Foundations of Biology Study Guide Questions
Course Introduction
Foundations of Biology offers a comprehensive introduction to the core principles of biological sciences, including cellular structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and organismal biology. The course emphasizes scientific inquiry, experimental design, and critical analysis of biological phenomena. Students explore the molecular mechanisms that underlie life, the diversity and interdependence of living organisms, and the impact of biology on health, society, and the environment. Designed as a fundamental building block for advanced study in biology and related fields, this course provides a strong conceptual framework and hands-on experience through laboratory work and collaborative learning.
Recommended Textbook
Biological Science 4th Edition by Scott Freeman
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Chapter 1: Biology and the Tree of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) In comparison to eukaryotes,prokaryotes _____.
A)are more structurally complex
B)are larger
C)are smaller
D)lack any cell membranes
Answer: C
Q2) On an evolutionary tree,any group that includes a common ancestor and all of its descendants is called monophyletic ("one-tribe").Recall the current evolutionary tree for Bacteria,Archaea,and Eukarya.According to this tree,are all organisms alive today monophyletic?
A)yes
B)no
Answer: A
Q3) Refer to the paragraph on Redi's experiments.What hypothesis was being tested in the initial experiment with open versus sealed jars?
A)Spontaneous generation is more likely during the long days of summer.
B)The type of meat used affects the likelihood of spontaneous generation.
C)Maggots do not arise spontaneously,but from eggs laid by adult flies.
D)Spontaneous generation can occur only if meat is surrounded by air.
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Water and Carbon: the Chemical Basis of Life
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Q1) If you change the number of neutrons in an atom,you create _____.
A)a cation
B)an anion
C)an isotope
D)a different element
Answer: C
Q2) What holds electrons in a covalent bond?
A)It is the fact that two electrons are paired in the same orbital.
B)The electron sharing that occurs makes the atoms involved smaller and more compact.
C)An increase in potential energy,caused by electrical repulsion of the electrons in the bond,holds the electrons.
D)The negative charges on the electrons are attracted by the positive charges on both nuclei.
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Protein Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Refer to Figure 3.1.Which level of structure is being maintained by the disulfide bond?
A)primary
B)secondary
C)tertiary
D)quaternary
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following best describes the first living entity?
A)It was a monomer.
B)It was large and extremely complex.
C)It could make a copy of itself.
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following involves an increase in entropy?
A)hydrolysis
B)condensation
C)polymerization
D)chemical evolution
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Nucleic Acids and the Rna World
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Q1) The work of Bartel's group on the ribozyme RNA replicase supports which conclusion?
A)An RNA world could produce molecules that could self-replicate.
B)Natural selection does not work unless humans are present to help it.
C)DNA must have come before RNA.
D)Life cannot come from nonlife.
Q2) What feature of mononucleotides provides the energy needed for polymerization when nucleic acids are formed?
A)their methyl groups
B)their sugar groups
C)their nitrogenous bases
D)their phosphate groups
Q3) Refer to Nakano's quote.What can be inferred about the free-energy profile for the self-cleavage reaction from the information provided in the paragraph?
A)It must be endergonic.
B)It must be exergonic.
C)It must be endothermic.
D)It must be exothermic.
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Chapter 5: An Introduction to Carbohydrates
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Q1) Carbohydrates have been shown to form _____.
A)only in biotic conditions (inside living cells)
B)in biotic and abiotic conditions,but only if nucleotides and RNA have already formed
C)in biotic and abiotic conditions,including outer space
D)only in biotic conditions,when enough free energy is available to allow their formation
Q2) What is the difference between an aldose sugar and a ketose sugar?
A)the number of carbons
B)the position of the hydroxyl groups
C)the position of the carbonyl group
D)one is a ring form,the other is a linear chain
Q3) Which polysaccharide is an important component in the structure of many animals and fungi?
A)chitin
B)cellulose
C)peptidoglycan
D)amylose
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Chapter 6: Lipids, membranes, and the First Cells
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Q1) Which of the following crosses lipid bilayers the fastest?
A)a sodium ion
B)a small,polar molecule like water
C)a large,polar molecule like glucose
D)a small,nonpolar molecule like oxygen (O )
Q2) Proteorhodopsin consists of a single polypeptide chain.What is the highest level of structure found in this protein?
A)primary
B)secondary
C)tertiary
D)quaternary
Q3) Which of the following functions do lipids provide in a cell?
A)structural
B)cell identification
C)information storage
D)neither structural,cell identification,nor information storage
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Chapter 7: Inside the Cell
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Q1) Which one of the following would you fail to find in a prokaryote?
A)DNA
B)a cell wall
C)a mitochondrion
D)a plasma membrane
Q2) Which of the following macromolecules leaves the nucleus of a eukaryotic cell through the pores in the nuclear membrane?
A)DNA and RNA
B)amino acids
C)mRNA
D)phospholipids
Q3) What can you infer about a high molecular weight protein that cannot be transported into the nucleus?
A)It is too large.
B)It lacks a nuclear localization signal (NLS).
C)It contains errors in its amino acid sequence.
D)It lacks a signal sequence.
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Chapter 8: Cell-Cell Interactions
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Q1) One characteristic of life and living systems is that they are able to adapt.Toward this end,cells interact with other cells and their environment through the action of their
A)plasma membrane and extracellular matrix
B)microtubular tracks
C)hormones
D)intracellular electrical currents
Q2) A G-protein receptor with GTP bound to it _____.
A)is in its active state
B)signals a protein to maintain its shape and conformation
C)will use cGMP as a second messenger
D)directly affects gene expression
Q3) Pemphigus vulgaris is an autoimmune disorder in humans in which antibodies are produced against the cadherins of desmosomes.The blistering of the skin and mucous membranes characteristic of this disorder is probably a result of _____.
