Foundations of Biology Test Bank
Course Introduction
Foundations of Biology offers a comprehensive introduction to the principles underlying the study of life, exploring topics such as cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of living organisms. Students will investigate the molecular and cellular mechanisms that govern biological processes, analyze the genetic and environmental factors influencing development and adaptation, and examine the dynamic interactions within ecosystems. Emphasis is placed on the scientific method, experimental design, and the technological advancements shaping modern biology, preparing students for further study in the biological sciences and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Biological Science 4th Edition by Scott Freeman
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55 Chapters
2000 Verified Questions
2000 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Biology and the Tree of Life
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Refer to Figure 1.1.In every case,caterpillars that feed on oak flowers look like oak flowers.In every case,caterpillars that were raised on oak leaves looked like twigs.These results support which of the following hypotheses?
A)The longer day lengths of summer trigger the development of twig-like caterpillars.
B)Differences in air pressure,due to elevation,trigger the development of different types of caterpillars.
C)Differences in diet trigger the development of different types of caterpillars.
D)The differences are genetic a female will produce all flowerlike caterpillars or all twig-like caterpillars.
Answer: C
Q2) Which statement about spontaneous generation is false?
A)Pasteur demonstrated that it does not occur under normal laboratory conditions.
B)It apparently occurred at least once-when life on Earth began.
C)It occurs every time a new species evolves from a preexisting species.
D)It addresses the formation of living cells from previously nonliving material.
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Water and Carbon: the Chemical Basis of Life
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Q10 rule states that within their survivable range the rates of biochemical processes of many ectothermic organisms approximately double with every 10-degree (C)rise in temperature.Why would this be true?
A)Warmer molecules interact faster.
B)There are more vibrational harmonics with greater temperature.
C)Organisms move faster when they are warmer.
D)Sunlight warms all organisms.
Answer: A
Q2) What holds electrons in a covalent bond?
A)It is the fact that two electrons are paired in the same orbital.
B)The electron sharing that occurs makes the atoms involved smaller and more compact.
C)An increase in potential energy,caused by electrical repulsion of the electrons in the bond,holds the electrons.
D)The negative charges on the electrons are attracted by the positive charges on both nuclei.
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Protein Structure and Function
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47 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true when comparing an uncatalyzed reaction to the same reaction with a catalyst?
A)The catalyzed reaction will be slower.
B)The catalyzed reaction will have the same G.
C)The catalyzed reaction will have higher activation energy.
D)The catalyzed reaction will consume all of the catalyst.
Answer: B
Q2) What type of interaction is directly responsible for the formation of secondary structure?
A)peptide bonds between adjacent amino acids
B)peptide bonds between nonadjacent amino acids
C)hydrogen bonds between sections of the polypeptide backbone
D)hydrogen bonds between side chains of amino acids
Answer: C
Q3) The functional groups of amino acids _____.
A)are always charged
B)may be hydrophobic or hydrophilic
C)only contain C,H,and O
D)are identical in different types of amino acids
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Nucleic Acids and the Rna World
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a difference between RNA and DNA?
A)One is typically single stranded and the other is typically triple stranded.
B)One contains uracil and the other does not.
C)One contains ribose sugar and the other contains a deoxyribose sugar.
D)One is made from nucleotide monomers and the other one is not.
Q2) What is/are the variable structure(s)of a nucleotide?
A)the phosphate group
B)the sugar
C)the base
D)the sugar and the base
Q3) Is Nakano's quote from Science consistent with the textbook's claim that RNA is a good candidate for the first life-form?
A)yes
B)no
Q4) Nucleic acids are polymers made up of which of the following monomers?
A)nucleotides
B)sugars
C)amino acids
D)nitrogenous bases
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Chapter 5: An Introduction to Carbohydrates
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Sample Questions
Q1) How is carbohydrate use similar or different between plants and animals? Select the true statement below.
A)In animals,carbohydrates have mainly a structural role,while in plants,carbohydrates are mainly used to store energy.
B)Carbohydrates catalyze reactions in both animals and plants.
C)Carbohydrates play a structural role in some types of animals and in all plants.
D)None of answers A-C are correct.
Q2) How do the and forms of glucose differ?
A)Their ring structures differ in the location of a hydroxyl group.
B)Their linear structures differ in the location of a hydroxyl group.
C)The form can be involved in 1,4 and 1,6 glycosidic linkages;the form can participate only in 1,4 linkages.
D)The oxygen atom inside the ring is located in a different position.
Q3) The chemical formula for fat is C H O .The analogous chemical formula for carbohydrates is C H O .Given the differences in their chemical formulas,why do you think that plants generally store their energy in the form of carbohydrates,but animals generally store their energy in the form of fats?
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Chapter 6: Lipids, membranes, and the First Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following substances would most likely require a protein to facilitate its diffusion across a cell membrane?
A)water
B)glycerol
C)fatty acid
D)oxygen gas (O )
Q2) What most distinguishes lipids from other biomolecules is _____.
A)that only lipids contain hydrogen atoms
B)their molecular weight (size)
C)their chemical properties
D)where they are found in the body
Q3) You have a planar bilayer with equal amounts of saturated and unsaturated phospholipids.After testing the permeability of this membrane to glucose,you increase the proportion of unsaturated phospholipids in the bilayer.What will happen to the membrane's permeability to glucose?
A)You can't predict the outcome.You simply have to make the measurement.
B)Permeability to glucose will increase.
C)Permeability to glucose will decrease.
D)Permeability to glucose will stay the same.
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Inside the Cell
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Sample Questions
Q1) Amoebae move by crawling over a surface (cell crawling).Which one of the following processes is part of this type of movement?
