations and how they change over time.
B)death and emigration rates of a population at any moment in time.
C)the survival patterns of a population.
D)life expectancy of individuals within a population.
E)reproductive rates of a population during a given year.
Q3) In order to construct a reproductive table for a sexual species, you need to A)assess sperm viability.
B)keep track of all of the offspring of a cohort.
C)keep track of the females in a cohort.
D)keep track of all of the offspring of the females in a cohort.
E)keep track of the ratio of deaths to births in a cohort.
Q4) Which curve best describes survivorship in songbirds?
Page 56
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 54: Community Ecology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
74 Verified Questions
74 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30859
Sample Questions
Q1) The energetic hypothesis and dynamic stability hypothesis are explanations to account for
A)plant defenses against herbivores.
B)the length of food chains.
C)the evolution of mutualism.
D)resource partitioning.
E)the competitive exclusion principle.
Q2) Which of the following best describes the consequences of White-band disease in Caribbean coral reefs?
A)Staghorn coral has been decimated by the pathogen, and Elkhorn coral has taken its place.
B)Key habitat for lobsters, snappers, and other reef fishes has improved.
C)Algal species take the place of the dead coral, and the fish community is dominated by herbivores.
D)Algal species take over and the overall reef diversity increases due to increases in primary productivity.
E)Other coral species take the place of the affected Staghorn and Elkhorn species.
Q3) Which island would likely have the greatest species diversity?
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 55: Ecosystems
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
79 Verified Questions
79 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30860
Sample Questions
Q1) The total biomass of photosynthetic autotrophs present in an ecosystem is known as
A)gross primary productivity.
B)standing crop.
C)net primary productivity.
D)secondary productivity.
E)trophic efficiency.
Q2) How are matter and energy used in ecosystems?
A)Matter is cycled through ecosystems; energy is not.
B)Energy is cycled through ecosystems; matter is not.
C)Energy can be converted into matter; matter cannot be converted into energy.
D)Matter can be converted into energy; energy cannot be converted into matter.
E)Matter is used in ecosystems; energy is not
Q3) Which of these ecosystems has the highest net primary productivity per square meter?
A)savanna
B)open ocean
C)boreal forest
D)tropical rain forest
E)temperate forest
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 58
Chapter 56: Conservation Biology and Restoration Ecology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
65 Verified Questions
65 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30861
Sample Questions
Q1) Approximately what percent of the world's land area has been established as reserves to protect biodiversity?
A)less than 1%
B)3%
C)7%
D)12%
E)20%
Q2) Which of the following strategies would most rapidly increase the genetic diversity of a population in an extinction vortex?
A)Capture all remaining individuals in the population for captive breeding followed by reintroduction to the wild.
B)Establish a reserve that protects the population's habitat.
C)Introduce new individuals transported from other populations of the same species.
D)Sterilize the least fit individuals in the population.
E)Control populations of the endangered population's predators and competitors.
Q3) Which of these represents the best quail habitat in terms of fragmentation and edge?
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
59