A)a decrease in flexibility of the cell membrane
B)an inadequate number of G-protein receptors
C)inadequate production of cytoskeletal proteins
D)a loss in cell-cell adhesion
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Chapter 9: Cellular Respiration and Fermentation
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Q1) Substrate-level phosphorylation occurs within a metabolic pathway where sufficient energy is released by a given chemical reaction to drive the synthesis of ATP from ADP and phosphate.In which of the following metabolic pathways is substrate-level phosphorylation exhibited?
A)in glycolysis
B)in the Krebs cycle
C)in both glycolysis and the Krebs cycle
D)during oxidative phosphorylation
Q2) The energy of electron transport serves to move (translocate)protons to the outer mitochondrial compartment.How does this help the mitochondrion to produce energy?
A)The hydrogen ions (protons)are transferred to oxygen in an energy-releasing reaction.
B)The translocation of protons sets up the electrochemical gradient that drives ATP synthesis in the mitochondria.
C)The protons pick up electrons from the electron transport chain on their way through the inner mitochondrial membrane.
D)The protons receive electrons from the NAD and FAD that are accepted by electrons in glycolysis and the Krebs cycle.
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Photosynthesis
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Q1) The light-independent reactions of plants function to make organic molecules using carbon dioxide as a carbon source.What is the electron source that helps reduce carbon dioxide to sugars and other organic molecules?
A)NADH
B)NADPH
C)ATP
D)electrons from oxygen
Q2) Early investigators thought the oxygen produced by photosynthetic plants came from carbon dioxide.In fact,it comes from _____.
A)water
B)glucose
C)air
D)electrons from NADPH
Q3) What event accompanies energy absorption by chlorophyll (or other pigment molecules of the antenna complex)?
A)ATP is synthesized from the energy absorbed.
B)A carboxylation reaction of the Calvin cycle occurs.
C)Electrons are stripped from NADPH.
D)An electron is excited.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: The Cell Cycle
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Sample Questions
Q1) Some cells have several nuclei per cell.How could such multinucleated cells be explained?
A)The cell underwent repeated cytokinesis but no mitosis.
B)The cell underwent repeated mitosis with simultaneous cytokinesis.
C)The cell underwent repeated mitosis,but cytokinesis did not occur.
D)The cell had multiple S phases before it entered mitosis.
Q2) Metaphase occurs prior to the splitting of centromeres.It is characterized by _____.
A)aligning of chromosomes on the equator
B)splitting of the centromeres
C)cytokinesis
D)separation of sister chromatids
Q3) How might spindle microtubules assist in the process of splitting centromeres?
A)the use of motor proteins to split the centromere at specific arginine residues
B)creating tension by pulling toward opposite poles
C)sliding past each other like actin filaments
D)phosphorylating the centromere,thereby changing its conformation
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Chapter 12: Meiosis
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Q1) What is a major difference between mitosis and meiosis I?
A)Sister chromatids separate in mitosis,and homologues separate in meiosis I.
B)DNA replication takes place prior to mitosis,but not before meiosis I.
C)Sister chromatids separate in mitosis,and homologues separate in meiosis II.
D)Only meiosis I results in daughter cells that contain identical genetic information.
Q2) Genetic recombination takes place in which of the following processes?
A)prophase II of meiosis
B)alignment of tetrads in metaphase I
C)crossing over
D)random alignment of homologous chromosomes in meiosis I
Q3) What is a major difference between meiosis II and mitosis?
A)Homologues align on the metaphase plate in meiosis II.
B)Sister chromatids separate in mitosis,and homologues separate in meiosis II.
C)Meiosis II takes place in a haploid cell,while mitosis takes place in diploid cells.
D)Crossover takes place in meiosis II.
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Chapter 13: Mendel and the Gene
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Sample Questions
Q1) Phenylketonuria is an inherited disease caused by a recessive autosomal allele.If a woman and her husband are both carriers,what is the probability that their first child will be a phenotypically normal girl?
A)1/4
B)1/16
C)1)0
D)3/16
E)3/8
Q2) A heterozygous,but phenotypically wild-type fruit fly (gray body color and normal wings)was mated to a black fly with vestigial wings.The offspring had the following phenotypic distribution:
Wild type,720;black-vestigial,780;black-normal,280;gray-vestigial,220.What conclusion is likely from these results?
A)The black and vestigial loci assort independently from each other.
B)The black and vestigial loci are allelic.
C)Epistasis has modified a 9:3:3:1 ratio.
D)The black and vestigial loci are linked.
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Chapter 14: Dna and the Gene: Synthesis and Repair
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Sample Questions
Q1) DNA is synthesized through a process known as _____.
A)semiconservative replication
B)conservative replication
C)translation
D)transcription
Q2) Semiconservative replication involves a template.What is the template?
A)single-stranded binding proteins
B)DNA polymerase contains the template needed.
C)one strand of the DNA molecule
D)an RNA molecule
Q3) DNA replication is highly accurate.It results in about one mistake per billion nucleotides.For the human genome,how often would errors occur?
A)on average,once or twice in the lifetime of an individual
B)on average,6 times each time the entire genome of a cell is replicated
C)on average,once every 6 cell divisions
D)on average,once a lifetime in 10% of the population
Q4) Which of the following cells do not have active telomerase activity?
A)most normal somatic cells
B)most normal germ cells
C)most cancer cells
Page 16
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Chapter 15: How Genes Work
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Q1) In the process of transcription,_____.
A)DNA is replicated
B)RNA is synthesized
C)proteins are synthesized
D)mRNA attaches to ribosomes
Q2) What molecule serves as a link between the information-containing macromolecule,DNA,and protein synthesis?