A)growth of actin filaments to form bulges in the plasma membrane
B)setting up microtubule extensions that vesicles can follow in the movement of cytoplasm
C)reinforcing the pseudopod with intermediate filaments
D)cytoplasmic streaming
Q2) Which of the following statements represents a major difference between prokaryotic cells and eukaryotic cells?
A)Prokaryotes have cells while eukaryotes do not.
B)Eukaryotic cells tend to have much more extensive inner membrane systems and larger numbers of intracellular organelles than do prokaryotes.
C)Prokaryotes are not able to carry out aerobic respiration,a process that requires a complex inner-membrane system.
D)Prokaryotes are generally larger in size than eukaryotes.
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9
Chapter 8: Cell-Cell Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pemphigus vulgaris is an autoimmune disorder in humans in which antibodies are produced against the cadherins of desmosomes.The blistering of the skin and mucous membranes characteristic of this disorder is probably a result of _____.
A)a decrease in flexibility of the cell membrane
B)an inadequate number of G-protein receptors
C)inadequate production of cytoskeletal proteins
D)a loss in cell-cell adhesion
Q2) A gap junction is a channel that connects adjacent cells.From substances listed,which one cannot pass through a gap junction?
A)ions that can regulate heartbeat
B)amino acids
C)nucleotides
D)ribosomes
Q3) Protein kinase is an enzyme that _____.
A)functions as a second messenger molecule
B)serves as a receptor for various signal molecules
C)activates or inactivates other proteins by adding a phosphate group to them
D)produces second messenger molecules
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Chapter 9: Cellular Respiration and Fermentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Substrate-level phosphorylation occurs within a metabolic pathway where sufficient energy is released by a given chemical reaction to drive the synthesis of ATP from ADP and phosphate.In which of the following metabolic pathways is substrate-level phosphorylation exhibited?
A)in glycolysis
B)in the Krebs cycle
C)in both glycolysis and the Krebs cycle
D)during oxidative phosphorylation
Q2) Refer to Figure 9.1 in the text.What characteristic of this molecule (ATP)is responsible for its high energy level?
A)the three phosphate groups
B)the phosphorus atoms in the phosphate groups
C)the C-H bonds of the ribose sugar
D)the closely spaced negative charges associated with the phosphate groups
Q3) The first CO that is released during aerobic cellular respiration is _____.
A)during glycolysis
B)between glycolysis and the Krebs cycle
C)during the Krebs cycle
D)just after the Krebs cycle
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Photosynthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The proteins of the electron transport chain active in the light-dependent reactions _____.
A)are membrane proteins present in the thylakoid
B)are free proteins present in the thylakoid lumen
C)are considered to be part of the reaction center of photosystem I
D)absorb the same wavelengths of light as their associated chlorophylls
Q2) In autumn,the leaves of deciduous trees change colors.This is because the chlorophyll is degraded,and _____.
A)the carotenoids and other pigments are still present in the leaves
B)degraded chlorophyll changes color
C)water supply to the leaves has been reduced
D)the cells of the leaves begin to die
Q3) Most of the enzymes of the Calvin cycle also function in other metabolic pathways.This should not be a surprising finding,because _____.
A)metabolic reactions are catalyzed by enzymes that have multiple functions
B)there is a close relationship between carbohydrate synthesis and carbohydrate metabolism
C)the Calvin cycle is nearly ubiquitous in cells,as are metabolic pathways
D)the Calvin cycle probably evolved at the same time as did glycolysis
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Page 12
Chapter 11: The Cell Cycle
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Sample Questions
Q1) Once a cell completes mitosis,molecular division triggers must be turned off.What happens to MPF during mitosis?
A)It is completely degraded.
B)It is exported from the cell.
C)Cyclin is degraded;the concentration of cyclin-dependent kinase remains unchanged,but without cyclin,MPF is not formed.
D)Cyclin-dependent kinase is degraded;cyclin concentration remains constant,but without cyclin-dependent kinase,MPF is not formed.
Q2) FtsZ is a bacterial cytoskeletal protein that forms a contractile ring involved in bacterial cytokinesis.Its function is analogous to _____.
A)the cleavage furrow of eukaryotic animal cells
B)the cell plate of eukaryotic plant cells
C)the mitotic spindle of eukaryotic cells
D)the microtubule-organizing center of eukaryotic cells
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13
Chapter 12: Meiosis
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34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Homologous chromosomes _____.
A)are identical
B)carry information for the same traits
C)carry the same alleles
D)align on the metaphase plate in meiosis II
Q2) Centromeres split and sister chromosomes migrate to opposite poles in _____.
A)anaphase I
B)telophase I
C)anaphase II
D)telophase II
Q3) Which of the following would enable you to detect aneuploidy?
A)autosomy
B)karyotyping
C)syngamy
D)synapsis
Q4) Genetic recombination takes place in which of the following processes?
A)prophase II of meiosis
B)alignment of tetrads in metaphase I
C)crossing over
D)random alignment of homologous chromosomes in meiosis I
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Chapter 13: Mendel and the Gene
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Sample Questions
Q1) Gray seed color in peas is dominant to white.Assume that Mendel conducted a series of experiments where plants with gray seeds were crossed among themselves,and the following progeny were produced:
302 gray and 98 white.(a)What is the most probable genotype of each parent? (b)Based on your answer in (a)above,what genotypic and phenotypic ratios are expected in these progeny? (Assume the following symbols:
G = gray and g = white. )
A)(a)GG × gg;(b)genotypic = 3:1,phenotypic = 1:2:1
B)(a)Gg × Gg;(b)genotypic = 1:2:1,phenotypic = 3:1
C)(a)GG × Gg;(b)genotypic = 1:2:1,phenotypic = 2:1
D)(a)gg × Gg;(b)genotypic = 1:2,phenotypic = 3:1
E)(a)Gg × Gg;(b)genotypic = 3:1,phenotypic = 9:3:3:1
Q2) Different ratios occur in crosses with single gene pairs or two gene pairs.What types of ratios are likely to occur in crosses dealing with a single gene pair?
