Foundations of Biology Practice Exam
Course Introduction
Foundations of Biology provides a comprehensive introduction to the fundamental principles of life science, emphasizing key concepts such as cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of living organisms. The course explores the molecular and cellular basis of life, the flow of genetic information, mechanisms of inheritance, and the principles underlying evolution and natural selection. Students will also examine how biological systems interact with each other and their environments, laying a groundwork for further study in specialized biological fields. Through lectures, discussions, and laboratory work, this course encourages critical thinking and scientific inquiry in the context of modern biology.
Recommended Textbook
Biology The Unity and Diversity of Life 14th Edition by Cecie Starr
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Chapter 1: Invitation to Biology
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Q1) The choice of whether a particular organism belongs to the experimental group or the control group should be based on
A) age.
B) size.
C) chance.
D) history.
E) gender.
Answer: C
Q2) Copernicus, Galileo, and Darwin found that ____ caused their science to be controversial.
A) prevailing belief
B) objective data
C) astronomical theories
D) supernatural influences
E) experimental design
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Lifes Chemical Basis
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Q1) What is the smallest unit of an element that retains the properties of that element?
A) atom
B) compound
C) ion
D) molecule
E) mixture
Answer: A
Q2) The radioactive decay of 14C produces ____.
A) carbon 12
B) carbon 13
C) more carbon 14
D) nitrogen 14
E) oxygen 14
Answer: D
Q3) The sharing of two pairs of electrons between two atoms is called a(n)
Answer: double bond
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Chapter 3: Molecules of Life
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Q1) In biology, many complementary processes exist. Explain how condensation reactions are complementary to hydrolysis reactions.
Answer: In condensation reactions, a hydroxyl ion is removed from one reactant while a hydrogen ion is removed from the other (collectively forming water). This allows the two reactants to bind. In hydrolysis reactions, reactants are separated by adding a hydroxyl ion to one reactant and a hydrogen ion to the other, using a water molecule.
Q2) A denatured protein has lost its _____________________.
Answer: 3D structure
three dimensional structure
Q3) Triglycerides are ____.
A) carbohydrates
B) nucleotides
C) proteins
D) neutral fats
E) amino acids
Answer: D
Q4) Write the empirical formula for a carbohydrate. Answer: (CH O)n
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Chapter 4: Cell Structure and Function
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Q1) The coordinated movement of many of these stirs fluid around some cells.
A)microtubules
B)microfilaments
C)intermediate filaments
D)motor proteins
E)cilium
F)flagellum
G)pseudopods
Q2) keeps stems firm and upright
A)chloroplast
B)central vacuole
C)plasmodesmata
D)cell wall
E)chromoplasts
Q3) nucleus
Q4) pair of centrioles
Q5) plasma membrane
Q6) cytoskeleton components
Q7) ribosomes
Q8) microfilaments
6
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Chapter 5: Ground Rules of Metabolism
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Q1) ____________________ enzymes are controlled by having regulatory molecules bind outside the active site and result in a change in their overall structure.
Q2) enzyme
A)amount of energy to start a reaction
B)coenzyme that carries electrons
C)attachment of a phosphate group by a high-energy bond
D)an excess of end-product molecules alters the shape of the first enzyme in the pathway and shuts off that metabolic pathway
E)part of an enzyme that binds to the substrate
F)by binding a regulatory molecule, it changes the activity of a metabolic pathway
G)affects rates of chemical reactions by reducing activation energy
H)important energy currency in metabolism
I)enzyme that participates in the neutralization of hydrogen peroxide
J)a measure of the degree of energy change after a concentrated form of energy has been dispersed
Q3) Describe how the laws of thermodynamics would impact the Earth were the sun's light suddenly blocked.
Q4) Compare and contrast facilitated and active transport.
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Chapter 6: Where It Starts - Photosynthesis
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Q1) causes some fruits and vegetables to appear orange or yellow
A)chlorophyll b
B)chlorophyll a
C)phycoerythrobilin
D)phycocyanobilin
E)beta-carotene
Q2) Both C and CAM plants have modified carbon fixation. How do they each perform carbon fixation and what is the benefit of each of these types of carbon fixation?
Q3) responsible for red bacteria
A)chlorophyll b
B)chlorophyll a
C)phycoerythrobilin
D)phycocyanobilin
E)beta-carotene
Q4) The splitting of water produces three products. Name and discuss the role of each.
Q5) A trip to space finds a planet rich with green light. Scientists hope to introduce a photosynthetic organism to this planet. What sort of organism should they choose?
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Chapter 7: How Cells Release Chemical Energy
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Q1) Discuss how photosynthesis is a natural partner for aerobic respiration.
Q2) In the mitochondria, hydrogen is actively pumped to the ____.
A) inner membrane
B) outer membrane
C) intermembrane space
D) matrix
E) cytoplasm
Q3) Electron transfer phosphorylation yields____ ATPs.
A) four
B) two
C) three
D) 32
E) zero
Q4) When glucose is used as the energy source, the largest amount of ATP is produced in ____.
A) glycolysis
B) acetyl-CoA formation
C) the Krebs cycle
D) substrate-level phosphorylation
E) electron transfer phosphorylation
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Chapter 8: Dna Structure and Function
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Q1) This nucleotide is a double-ring molecule.