A)rRNA
B)tRNA
C)mRNA
D)ribosome
Q3) Refer to Figure 15.2.In the branched metabolic pathway,if enzyme 3 is defective and the amount of each enzyme is constant,you might expect to see an increase in the amount of which intermediate/product?
A)E
B)F
C)D
D)A
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Chapter 16: Transcription and Translation
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Q1) Ribosomes can attach to prokaryotic messenger RNA _____.
A)once post-transcriptional modification is complete
B)before transcription is complete
C)once replication is complete
D)once the primary transcript has been released from RNA polymerase
Q2) What molecule in the spliceosome lowers the activation energy so intron removal reactions can occur?
A)RNA polymerase
B)ribozymes
C)proteins of the spliceosome
D)autocatalysis by introns
Q3) Which molecule or reaction supplies the energy for polymerization of nucleotides in the process of transcription?
A)the interaction between RNA polymerase and the promoter
B)the phosphate bonds in the nucleotide triphosphates that serve as substrates
C)the energy released when hydrogen bonds are broken as the DNA molecule is unwound
D)ATP only
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Chapter 17: Control of Gene Expression in Bacteria
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Q1) Catabolite activator protein (CAP)activity is controlled by cAMP at the _____ level.
A)transcriptional
B)translational
C)post-translational
Q2) E.coli adenylyl cyclase is most active when _____.
A)extracellular glucose levels are low
B)intracellular levels of lactose are low
C)intracellular levels of lactose are high
D)intracellular levels of cAMP are high
Q3) Bacterial and eukaryotic cells primarily control gene expression at the level of transcription.If instead cells exerted control of gene expression primarily at the post-translational level,what would be different?
A)The ability to rapidly respond to environmental change would be reduced.
B)Cells would expend significantly more energy.
C)Genes would no longer be transcribed.
D)Translation of mRNA into protein would not occur.
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Chapter 18: Control of Gene Expression in Eukaryotes
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Q1) Imagine that you are studying the control of -globin gene expression in immature red blood cells (mature red blood cells contain -globin protein but lack a nucleus and therefore the -globin gene).If you deleted a sequence of DNA outside the protein-coding region of the -globin gene and found that this increased the rate of transcription,the deleted sequence likely functions as a(n)_____.
A)promoter
B)promoter-proximal element
C)enhancer
D)silencer
E)any of the above
Q2) One way to detect alternative splicing of transcripts from a given gene is to _____.
A)compare the DNA sequence of this gene to that of a gene known to be constitutively spliced
B)measure the relative rates of transcription of this gene compared to that of a gene known to be constitutively spliced
C)compare the sequences of different primary transcripts made from this gene
D)compare the sequences of different mRNAs made from this gene
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Analyzing and Engineering Genes
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Q1) What information is critical to the success of PCR itself?
A)The DNA sequence of the ends of the DNA to be amplified must be known.
B)The complete DNA sequence of the DNA to be amplified must be known.
C)The sequence of restriction enzyme recognition sites in the DNA to be amplified must be known.
D)The sequence of restriction enzyme recognition sites in the DNA to be amplified and in the plasmid where the amplified DNA fragment will be cloned must be known.
Q2) Which type of disorder is most difficult to correct by gene therapy?
A)a dominant disorder
B)an incompletely dominant disorder
C)a recessive disorder
D)Disorders showing all these forms of dominance present equal challenges.
Q3) In a single PCR cycle consisting of 15 seconds at 94°C,30 seconds at 50°C,and 1 min at 72°C,what is happening in the step run at 50°C?
A)The DNA to be amplified is being denatured.
B)Primers are being denatured.
C)DNA polymerase is extending new DNA from the primers.
D)Primers are annealing to the DNA to be amplified.
E)DNA polymerase is being inactivated.
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Genomics
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Q1) Refer to the paragraph on the Venter et al.paper and Table 20.1 Because DNAs for sequencing were chosen at random with no way of knowing which organism they came from,how could genes be identified?
A)by searching for ORFs,especially those with translation start and stop sites
B)by searching for similarity between predicted ORFs and those in existing databases
C)by searching for exons bounded by consensus donor and acceptor splice sites (those that mark exon/intron boundaries)
D)by searching for ORFs,particularly those with translation start and stop sites,as well as for similarity between predicted ORFs and those in existing databases
E)by searching for ORFs,particularly those with translation start and stop sites;for similarity between predicted ORFs and those in existing databases;and for exons bounded by consensus donor and acceptor splice sites (those that mark exon/intron boundaries)
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Chapter 21: Principles of Development
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Q1) Communication within and between cells of an embryo can include all of the following except _____.
A)increased concentration of signaling molecules
B)changes in binding to regulatory sequences
C)changes in gene transcription
D)changes in gene sequences
Q2) Programmed cell death,apoptosis,plays a major role in all of the following developmental situations except: _____.
A)growth of nerves and blood vessels into a body segment
B)sculpting of digits in the developing hindlimb
C)growth of the atrial septum in the four-chambered mammalian heart
D)disappearance of the embryonic tail in developing humans
Q3) Suppose you found several Drosophila mutants that possessed additional legs growing out of their head segments.The probable mutation would be found in _____.
A)segment-polarity genes
B)gap genes
C)pair-rule genes
D)homeotic genes
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Chapter 22: An Introduction to Animal Development
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Q1) What would be one clue that you are observing cell differentiation in a frog embryo?
A)Somites are forming as distinct masses on either side of the neural tube.
B)Cells of the lateral mesoderm are undergoing rapid cell division.
C)Cells of the primitive retina are beginning to synthesize pigment molecules.
D)The embryo has developed a chambered heart.
Q2) Scientists using RNA in situ hybridization techniques observed that a transcription factor called macho-1 localized to some cells during early cleavage,but not others.Descendents of these cells expressing macho-1 produce mesodermal tissues.If you prevented the expression of macho-1 in an embryo during cleavage,which structures might you expect to be absent in later development?