A)9:3:3:1,1:2:1
B)1:1:1:1,1:4:6:4:1
C)3:1,1:1,1:2:1
D)4:1,1:1,1:4:1
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Chapter 14: Dna and the Gene: Synthesis and Repair
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a telomere?
A)the mechanism that holds two sister chromatids together
B)DNA replication during telophase
C)the site of origin of DNA replication
D)the ends of linear chromosomes
Q2) In a healthy cell,the rate of DNA repair is equal to the rate of DNA mutation.When the rate of repair lags behind the rate of mutation,what is a possible fate of the cell?
A)The cell can be transformed to a cancerous cell.
B)RNA may be used instead of DNA as inheritance material.
C)It will become embryonic.
D)DNA synthesis will continue in an attempt to repair itself.
Q3) Which of the following are important in reducing the errors in DNA replication in E.coli organisms?
A)proofreading activity of the epsilon subunit of DNA polymerase III
B)mismatch repair
C)nucleotide excision repair
D)All of the above minimize errors in DNA replication in E.coli.
Q4) Refer to Figure 14.3.Which of the structures in the figure breaks hydrogen bonds between complementary bases?
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Chapter 15: How Genes Work
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the process of transcription,_____.
A)DNA is replicated
B)RNA is synthesized
C)proteins are synthesized
D)mRNA attaches to ribosomes
Q2) Refer to Figure 15.5.If a DNA sequence is GAG,then the amino acid it codes for is
A)phenylalanine
B)methionine
C)aspartic acid
D)histidine
Q3) Refer to Figure 15.2.In the branched metabolic pathway,if enzyme 3 is defective and the amount of each enzyme is constant,you might expect to see an increase in the amount of which intermediate/product?
A)E
B)F
C)D
D)A
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Chapter 16: Transcription and Translation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not one of the steps in initiation of translation?
A)binding of the large ribosomal subunit to the small ribosomal subunit
B)binding of tRNA carrying formyl methionine to the start codon and small ribosomal subunit
C)recognition and binding of mRNA by the small ribosomal subunit
D)formation of a polypeptide bond
Q2) David Pribnow studied the base sequences of promoters in bacteria and bacterial viruses.He found two conserved regions in these promoters (the -10 box and the -35 box).What is the function of these two regions of the promoter?
A)They signal the initiation site.
B)They bind the sigma subunit that is associated with RNA polymerase.
C)They attach the correct nucleotide triphosphate to the template DNA strand.
D)They separate the two DNA strands.
Q3) Refer to Figure 16.3.What is the function of the ACC sequence at the 3' end?
A)It attaches to the amino acid.
B)It base pairs with the codon of mRNA.
C)It stabilizes the tRNA-amino acid complex.
D)It is the active site of this ribozyme.
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Chapter 17: Control of Gene Expression in Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bacterial and eukaryotic cells primarily control gene expression at the level of transcription.If instead cells exerted control of gene expression primarily at the post-translational level,what would be different?
A)The ability to rapidly respond to environmental change would be reduced.
B)Cells would expend significantly more energy.
C)Genes would no longer be transcribed.
D)Translation of mRNA into protein would not occur.
Q2) Imagine that you discover a bacterial operon involved in the synthesis of vitamin B .This operon is regulated by a repressor protein that binds to an operator sequence.Vitamin B is the allosteric effector of the repressor-the molecule that binds to the repressor to affect its activity.Predict how vitamin B will influence repressor activity.
A)When vitamin B binds to the repressor,the repressor binds to the operator.
B)When vitamin B binds to the repressor,the repressor cannot bind to the operator.
C)When vitamin B binds to the repressor,the repressor can bind to RNA polymerase.
D)When vitamin B binds to the repressor,the repressor cannot bind to RNA polymerase.
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19
Chapter 18: Control of Gene Expression in Eukaryotes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is false?
A)All individuals possess many proto-oncogenes.
B)Mutations that inactivate tumor suppressor genes are important in cancer.
C)Cancer is a single disease with one underlying molecular cause.
D)Uncontrolled cell growth alone is insufficient for the development of most cancers.
E)Most agents that cause cancer also cause mutations.
Q2) If the DNA sequence was substantially altered from one of the following,which would prevent the binding of the TATA-binding protein (TBP)?
A)RNA polymerase
B)the point where transcription begins
C)the promoter
D)promoter-proximal elements
E)histone acetyl transferases (HATS)
Q3) Which of the following types of mutation would convert a proto-oncogene into an oncogene?
A)a mutation that blocks transcription of the proto-oncogene
B)a mutation that creates an unstable proto-oncogene mRNA
C)a mutation that greatly increases the amount of the proto-oncogene protein
D)a deletion of most of the proto-oncogene coding sequence
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Analyzing and Engineering Genes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Imagine that you compare two DNA sequences found in the same location on homologous chromosomes.On one of the homologs,the sequence is AACTACGA.On the other homolog,the sequence is AACTTCGA.Within a population,you discover that each of these sequences is common.These sequences _____.
A)contain an SNP that may be useful for genetic mapping
B)identify a protein-coding region of a gene
C)cause disease
D)protect against disease
E)none of the above
Q2) For applications in gene therapy,what is the most favorable characteristic of retroviruses?
A)Retroviruses have an RNA genome.
B)Retroviruses possess reverse transcriptase.
C)DNA copies of retroviral genomes become integrated into the genome of the infected cell.
D)Retroviruses mutate often.
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Chapter 20: Genomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) If alternative splicing did not occur,a prediction would be that _____.