A)neural tube
B)somites
C)digestive system
D)skin
Q3) The function of the acrosomal complex during fertilization is _____.
A)to block polyspermy
B)to dissolve the coating of the egg
C)to nourish the sperm mitochondria
D)to permit maximum sperm motility
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Chapter 23: An Introduction to Plant Development
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Q1) The basal cell in a plant embryo _____.
A)develops from the root of the embryo
B)forms the suspensor that anchors the embryo
C)differentiates after gastrulation
D)divides to form cotyledons
E)divides to form hypocotyls
Q2) Interactions between proteins on the surface of the pollen grain and on the surface of the stigma are necessary for fertilization to proceed.What is the correct sequence of events that follow this interaction?
A)growth of pollen tube,double fertilization,formation of sperm
B)formation of sperm,growth of pollen tube,double fertilization
C)double fertilization,growth of pollen tube,formation of sperm
D)formation of sperm,double fertilization,growth of pollen tube
E)growth of pollen tube,formation of sperm,double fertilization
Q3) Plant embryos do not undergo the developmental processes of _____.
A)fertilization
B)cleavage
C)embryogenesis
D)gastrulation
E)organogenesis
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Chapter 24: Evolution by Natural Selection
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Q1) After the drought of 1977,researchers hypothesized that on Daphne Major,medium ground finches with large,deep beaks survived better than those with smaller beaks did because they could more easily crack and eat the tough Tribulus cistoides fruits.If this hypothesis is true,what would you expect to observe if a population of these medium ground finches colonizes a nearby island where Tribulus cistoides is the primary available food in all years?
Assume that (1)even the survivors of the 1977 drought sometimes had difficulty cracking the tough T.cistoides fruits and would eat other seeds when offered a choice;and (2)food availability is the primary limit on finch fitness on this new island.
A)evolution of yet larger,deeper beaks over time
B)evolution of smaller,pointier beaks over time
C)random fluctuations in beak size and shape
D)no change in beak size and shape
Q2) An individual with a novel adaptation has evolved that adaptation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: Evolutionary Processes
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Q1) Mutation is the only evolutionary mechanism that _____.
A)does little to change allele frequencies
B)decreases fitness
C)is more important in eukaryotes than in prokaryotes
D)happens in all populations
E)has no effect on genetic variation
Q2) Examine Figure 25.2.What type of selection for body size appears to be occurring in these marine iguanas?
A)directional selection
B)stabilizing selection
C)disruptive selection
D)You cannot determine the type of selection from the above information.
Q3) A beneficial point mutation occurs in a plant ovule,which is fertilized.The seed matures,falls to the ground,and starts to grow.Is the plant's population likely to show evolutionary change as a result of this mutation? Why or why not?
Q4) Which sex typically has more extreme sex-selected characteristics: males or females? Why? Give an example.
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Chapter 26: Speciation
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Q1) Refer to the paragraph about the formation of the Isthmus of Panama.If the isthmus formed gradually rather than suddenly,what pattern of genetic divergence would you expect to find in these species pairs?
A)similar percentages of difference in DNA sequence between all pairs of sister species
B)greater percentage of difference in DNA sequence between species that inhabit deep water than between species that inhabit shallow water
C)greater percentage of difference in DNA sequence between species that inhabit shallow water than between species that inhabit deep water
Q2) Two groups of lizards that have long been living in allopatry have recently been reintroduced in the wild.When members of opposite groups mate,the hybrids are almost always inviable.Which of the following could be expected to occur over the long term if the populations remain in sympatry?
A)Hybrid sterility will eventually also develop.
B)Gene flow will reunite the groups into a single species.
C)Hybrids will become prevalent now that the groups are not isolated.
D)Behavioral forms of isolation will develop.
E)There is not enough information to decide which of these will happen.
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Chapter 27: Phylogenies and the History of Life
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Q1) Which value(s)would be required to calculate how long ago the most recent ancestor of ungulates lived?
A)the number of base pairs that differ among species in a certain genetic sequence
B)the total number of base pairs in the genetic sequence examined
C)the age of a fossil ancestor for calibration
D)all of the above
Q2) The phenetic approach to estimating phylogenetic trees is most like the approach of which species concept?
A)morphospecies concept
B)biological species concept
C)phylogenetic species concept
Q3) Which of the following would be least likely in the fossil record?
A)burrowing species
B)marine-dwelling species
C)marsh-dwelling species
D)desert-dwelling species
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Chapter 28: Bacteria and Archaea
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Q1) Some researchers have begun attempting to clean up oil spills by adding nonindigenous microbial hydrocarbon degraders to the spill,in the hopes that these bacteria will neutralize the dangerous chemicals in the spill.This is an example of _____.
A)bioremediation via fertilization
B)seeding
C)production of a new antibiotic
D)use of extremophiles for cleanup of organic solvents
Q2) What is the major goal of cellular respiration?
A)reduce an electron acceptor molecule
B)supply cell with fixed carbon
C)produce ATP
D)generate O
E)utilize glucose
Q3) What organisms are most numerous on Earth?
A)eukaryotes
B)archaea
C)prokaryotes
D)plants
E)insects
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Page 30
Chapter 29: Protists
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Q1) Plankton is comprised of photosynthetic protists and bacteria.What is the primary importance of plankton to humans?
A)They are food for many marine organisms that humans eat.
B)They release a lot of carbon dioxide into the atmosphere.
C)They contribute to the formation of anaerobic dead zones in the oceans.
D)They form the basic building blocks in the formation of petroleum (oil).
Q2) You discover a new species of protist.Which of the following characteristics would provide the strongest evidence for your hypothesis that your species belongs in Euglenida?
A)It is photosynthetic.
B)It contains the carbohydrate paramylon.
C)It reproduces asexually.
D)It is unicellular.
E)It lacks a cell wall.
Q3) Which of the following statements is consistent with the assertion that protists are paraphyletic?
A)Some protists evolved into other eukaryotic groups.
B)Protists all share a common set of synapomorphies.
C)Protists are all more primitive than land plants and animals.
D)Protists do not share a single common ancestor.
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Chapter 30: Green Plants
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Q1) Which of these are structures in a gametophyte generation?
A)leaves,stems,roots,flowers,cones
B)spores,egg,sperm,pollen,archegonium
C)antheridium,embryo,seed,spores,flower
D)egg,sperm,zygote,embryo,seedling
Q2) The most direct ancestors of land plants were probably _____.
A)any of the green algae that live in water
B)certain groups of algae
C)photosynthesizing prokaryotes (cyanobacteria)
D)liverworts and mosses
Q3) Plants are the primary providers of oxygen,which is obtained by the reduction of carbon dioxide.What chemical donates the electrons needed for CO reduction?
A)sunlight
B)glucose
C)water
D)carbon monoxide
E)oxygen
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Chapter 31: Fungi
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Q1) Which of the following is an important role for fungi in the carbon cycle?
A)Fungi help release fixed carbon back to the environment for other plants and photosynthetic organisms to utilize.
B)One of fungi's main roles is to provide already fixed carbon to plants that the plants then use for the production of cellular tissues.
C)Fungi get involved in the fixation of carbon by undergoing photosynthesis.
D)Fungi reduce atmospheric carbon dioxide.
Q2) Many amphibian populations have been decimated by a parasitic fungi belonging to which lineage?
A)Chytridiomycota
B)Ascomycota
C)Basidiomycota
D)Zygomycota
E)Glomeromycota
Q3) Which fungal class is not matched with its most common habitat?
A)EMF northern coniferous forests
B)EMF warm climate forests
C)AMF tropics
D)AMF grasslands
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Page 33
Chapter 32: An Introduction to Animals
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Q1) Comb jellies may not be the most familiar animal to you,but they are critical in the food chain because they make up a significant portion of the planktonic biomass.Their feeding strategy is predatory and involves adhesives or mucus on their tentacles or other body parts.What feeding tactic do these animals use?
A)suspension feeder
B)fluid feeder
C)deposit feeder
D)food-mass feeder
Q2) Dll is a gene known to direct limb development in the fruit fly.Researchers studying this gene have found that it is also expressed in developing appendages in animals from many other phyla as well,supporting the hypothesis that all animal appendages may be homologous.However,suppose researchers looking at Dll activity had instead found the results shown in Figure 32.4.What would these results suggest?
A)Dll is not actually involved in appendage development.
B)Appendages evolved separately in protostomes and deuterostomes.
C)Appendages coevolved with segmentation.
D)All animal appendages are homologous.
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Page 34
Chapter 33: Protostome Animals
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Q1) Which one of these groups does not molt?
A)Crustaceans
B)Arthropods
C)Mollusks
D)Chelicerata
E)Nematoda
Q2) Look at the graph for Scutigerina weberi (note the scale of the y-axis)in Figure
33.2.What is the best interpretation of these results?
A)The centipede had its spiracles open the entire time.
B)The centipede had its spiracles closed the entire time.
C)The centipede had its spiracles open when CO emission peaked and closed when CO emission was low.
D)The centipede had its spiracles closed when CO emission peaked and open when CO emission was low.
Q3) Among protostomes,which morphological trait has shown the most variation?
A)type of symmetry (bilateral vs.radial vs.none)
B)type of body cavity (coelom vs.pseudocoelom vs.acoelom)
C)number of embryonic tissue types (diploblasty vs.triploblasty)
D)direction of gastrulation (protostome vs.deuterostome)
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Deuterostome Animals
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Q1) Mammals and birds eat more often than reptiles.Which of the following traits shared by mammals and birds best explains this habit?
A)endothermy
B)ectothermy
C)insulating body cover
D)amniotic egg
E)terrestrial
Q2) Which of the following is found in tetrapods and not in fish?
A)extensive parental care
B)asexual reproduction
C)internal fertilization
D)viviparity
E)production of amniotic eggs
Q3) How did the development of the jaw contribute to evolutionary diversification of early vertebrate lineages?
A)It allowed for larger body size.
B)It was the first stage in the development of a bony skull.
C)It paved the way for the evolution of the pharyngeal jaw.
D)It made additional food sources available.
E)It increased the surface area for respiration and feeding.
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Chapter 35: Viruses
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Q1) You believe that you have isolated a new strain of positive-sense,single-stranded RNA virus and set about studying it in your laboratory.Which of the following lines of evidence would most strongly support your hypothesis that the virus is a [+]ssRNA?
A)The virions are diploid.
B)You sequence the bases in both the viral RNA and the mRNA and find them to be antiparallel.
C)Introducing a protease inhibitor causes the virus to stop producing proteins and reproducing.
D)Introducing a reverse transcriptase inhibitor slows down the growth of the virus.
Q2) When people die from HIV infections,it is usually because _____.
A)they have too many HIV particles in their lymphatic system,which causes it to shut down
B)they have too few T cells to adequately fight infection
C)they have too many T cells,and this overwhelms their immune systems
D)the body diverts too much energy toward replenishing lost T cells
E)the virions (virus particles)destroy the host cells;as the number of virions increases the host loses too many cells to survive
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Page 37
Chapter 36: Plant Form and Function
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Q1) In an annual ring,the first-formed cells in the spring are large;the ring looks light because you are seeing open cavities of the tracheids (and vessel elements).The darker part of the annual ring is wood formed in the summer,and the diameter of the cells formed is smaller.Which kind of wood is probably stronger? Why? Where is the fall and winter wood?