A)the human genome would contain many more genes
B)the yeast genome would contain many fewer genes
C)there would be little correlation between the complexity of organisms and genome size
D)there would be many fewer genes devoted to metabolism in Arabidopsis and yeast
E)there would be many fewer genes devoted to DNA replication and modification in humans
Q2) Sequencing eukaryotic genomes is more difficult than sequencing genomes of bacteria or archaea because of _____.
A)the large size of eukaryotic proteins
B)the hard to find proteins
C)the high proportion of G-C base pairs in eukaryotic DNA
D)the large size of eukaryotic genomes and the large amount of eukaryotic repetitive DNA
E)the large size of eukaryotic genomes,the large amount of eukaryotic repetitive DNA,and the high proportion of G-C base pairs in eukaryotic DNA
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Principles of Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Suppose there was a mutation in the segment-polarity genes of Drosophila.What do you suppose might be the outcome?
A)Several segments of the embryo will be missing.
B)Every other segment of the embryo will be missing.
C)Legs will appear in the place of antennae.
D)Antennae will appear in a different part of their usual segment.
Q2) All of the following are true of embryonic stem cells except _____.
A)they can be found in human blastocysts
B)they retain the potential to become different types of cells
C)they continue to undergo mitosis when most cells have stopped dividing
D)they are terminally differentiated
Q3) Many different lineages of animals share similar pattern-formation gene complexes.The study of how these shared complexes function in evolution is termed _____.
A)convergent evolution
B)conservative evolution
C)regulatory evolution
D)evo-devo (evolutionary developmental biology)
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Chapter 22: An Introduction to Animal Development
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Q1) In many animal embryos,the eye develops very early.The Pax6 protein is important to eye development;its absence can prevent the formation of eyes in mice and humans.Thus,Pax6 probably acts as a(n)_____.
A)structural protein retinal and/or lens cells
B)intercellular signal transmitted between retinal and lens cells
C)transcriptional factor that regulates genes involving retinal and/or lens cells
D)extracellular matrix protein secreted by the retinal and/or lens cells
Q2) Chordin is an organizer protein found only in the dorsal regions of frog embryos.Removing chordin would most likely disrupt the determination of which structure?
A)central nervous system
B)digestive system
C)kidneys
D)lungs
Q3) What happens during gastrulation?
A)The neural tube forms.
B)The blastula forms.
C)The somites form.
D)The three embryonic tissue germ layers form.
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Page 24
Chapter 23: An Introduction to Plant Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Many flowering plant species have elaborate mechanisms to prevent an individual's pollen from fertilizing its own egg cells.Why?
A)to prevent inbreeding
B)to prevent polyspermy
C)to prevent cross-species fertilization and the production of dysfunctional hybrid offspring
D)to prevent double fertilization and the formation of endosperm
Q2) The floral meristem in flowering plants develops from the shoot apical meristem,which usually produces leaves.Which floral part is not a modified leaf?
A)sepal
B)carpel
C)stamen
D)pollen tube
E)petal
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Chapter 24: Evolution by Natural Selection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tourist companies start visiting Island X,where a population of medium ground finches (see question 20)feeds on the tough-fruited Tribulus cistoides.The tourist companies set up reliable feeding stations with a variety of bird seeds (different types and sizes),so that tourists can get a better look at the finches.Which of these events is now most likely to occur to finch beaks on Island X?
A)evolution of yet larger,deeper beaks over time,until all birds have relatively large,deep beaks
B)evolution of smaller,pointier beaks over time,until all birds have relatively small,pointy beaks
C)increased variation in beak size and shape over time
D)no change in beak size and shape over time
Q2) Parasitic species tend to have simple morphologies.Which of the following statements best explains this observation?
A)Parasites are lower organisms,and this is why they have simple morphologies.
B)Parasites do not live long enough to inherit acquired characteristics.
C)Simple morphologies have been naturally selected for in most parasites.
D)Parasites have not yet had time to progress,because they are young evolutionarily.
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Chapter 25: Evolutionary Processes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Suppose 64% of a remote mountain village can taste phenylthiocarbamide (PTC)and must therefore have at least one copy of the dominant PTC taster allele.If this population conforms to Hardy-Weinberg expectations for this gene,what percentage of the population must be heterozygous for this trait?
A)16%
B)32%
C)40%
D)48%
E)60%
Q2) The Dunkers are a religious group that moved from Germany to Pennsylvania in the mid-1700s.They do not marry with members outside their own immediate community.Today,the Dunkers are genetically unique and differ in gene frequencies,at many loci,from all other populations including those in their original homeland.Which of the following likely explains the genetic uniqueness of this population?
A)population bottleneck and Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium
B)heterozygote advantage and stabilizing selection
C)sexual selection and inbreeding depression
D)mutation and natural selection
E)founder effect and genetic drift
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Chapter 26: Speciation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The peppered moth provides a well-known example of natural selection.The light-colored form of the moth was predominant in England before the industrial revolution.In the mid-nineteenth century,a dark-colored form appeared.The difference is produced by a dominant allele of one gene.By about 1900,approximately 90% of the moths around industrial areas were dark colored,whereas light-colored moths were still abundant elsewhere.Apparently,birds could readily find the light moths against the soot-darkened background in industrial areas and therefore were eating more light moths.Recently,use of cleaner fuels has greatly reduced soot in the landscape,and the dark-colored moths have been disappearing.Should the two forms of moths be considered separate species?
A)Yes,because natural selection has affected the frequency of the two different forms.
B)Yes,because they have completely different coloration.
C)Yes,because they are reproductively isolated based on habitat.
D)Yes,because they have completely different coloration and natural selection has affected the frequency of the two different forms.
E)No.
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Phylogenies and the History of Life
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Q1) The largest extinction,measured as a percentage of species that disappeared,occurred at the end of which geological period?