Q2) What is the advantage of having small,needlelike leaves?
A)increase in transpiration rate
B)decrease in transpiration rate
C)increased efficiency of light capture
D)decreased efficiency of light capture
E)better protection against insects and herbivores
Q3) Some of the largest leaves in the world can be found on plants in dense tropical rain forests.Which of the following is an input of one of the sets of photosynthetic reactions that is most likely limited in the habitat of these plants with large leaves?
A)O
B)CO
C)water
D)carbohydrate (e.g. ,glucose)
E)light
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Water and Sugar Transport in Plants
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Q1) Which of the following is a similarity between xylem and phloem transport?
A)Many cells in both tissues have sieve plates.
B)Expenditure of energy from ATP is required.
C)Transpiration is required for both processes.
D)Bulk flow of water is involved.
Q2) Which of the following observations provides the strongest evidence against root pressure being the principal mechanism of water transport in the xylem?
A)Not all soils have high concentrations of ions.
B)It requires movement of water into the xylem from surrounding cells in the roots.
C)Over long distances,the force of root pressure is not enough to overcome the force of gravity.
D)It requires development of a water potential gradient between roots and shoots.
Q3) How does a flaccid cell differ from a turgid cell?
A)Flaccid cell has higher pressure potential.
B)Flaccid cell has lower pressure potential.
C)Flaccid cell has higher solute potential.
D)Flaccid cell has lower solute potential.
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Chapter 38: Plant Nutrition
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Q1) Which of the following is not true about an essential nutrient?
A)It is necessary for plant growth and reproduction.
B)It is required for a specific structure or metabolic function.
C)It cannot be synthesized by a plant.
D)It is produced by symbiotic bacteria.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q2) Iron shortage is the most common human nutritional deficiency in the world.Plants are the major source of iron in most diets,so researchers are interested in understanding their mechanism of iron intake and in developing iron-rich crops.Recently researchers showed (Vert et al. ,IRT1,an Arabidopsis transporter essential for iron uptake from the soil and for plant growth.Plant Cell 14 [2002]: 1223-33)that under iron-deficient conditions,the IRT1 gene is responsible for most of the iron uptake activity in roots.To demonstrate the importance of IRT1 for iron accumulation,researchers measured leaf iron content in irt1-1 mutants containing deactivated IRT1.Mutant plants were grown in iron-poor soil (irt1-1 in graph)and soil rich with iron (irt1-1 +Fe in graph).Wild-type (WT)plants grown in iron-poor soil were used as a control.Which of the graphs represent the data researchers might have received in their experiment?
Q3) Give two reasons that relatively few plants thrive in bogs.
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Page 40
Chapter 39: Plant Sensory Systems, signals, and Responses
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Q1) Figure 39.3 is a Northern blot showing the expression of Myb mRNA in cultured aleurone layer cells that were treated with gibberellin versus control cells that were not treated with gibberellin.Only the gibberellin-treated cells expressed the Myb mRNA,but the Myb mRNA was not detectable until 6-12 hours after gibberellin application.Why did it take so long?
A)Gibberellin had to bind to a receptor and initiate a signal transduction cascade that in turn had to activate a transcription factor that triggered the transcription of the Myb gene.
B)Gibberellin had to diffuse into the aleurone layer cells and be metabolized in order to trigger activation of a transcription factor that triggered transcription of the Myb gene.
C)Gibberellin had to enter the cells and find the Myb gene among the large plant genome.
Q2) If a Venus flytrap were treated with a drug that inhibited the H -ATPase,which of the following would likely happen?
A)Its cells would become depolarized.
B)It would not be able to close its flytraps.
C)It would not be able to reopen its flytraps once closed.
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Chapter 40: Plant Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Refer to the paragraph on whitebark pine seed dispersal by Clark's nutcracker.Pines,including the whitebark pine,are pioneer-type trees.Which disperal conditions would be best for high germination rates and seedling survival?
A)animals that eat and deposit seeds in feces under trees
B)animals that cache the seeds in a field dominated by grasses
C)animals that cache the seeds under shrubs
D)birds that cache the seeds close to adult trees
Q2) Endosperm is a major part of monocot seeds.In most dicots,_____.
A)the same thing is true;there is a substantial amount of endosperm
B)endosperm never even starts to form after double fertilization
C)endosperm nutrients are repackaged into the cotyledons
D)endosperm replaces cotyledons in the seed
Q3) Charles Darwin experimented with reactions of grass seedlings (monocots)relative to applied auxin (a plant hormone)and light.He used the youngest seedlings with a structure that dicots do not have.What is the name of that structure?
A)coleoptile
B)cotyledons
C)radicle
D)seed coat
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Page 42
Chapter 41: Animal Form and Function
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Q1) Which of the following is a true statement about body size and physiology?
A)The amount of food and oxygen an animal requires and the amount of heat and waste it produces are inversely proportional to its mass.
B)The rate at which an animal uses nutrients and produces waste products is independent of its volume.
C)Small and large animals face different physiological challenges because an animal's body mass increases cubically while its surface area increases as a squared function.
D)The wastes produced by an animal double as its volume doubles,and triple as its surface area triples.
Q2) What is the main reason that a person sitting on the beach with an air temperature of 15°C loses heat less rapidly than when immersed in lake water at 15°C?
A)Water conducts heat more efficiently than air does.
B)Water evaporates,and heat is lost to evaporation.
C)Metabolic heat production is greater in air than in water.
D)Air is a poor insulator.
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43
Chapter 42: Water and Electrolyte Balance in Animals
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Q1) Tissues of sharks are isotonic to seawater,but their concentrations of sodium ions,potassium ions,and chloride ions in cells and extracellular fluids are similar to those of freshwater fishes.What can you infer about the movement of sodium and chloride in these animals?
A)To maintain homeostasis of sodium and chloride levels,the shark must take up additional sodium and chloride from seawater.
B)Sodium and chloride will diffuse through shark gills from seawater down their concentration gradient.
C)Sharks conserve sodium and chloride,limiting excretion.
D)Sodium and chloride must be eliminated through the gills.
Q2) How does ion composition of pre-urine differ from hemolymph?
A)Pre-urine is significantly higher in osmolarity (especially with respect to Na and K ).
B)Hemolymph is higher in osmolarity,conserving its Cl .
C)Pre-urine is similar to hemolymph in ion composition.
D)The protein pumps and channels of the Malpighian tubules concentrate Cl in the pre-urine.
Q3) Figure 42.1 shows a nephron.Where does filtration take place in the nephron?
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Chapter 43: Animal Nutrition
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Q1) If you found a skull in the woods and the teeth were fang-like,what type of food would you expect this animal to eat?
A)grass
B)flesh of another animal
C)nectar
D)blood
Q2) When a patient has his gallbladder removed,which of the following food types would a doctor recommend this patient consume in lower quantities?
A)protein
B)carbohydrates
C)fat
D)fat and carbohydrates
Q3) What is the importance of consuming an adequate amount of proteins in the diet?
A)They are most commonly used to meet energy demands of cells.
B)Proteins serve a variety of functions,and the body does not store excess quantities of protein.
C)They are used as cofactors for metabolic reactions and are required in minute quantities.
D)Proteins are necessary to produce urea and other important metabolites.
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Page 45
Chapter 44: Gas Exchange and Circulation
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Q1) Which of the following events would be predicted by the Bohr shift effect as the amount of carbon dioxide released from your tissues into the blood capillaries increases?
A)The amount of oxygen in arterial blood would increase.
B)The amount of oxygen in arterial blood would decrease.
C)The amount of oxygen in venous blood would increase.
D)The amount of oxygen in venous blood would decrease.
E)More than one of the above is true.
Q2) In what way does hemoglobin act as a buffer against changes in blood pH?
A)Subsequent binding of oxygen is drastically reduced after the first one is bound.
B)Hemoglobin binds some of the excess protons released by carbonic acid.
C)Hemoglobin produces protons or hydroxide ions as needed to alter the blood pH.
D)Hemoglobin removes excess protons from the red blood cells so that they can be excreted through the kidneys.
E)All of the above answers apply.
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Chapter 45: Electrical Signals in Animals
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Q1) Patients with dysautonomia (autonomic nervous system disorders)will show symptoms in all of the following except _____.
A)airway diameter
B)contraction of skeletal muscles
C)heart rate
D)pupil dilation and constriction
E)stomach activity
Q2) The axons of most neurons contain just one type of sodium channel,but several types of potassium channels.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which letter on Figure 45.1 corresponds to the action of the sodium-potassium pump and potassium leak channels?
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
E)E
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Chapter 46: Animal Sensory Systems and Movement
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Q1) Two students studying physiology taste a known "bitter" substance,and both report sensing bitterness.They then sample another substance.Student A reports sensing both a bitter taste and a salty taste,but student B reports only a salty taste.What is the most logical explanation?
A)Student A had an allergic reaction to the food,causing him to perceive the food as being bitter.
B)Student A has normal "bitter" taste buds;student B has defective "bitter" taste buds that result in lower sensitivity to bitterness.
C)Student A has a protein receptor capable of detecting a bitter molecule found in that substance,whereas student B lacks that particular protein receptor.
D)Student A has normal saliva,whereas student B's saliva is more alkaline than normal.
Q2) Compared to human eyes,the eyes of cephalopods (squid and octopus)_____.
A)are extremely similar,with no significant differences
B)are not camera eyes and do not have a single lens
C)are inferior because they have few photoreceptors
D)do not have a blind spot
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Chapter 47: Chemical Signals in Animals
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Q1) All of the following are examples of amplification of a hormone signal except _____.
A)epinephrine initiates an enzyme cascade
B)steroids bind hormone-response elements in the cell and initiate gene transcription
C)0)09 mg of growth hormone leads to a 10,000-mg weight gain in a cow
D)different cell types have different receptors capable of binding the same hormone
Q2) Which of these glands is located within the abdominal cavity?
A)thyroid
B)adrenal
C)parathyroid
D)pancreas
E)all of the above
Q3) Patients diagnosed with hypercortisolism may have tumors that secrete _____.
A)growth hormone
B)ACTH
C)estrogen
D)leptin
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Page 49
Chapter 48: Animal Reproduction
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Q1) Which of the following correctly describes the reproduction of males in Daphnia?
A)Daphnia males are produced asexually from unfertilized eggs.
B)Daphnia males are produced sexually through fertilization of eggs but are sterile from birth.
C)Daphnia males are produced from a pseudo-sexual union of two eggs.
D)Daphnia males are produced asexually but are sterile from birth.
Q2) Secretions from which part of the male reproductive anatomy in humans produces molecules that stimulate smooth muscle contractions in the uterus of females?
A)prostate gland
B)seminal vesicles
C)bulbourethral gland
D)testes
Q3) How does the Pill work to prevent pregnancy?
A)It is a barrier between the vagina and the cervix.
B)It delivers progesterone leading the ovary to discontinue ovulating a new oocyte.
C)It produces an acidic environment for sperm.
D)It discourages fertilization.
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Chapter 49: The Immune System in Animals
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Q1) Which of the following statements is not true of epitopes?
A)B-cell receptors bind to epitopes.
B)T-cell receptors bind to epitopes.
C)There can be 10 or more different epitopes on each antigen.