A)Permian
B)Cretaceous
C)Tertiary
D)Devonian
E)Silurian
Q2) Which of the following is an example of homoplasy?
A)fur in bears and seals
B)cell walls in plants and fungi
C)chlorophyll in flowering plants and algae
D)scales in snakes and lizards
Q3) The cladistic approach to estimating phylogenetic trees is most like the approach of which species concept?
A)morphospecies concept
B)biological species concept
C)phylogenetic species concept
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29
Chapter 28: Bacteria and Archaea
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Q1) Bacteria and Archaea are most easily distinguished from each other by their _____.
A)chromosome structure
B)habitat
C)transcription and translation mechanism
D)reproduction method
Q2) Multicellularity and large body size of eukaryotic organisms requires high metabolic rates and efficient ATP production by aerobic respiration.How did bacteria change Earth's atmosphere to enable aerobic respiration?
A)Oxygenic photosynthesis by cyanobacteria significantly increased the amount of oxygen in the atmosphere.
B)Splitting of water during anaerobic respiration by cyanobacteria dramatically increased the amount of oxygen in the atmosphere.
C)Nitrogen fixation by cyanobacteria decreased the amount of nitrogen in the atmosphere,leading to simultaneous increase of oxygen.
D)Anaerobic respiration by cyanobacteria increased the amount of oxygen in the atmosphere by reducing the amount of iron oxides that are able to react instantly with oxygen.
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Chapter 29: Protists
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Q1) Refer to the study by Poulsen et al.and Figure 29.3.Cultures of a species of diatom were treated with BDM,a reversible inhibitor of myosin function.Which of the following predictions is consistent with the hypothesis that an actin-myosin interaction is necessary for motility?
A)BDM will significantly decrease motility of the cells in culture.
B)BDM will not significantly alter motility of the cells in culture.
C)BDM will significantly increase motility of the cells in culture.
Q2) Which of the following characteristics is true of all protists?
A)contain a nucleus
B)smaller than animal cells
C)unicellular
D)have a cell wall
E)photosynthetic
Q3) You discover a new eukaryotic species.It is non-photosynthetic,unicellular,and its motile cells contain a single flagellum.To which group of eukaryotes might this organism belong?
A)Amoebozoa
B)Excavata
C)Rhizaria
D)Alveolata
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Chapter 30: Green Plants
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Q1) Which of these processes does not result in the formation of a different generation in a plant's sexual life cycle?
A)pollination
B)meiosis
C)mitosis
D)fertilization
Q2) Bioprospectors and ethnobotanists search for plants and plant products used for medicines by native cultures.The major function of the medicinal compounds in plants is to _____.
A)attract pollinators for seed dispersal
B)attract insects and birds to spread seeds and fruits
C)defend the plant against herbivores
D)defend the plant against microbes
Q3) Refer to the paragraph on scarlet gilia.Some plants changed their flowers to lighter colors,and some retained the same darker color all season.Which plants do you expect produced more fruit?
A)those that changed their color to a lighter shade
B)those that stayed darker
C)They probably produced the same numbers of fruit.
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Page 32
Chapter 31: Fungi
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Q1) There was a mass extinction of plants and animals at the end of the Permian period 250 million years ago.Which of the following would be a reasonable prediction for the fungal fossil record?
A)There should be a massive increase in mycorrhizal fossils during the extinction and few afterward.
B)There should be a massive increase in saprophytic fossils during the extinction,and then a massive decline shortly after the extinction was complete.
C)There should be a massive decrease in all fungal fossils just prior to the time that plant and animal species started to decline,and the number of these fossils should remain low throughout the extinction period.
D)There should be a slow increase in all fungal fossils during the time that plant and animal species declined,with their numbers staying relatively high afterward since there was little competition from other species.
Q2) Why does total biomass (graph e Figure 31.5)not vary with AMF diversity?
A)Plant growth is unaffected by fungal diversity.
B)Most of the plants in this system do not form mycorrhizal associations.
C)Bromus is the dominant plant species.
D)Lotus corniculatus is a rare species.
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Page 33
Chapter 32: An Introduction to Animals
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Q1) In examining an unknown animal species during its embryonic development,how can you be sure what you are looking at is a protostome and not a deuterostome?
A)There is evidence of cephalization.
B)You see a well-developed coelom.
C)The animal is triploblastic.
D)The animal is clearly bilaterally symmetrical.
E)You see a mouth,but not an anus.
Q2) Due to its unusual habitat (inside the digestive tracts of other animals),the tapeworm lacks _____.
A)a head
B)a mouth
C)a digestive tract
D)a mouth and a digestive tract
E)a head,a mouth,and a digestive tract
Q3) Which of the following is most likely to be aquatic?
A)suspension feeder
B)mass feeder
C)deposit feeder
D)fluid feeder
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34
Chapter 33: Protostome Animals
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Q1) You find a wormlike animal while scuba diving and want to determine whether it is a nudibranch,a polychaete,or a turbellarian.Which of the following would allow you to definitively classify the organism into one of those categories?
A)bristle-like structures on tiny appendages
B)a coelom
C)the ability to swim
D)bright coloration
E)sexual reproduction
Q2) A _____ is comprised of a mouth surrounded by ciliated tentacles.
A)trochophore
B)lophotrochozoan
C)lophophore
D)cuticle
E)ecdysozoan
Q3) The major evolutionary split of protostome animals was based on _____.
A)nature of the body cavity
B)presence or degree of segmentation
C)number of germ layers present in embryonic development
D)method of feeding
E)way that the organism grows
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Chapter 34: Deuterostome Animals
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Q1) Which evolutionary innovation was most significant in helping tetrapods move to dry terrestrial environments?
A)the lung
B)the amniotic egg
C)bone
D)limb specialization
E)endothermy
Q2) What is believed to be the most significant result of the evolution of the amniotic egg?
A)Tetrapods were no longer tied to the water for reproduction.
B)Tetrapods can grow much larger.
C)It led to the evolution of the placenta.
D)Newborns are much less dependent on their parents.
E)Embryos are protected from predators.
Q3) Which of the following groups is classified as Homo sapiens?
A)Neanderthals
B)Cro-Magnons
C)Paranthropus
D)Australopithecus
E)none of the above
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Chapter 35: Viruses
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Q1) It is believed that HIV has passed from chimps to humans more than once.This is very telling since it suggests that animal-to-human viral transmissions may be more common than previously thought.What is the best evidence in support of the conclusion that HIV made the chimp-to-human leap more than once?
A)HIV has multiple strains,and the virus does not appear to be able to leap from humans back to chimps.
B)HIV has appeared on multiple continents.
C)Human-to-human transmission of HIV requires direct personal contact that simply could not have resulted in the widespread outbreak we see today.
D)Several species are known to have similar viruses resulting in immunodeficiency diseases.
Q2) A population of viruses with similar characteristics is called a _____.
A)strain
B)species
C)type
D)genome
E)sense
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Chapter 36: Plant Form and Function
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Q1) Growth and development of plant parts involves _____.
A)cell division to produce new cells
B)enlargement and elongation of cells
C)specialization of cells into tissues
D)all of the above
Q2) Which of these statements is not true about plant sclerenchyma cells?
A)Unlike collenchyma cells,their secondary cell walls do not expand.
B)They can be classified as sclereids or fibers.
C)Their cell walls contain lignin in addition to cellulose.
D)They are the main support and water-transport cells in woody plants.
E)Like parenchyma and collenchyma,they all contain cytoplasm at maturity.
Q3) What is true about plant meristematic cells?
A)They are distributed evenly in all tissues throughout the plant.
B)They are undifferentiated cells that produce new cells.
C)They increase the surface area of dermal tissue by developing root hairs.
D)They subdivide into three distinct cell types named parenchyma,ground meristem,and procambium.
E)They give rise to protoderm,which is involved in photosynthesis.
Q4) Explain why it is possible for big old hollow trees to live and grow for many years,still producing green leaves.
Page 38
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Chapter 37: Water and Sugar Transport in Plants
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Q1) Which theory of water transport in xylem can also be used to explain the movement of water in non-vascular plants such as mosses?
A)cohesion-tension
B)capillarity
C)proton pump
D)root pressure
E)root pressure and capillarity
Q2) CAM and C plants conduct photosynthesis in ways that allow them to live in drier areas than most C plants can tolerate.The effectiveness of different plants in restricting water loss while still allowing for influx of adequate CO can be compared using the transpiration ratio,which is calculated by dividing the amount of water transpired by the amount of CO fixed by photosynthesis.If a typical transpiration ratio for a C plant is 500,then possible values for CAM and C plants could be _____.
A)750-1000
B)500
C)50-250
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Chapter 38: Plant Nutrition
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Q1) The IRT1 gene is responsible for most of the iron uptake activity in roots (Vert et al. ,Plant Cell 14 [2002]: 1223-33).To determine the specificity of the IRT1 transporter in Arabidopsis plants,researchers measured the concentration of manganese,zinc,copper,and cobalt contained in wild-type and irt1-1 mutant plants.What conclusions about IRT1 specificity can you draw from the above data?
A)Under iron-deficient conditions,IRT1 is highly specific for Fe.
B)Under iron-deficient conditions,IRT1 is important for the transport of iron and copper.
C)IRT1 is important for the transport of iron and copper independent of iron concentration.
D)Under iron-deficient conditions,IRT1 is necessary for the transport of iron,zinc,manganese,and cobalt.
E)IRT1 participates in the transport of iron,zinc,manganese,and cobalt independent of iron concentration.
Q2) Give two reasons that relatively few plants thrive in bogs.
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Page 40
Chapter 39: Plant Sensory Systems, signals, and Responses
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Sample Questions
Q1) In lettuce seeds,blue light initiates germination.If you measured hormone levels within the seed,which hormone would be produced upon exposure to blue light?
A)gibberellin
B)ethylene
C)abscisic acid
D)cytokinins
E)brassinosteroids
Q2) The addition of a phosphate group to a protein is called _____,and it usually results in _____.
A)dephosphorylation;protein activation or inactivation
B)phosphorylation;protein activation or inactivation
C)phosphorylation;creation of more ATP
D)dephosphorylation;creation of different proteins
Q3) If cells in the _____ are removed,roots will no longer respond to gravity.
A)root hairs
B)zone of elongation
C)root cap
D)secondary meristem
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Chapter 40: Plant Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the male gametophyte made of?
A)generative cell and polar nuclei
B)polar nuclei and tube cell
C)generative cell and two gametes
D)generative cell and tube cell
E)microspores
Q2) Gardeners purchase packets of seeds that are put in the ground and germinate.Native plant seeds usually need a scarification treatment or a real or simulated winter (stratification),some seeds need light,and others need a smoke treatment.What do these adaptations to the environmental conditions reveal about where the plants grow?
Q3) A gardener in Canada wants to surprise his mother on her birthday and make her favorite Shrubalthea bush flower in May instead of the end of June.The bush is growing in the greenhouse.Which of the following might make the Shrubalthea bush flower early?
A)fertilizing the bush
B)grafting leaves of a Shrubalthea that was exposed to long night
C)grafting leaves of a Shrubalthea that was exposed to short night
D)exposing flower buds of the Shrubalthea bush to long nights
E)exposing flower buds of the Shrubalthea bush to short nights
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Page 42
Chapter 41: Animal Form and Function
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Q1) A researcher is setting up an experiment to measure basal metabolic rate in prairie voles (Microtus ochrogaster-a small rodent).Which of the following would be the best set of conditions for the voles immediately before and during the measurement?