D)There is a one-to-one correspondence between antigen and epitope.
Q2) Which of the following is a difference between B cells and T cells?
A)One has a major role in antibody production,while the other has a major role in cytotoxicity.
B)One uses a receptor called BCR,while the other recognizes a receptor called TCR.
C)B cells are activated by free-floating antigens in the blood or lymph.T cells are activated by membrane-bound antigens.
D)T cells are produced in the thymus and B cells are produced in the bone marrow.
Q3) Which of the following is crucial to activation of the adaptive immune response?
A)memory cells
B)presentation of MHC-antigen complex on a cell surface
C)somatic hypermutation
D)phagocytosis of antibody-antigen complex by macrophages in the blood (the humoral response)
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Chapter 50: An Introduction to Ecology
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Q1) Which of the following organisms is likely to have the widest geographic distribution?
A)bacteria
B)Thermus aquaticus bacteria
C)polar bears
D)cheetahs
E)songbirds
Q2) Based on the data in Figure 50.2,which of the following statements is false?
A)Area 1 has more average precipitation than Area 2.
B)Area 1 would be considered a desert because of its high average temperature.
C)Area 2 would be considered a desert because of its low average precipitation.
D)Area 2 has a large annual temperature variation.
Q3) In Figure 50.1,which number would designate the biome with the highest variation in annual precipitation? A)1
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52
Chapter 51: Behavioral Ecology
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Q1) You have captured a number of rats from a wild population and quickly surmise with tests that they are very good at avoiding food with poisons.What would best explain this observation?
A)Rats are probably just intelligent enough to avoid poison.
B)Rats may experience a large variety of toxins in their environment and learn to avoid them.
C)Rats may learn this behavior from their parents or siblings.
D)Rats may be able to tolerate large amounts of poison.
Q2) What was the main reason the honeybees switched from the "round dance" to the "waggle dance"?
A)The waggle dance communicates the presence of nectar.
B)The preferred food source was farther away.
C)The round dance uses too much energy.
D)The round dance did not communicate the quality of the food.
Q3) Which animal is best known for migration using chemotaxis?
A)pigeons
B)arctic terns
C)salmon
D)monarch butterflies
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Page 53
Chapter 52: Population Ecology
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Q1) Figure 52.9 shows the age structure of Common Primrose populations as they change over time.One of the populations is growing under high light conditions and the other under low light.Based on the graphs in Figure 52.9,which graph,(a)or (b),represents a population growing in high light availability?
A)(a)
B)(b)
C)cannot tell with this information
Q2) Which of these terms defines how the organism allocates resources to growth,reproduction,and activities or structures related to survival?
A)resource allocation
B)life history
C)energy budget
D)demography
Q3) Which of the following statements about the graphs in Figure 52.9 is false?
A)Primrose populations in large gaps (high light)have many juveniles.
B)Primrose populations in small gaps (low light)have few juveniles.
C)The age structure of primrose determines the gap size.
D)All of the above statements are true.
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Chapter 53: Community Ecology
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Q1) In Figure 53.5,which individuals are displaying Batesian mimicry?
A)the Paper Wasp,Bumblebee,and Honeybee
B)the Hornet Moth,Wasp Beetle,and Hoverfly
C)All of the insects are displaying Batesian mimicry.
D)None of the insects are displaying Batesian mimicry.
Q2) People with at least one copy of the HLA-B53 gene are better able to beat back malarial infections before the infection progresses.If this is a coevolutionary arms race between Plasmodium and humans,what would the next step in this race be?
A)to see humans with more than one copy of the HLA-B53 gene
B)to see humans without the HLA-B53 gene
C)to see Plasmodium populations that counter the HLA-B53 gene
D)to see Plasmodium populations that have the HLA-B53 gene
E)to see a mutation in the HLA-B53 gene that makes it more effective against malarial infections
Q3) In Figure 53.3,which species is the stronger competitor?
A)species 1
B)species 2
C)Both species compete equally.
D)It is not possible to tell from this figure.
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Page 55
Chapter 54: Ecosystems
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Q1) In Figure 54.6,which number represents secondary production?
A)1)6%
B)17.7%
C)80.7%
D)none of the above
Q2) What is the main reason for using food webs instead of food chains in analyzing ecosystems?
A)Most organisms eat more than one type of food.
B)Most organisms feed at several trophic levels.
C)The decomposition cycle needs to be shown.
D)Most organisms eat more than one type of food and feed at several trophic levels.
E)Most organisms eat more than one type of food and feed at several trophic levels.The decomposition cycle needs to be shown.
Q3) Detritus can be consumed by which of the following primary decomposers?
A)bacteria
B)archaea
C)fungi
D)earthworms
E)all of the above
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Chapter 55: Biodiversity and Conservation Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to Figure 55.5,what is occurring after 1985?
A)The population is increasing exponentially.
B)The population is increasing.
C)The population growth rate is increasing.
D)The sheep are beginning to adapt to the resources available.
Q2) Erwin and Scott used an insecticidal fog to knock down insects from the top of a L.seemannii tree.The researchers identified over 900 species of beetles among the individuals that fell.Erwin also projected that this entire tree is host to about 600 specialist arthropods.There are approximately 50,000 species of tropical trees.Although it could not be entirely accurate,what would be the best way to estimate the total number of arthropod species?
A)Estimate the species density and then multiply by 50,000.
B)Multiply 900 by 50,000.
C)Multiply 600 by 50,000.
D)Divide 900 by 600 and then multiply by 50,000.
Q3) Which of the following statements regarding extinction is false?
A)Only certain species are immune from extinction.
B)Species are vanishing today faster than at any other time in Earth's history.
C)Extinction occurs whether humans interfere or not.
D)Extinctions can even be caused indirectly by humans.
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