A)House the animals in a cage with plenty of food and water to avoid stress;conduct measurements in a warmer room than the room where housed.
B)House the animals in a cage with plenty of food and water to avoid stress;conduct measurements in a room the same temperature as the room where housed.
C)House the animals in a cage with no food for a few hours before measurement;conduct measurements in a colder room than the room where housed,and exercise the voles.
D)House the animals in a cage with no food for a few hours before measurement;conduct measurements in a room the same temperature as the room where housed.
Q2) Blood is a type of connective tissue because _____.
A)blood has multiple cell types
B)blood has a liquid extracellular matrix
C)blood functions in transportation
D)blood can be both liquid and solid
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Page 43
Chapter 42: Water and Electrolyte Balance in Animals
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an example of osmoregulation?
A)two solutions that are isotonic
B)the contractile vacuole of a Paramecium
C)type 2 diabetes mellitus
D)all of the above
Q2) Through studies on the Malpighian tubules,researchers found that K accumulated on the inner face of the tubule,against its concentration gradient.What can you infer about the mechanism of transport?
A)Potassium transport is a passive process.
B)Movement of potassium into the lumen of the Malpighian tubules is an energy-requiring process.
C)Potassium moves out of the tubules at a faster rate than it moves into the lumen of the tubules.
D)Sodium ions will follow potassium ions.
Q3) Marine vertebrates are _____ to their environment.
A)isotonic
B)hypotonic
C)hypertonic
D)osmotonic
Q4) Figure 42.1 shows a nephron.Where does filtration take place in the nephron?
Page 44
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Chapter 43: Animal Nutrition
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Q1) What is the importance of consuming an adequate amount of proteins in the diet?
A)They are most commonly used to meet energy demands of cells.
B)Proteins serve a variety of functions,and the body does not store excess quantities of protein.
C)They are used as cofactors for metabolic reactions and are required in minute quantities.
D)Proteins are necessary to produce urea and other important metabolites.
Q2) Food being digested in the stomach is in a highly acidic environment.When the food is released from the stomach into the small intestine,why is the environment no longer acidic?
A)Secretin increases the flow of bicarbonate ions from the pancreas into the small intestine to neutralize the stomach acid.
B)Enterokinase activates trypsinogen,thus neutralizing the stomach acid.
C)Bile salts from the gallbladder neutralize the stomach acid.
D)When pepsinogen activates pepsin,one result is the neutralization of stomach acid in the stomach.
Q3) The electron micrograms in Figure 43.2 are images of mouthparts of different animals.Which of the mouthparts are specialized for crushing and grinding?
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45
Chapter 44: Gas Exchange and Circulation
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Q1) The air pressure in Denver,Colorado,is about 83% of the air pressure in Miami Beach,which is about sea level.Given that the air pressure in Miami Beach is 760 mm Hg and oxygen makes up 21% of the air in Miami Beach,what is the percentage of oxygen and the partial pressure of oxygen in Denver,respectively?
A)21%;21 mm Hg
B)21%;132 mm Hg
C)17.4%;132 mm Hg
D)17.4%;21 mm Hg
Q2) How does lymph differ between closed and open circulatory systems?
A)In a closed system,lymph is always inside of vessels,whereas in an open system,lymph can escape.
B)In a closed system,lymph travels through a set of vessels separate from blood,whereas in an open system,they never separate.
C)In an open system,all the white blood cells are located in lymph only,whereas in a closed system,they are located in blood only.
D)All of the above answers are true concerning lymph.
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Chapter 45: Electrical Signals in Animals
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Q1) Which letter in Figure 45.1 corresponds to a large efflux of K ions from the cell?
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
E)E
Q2) Which letter on Figure 45.1 corresponds to a large influx of Na ions into the cell?
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
E)E
Q3) Most synapses found so far in the mammalian central nervous system (CNS)are classified as chemical rather than electrical.
A)True
B)False
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Page 47
Chapter 46: Animal Sensory Systems and Movement
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Q1) Which type of receptor would you expect to be most abundant in the antennae of a moth?
A)thermoreceptors
B)mechanoreceptors
C)chemoreceptors
D)electroreceptors
E)nociceptors
Q2) Corneal surgery is now routinely performed to improve vision.This surgery _____.
A)improves the circulation of nutrients to the eye
B)improves the focusing of light onto the retina
C)increases the amount of light entering the eye
D)increases the sensitivity of the photoreceptors
E)both improves the focusing of light onto the retina and increases the amount of light entering the eye
Q3) The amount of depolarization that occurs in a sound-receptor cell is proportional to the volume (loudness)of the sound.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 47: Chemical Signals in Animals
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Q1) How are small amounts of hormones amplified?
A)One cAMP molecule stimulates one cAMP-dependent protein kinase A molecule,which activates many molecules of phosphorylase kinase.
B)One cAMP molecule triggers the production of more hormone.
C)One cAMP molecule stimulates several cAMP-dependent protein kinase A molecules,which activates many molecules of phosphorylase kinase.
D)Signal transduction cascades are dependent upon second messenger signaling only in rare cases and only when the hormone in question is a steroid.
Q2) Which of the following is true during a typical cAMP-type signal transduction event?
A)The second messenger is the last part of the system to be activated.
B)The hormone activates the second messenger by directly binding to it.
C)The second messenger amplifies the hormonal response by attracting more hormones to the cell being affected.
D)Adenylyl cyclase is activated after the hormone binds to the cell and before phosphorylation occurs.
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Chapter 48: Animal Reproduction
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Q1) Which of the following is not an example of asexual reproduction?
A)parthenogenesis in lizards
B)budding in sponges
C)binary fission in Amoeba
D)fertilization in Daphnia
Q2) What is a difference between a viviparous and an ovoviviparous species?
A)Viviparous species give birth to live young while ovoviviparous lay a shelled egg that the young hatches from.
B)Ovoviviparous species give birth to live young that were nourished from nutrients in their mother's circulatory system while viviparous species lay shelled eggs that the young hatch from.
C)Ovoviviparous species receive nourishment from the yolk in the egg and the viviparous species receive nourishment from the mother's circulatory system.
D)The eggs of the ovoviviparous species receive additional nutrients from the mother's circulatory system while the eggs of the viviparous species do not.
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Page 50
Chapter 49: The Immune System in Animals
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Q1) What major advantage is conveyed by having a system of adaptive immunity?
A)It enables a rapid defense against an antigen that has been previously encountered.
B)It enables an animal to counter most pathogens almost instantly.
C)It allows for a broad specificity for defense against antigens.
D)It allows for the destruction of antibodies.
Q2) Which of the following is crucial to activation of the adaptive immune response?
A)memory cells
B)presentation of MHC-antigen complex on a cell surface
C)somatic hypermutation
D)phagocytosis of antibody-antigen complex by macrophages in the blood (the humoral response)
Q3) Which lymphocytes act indirectly to produce antibodies?
A)macrophage
B)CD4+ T cell
C)CD8+ T cell
D)B cell
E)all of the above
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Chapter 50: An Introduction to Ecology
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Q1) Based on the data in Figure 50.2,which of the following statements is false?
A)Area 1 has more average precipitation than Area 2.
B)Area 1 would be considered a desert because of its high average temperature.
C)Area 2 would be considered a desert because of its low average precipitation.
D)Area 2 has a large annual temperature variation.
Q2) In which terrestrial area is global warming most likely to allow coniferous trees to encroach?
A)tropical wet forests
B)arctic tundra
C)temperate forests
D)boreal forests
Q3) Theoretically,which would be the most effective way to disrupt a Hadley cell?
A)Remove all equatorial moisture and convection.
B)Extensively water the deserts.
C)Heat the poles.
D)Shift the Sun to apply direct rays 30 degrees south latitude.
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Chapter 51: Behavioral Ecology
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Q1) You have captured a number of rats from a wild population and quickly surmise with tests that they are very good at avoiding food with poisons.What would best explain this observation?
A)Rats are probably just intelligent enough to avoid poison.
B)Rats may experience a large variety of toxins in their environment and learn to avoid them.
C)Rats may learn this behavior from their parents or siblings.
D)Rats may be able to tolerate large amounts of poison.
Q2) Recent research has shown that von Frisch was not completely correct about the difference between the round dance and waggle dance.The new information suggests that _____.
A)the waggle dance communicates information about the quality of the food
B)the round dance communicates direction as well as distance
C)the waggle dance communicates the type of food
D)the round dance communicates the time of day the food will be available
E)the waggle dance communicates the favored food of the hive
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Chapter 52: Population Ecology
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Q1) The regular fluctuations in size of animal populations are termed _____.
A)population cycles
B)population dynamics
C)growth factors
D)all of the above
Q2) Given that fertility rate is defined as each woman producing exactly enough offspring to replace herself and her offspring's father,if the fertility rate is sustained for a generation _____.
A)r = 0 and there is zero population growth
B)0 < r < 1
C)r = 1
D)r > 1
E)population size is at carrying capacity
Q3) Using Figure 52.6,how would you describe the population dynamics of L.vivipara?
A)The population is increasing.
B)The population is decreasing.
C)The population is stable.
D)The figure does not provide this information.
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Chapter 53: Community Ecology
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Q1) What is the term used to describe the process shown in the panels in Figure 53.2,assuming Time 2 follows Time 1?
A)competition
B)species interaction
C)niche differentiation
D)niche realization
Q2) In the hypothesis that C.stellatus (a species of barnacle)is competitively excluded from the lower intertidal zone by B.balanoides (another species of barnacle),what could be concluded about the two species?
A)The fundamental and realized niches of B.balanoides and C.stellatus are both identical.
B)The fundamental and realized niches of B.balanoides and C.stellatus are both different.
C)The fundamental and realized niches of B.balanoides are different,but the fundamental and realized niches of C.stellatus are identical.
D)The fundamental and realized niches of B.balanoides are identical,but the fundamental and realized niches of C.stellatus are different.
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Chapter 54: Ecosystems
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Q1) If plants in a northern temperate area use 26,400 kcal/m² of energy from solar radiation in photosynthesis,and the total amount of solar radiation energy reaching that area is 2,640,000 kcal/m²,what is the overall gross photosynthetic efficiency?
A)0)01%
B)0)1%
C)1%
D)100%
Q2) In Figure 54.6,which number represents secondary production?
A)1)6%
B)17.7%
C)80.7%
D)none of the above
Q3) Which of the following human activities is impacting the water cycle the least?
A)increase in asphalt and concrete surfaces
B)conversion of grasslands and forests into agricultural fields
C)increased processing of salt water to freshwater
D)increases in irrigated agriculture
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Chapter 55: Biodiversity and Conservation Biology
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39 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/28455
Sample Questions
Q1) While traveling in the Alps,you come across a butterfly that you cannot identify.You quickly find out that it is a new species.Which of the following is not a step in studying biodiversity?
A)naming and describing the species
B)measuring general physiology of the species
C)looking at what other species are related to the new species
D)assessing the species geographic range
E)understanding the species ecological requirements
Q2) If the last remaining population of a particular bird species were all highly related,which type of diversity would be of greatest concern when planning to keep the species from going extinct?
A)genetic diversity
B)species diversity
C)ecosystem diversity
D)both genetic and species diversity
E)both species and ecosystem diversity
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