A)guanine
B)cytosine
C)pyrimidine
D)thymine
E)uracil
Q2) Rosalind Franklin is credited with ____.
A) discovering DNA's double helical structure
B) discovering DNA
C) first isolating DNA
D) building the first DNA model
E) cloning DNA
Q3) If a mixture of bacteriophages, some labeled with radioactive sulfur and others labeled with radioactive phosphorus, is placed in a bacterial culture, the bacteria will eventually contain ____.
A) primarily radioactive sulfur
B) primarily radioactive phosphorus
C) both radioactive sulfur and phosphorus
D) neither radioactive sulfur nor radioactive phosphorus
E) complete viruses with radioactive sulfur coats
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Chapter 9: From Dna to Protein
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Q1) The concepts of transcription and translation have been said to form the 'central dogma' of molecular biology. Is this a fitting description?
Q2) There are how many different kinds of amino acids?
A) 3
B) 6
C) 12
D) 20
E) 28
Q3) Genetic information carried by a(n) _____________________ directs the synthesis of a(n) _____________________ chain during translation.
Q4) Frameshift mutations may involve the
A) substitution of nucleotides.
B) substitution of codons.
C) substitution of amino acids.
D) addition or deletion of one or more base pairs.
E) rearrangement of amino acids.
Q5) Assume alternative splicing can generate all permutations and combination. How many proteins could a gene with three exons and two introns generate?
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Chapter 10: Gene Control
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Q1) Which of the following is the binding site for RNA polymerase on the DNA molecule?
A) structural genes.
B) repressor gene.
C) promoter sequence.
D) operator sequence.
E) region between an operator and the first structural gene.
Q2) The rate at which mRNA is processed by ribosomes is an example of
A) transcriptional control.
B) transcript processing control.
C) transport control.
D) translational control.
E) post-translational control.
Q3) In the ABC model of flower development in Arabidopsis thaliana, sepals form when which gene(s) is/are switched on?
A) A only
B) A and B
C) B and C
D) C only
E) A and B and C
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Chapter 11: How Cells Reproduce
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Q1) period of nuclear division
A)G2
B)mitosis
C)S
D)G1
E)cytokinesis
Q2) DNA replication occurs
A) before mitosis.
B) immediately before prophase of mitosis.
C) during prophase of mitosis.
D) during metaphase of mitosis.
E) at any time during cell division.
Q3) In eukaryotic cells, which occurs during the prophase of mitosis?
A) duplication of chromatids
B) replication of DNA
C) separation of sister chromatids
D) breakup of the nuclear envelope
E) appearance of the nuclear envelope
Q4) How could telomerase inhibitors be used to treat cancer?
Q5) The most common type of skin cancer is __________.
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Chapter 12: Meiosis and Sexual Reproduction
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Q1) Chromatids are
A) attached at the centriole.
B) a pair of chromosomes, one from the mother and one from the father.
C) attached to the nuclear envelope.
D) identical before and after crossing over occurs.
E) identical until crossing over occurs.
Q2) Meiosis typically results in the production of
A) two diploid cells.
B) four diploid cells.
C) four haploid cells.
D) two haploid cells.
E) one triploid cell.
Q3) In mitosis, one diploid nucleus becomes
A) two haploid nuclei.
B) one haploid nucleus.
C) two diploid nuclei.
D) four diploid nuclei.
E) four haploid nuclei.
Q4) With __________, offspring inherit the same number and kinds of genes from one parent.
14
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Chapter 13: Observing Patterns in Inherited Traits
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Q1) In a dihybrid cross between a parent that is a double heterozygote (Aa Bb) and a parent that is a double homozygous recessive (aa bb), how many unique phenotypes potentially will be present in their offspring?
A)4
B)6
C)8
D)12
E)24
Q2) Various forms that a single gene can take at a given locus are called A) kinetochores.
B) alleles. C) autosomes.
D) loci.
E) chromatids.
Q3) If wire hair (W) is dominant to smooth hair (w), and you find a wire-haired puppy, how would you determine its genotype by a genetic breeding experiment?
Q4) Assume that red plants crossed with white plants give rise to pink plants. Explain how to eliminate red plants if you start with two pinks.
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Chapter 14: Chromosomes and Human Inheritance
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Q1) Which syndrome is characterized by a karyotype with 45 chromosomes?
A) Turner
B) Down
C) androgen insensitivity
D) Klinefelter
E) cri-du-chat
Q2) hemophilia A
A)autosomal recessive inheritance; lactose metabolism is blocked
B)nondisjunction of the twenty-first chromosomal pair
C)X-linked recessive inheritance
D)nondisjunction of the sex chromosomes
Q3) Hemophilia is caused by an X-linked recessive gene. A normal woman whose father had hemophilia marries a normal man. What are the chances of hemophilia in their children?
Q4) This disorder is an autosomal dominant disorder.
A)galactosemia
B)Turner syndrome
C)progeria
D)hemophilia A
E)Down syndrome
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Chapter 15: Studying and Manipulating Genomes
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Q1) What fraction of your DNA is the same as every other human being?
A) 50%
B) 75%
C) 90%
D) 95%
E) 99%
Q2) In order for DNA molecules to undergo recombination, ____.
A) they must be from the same species
B) their strands must separate as in replication
C) they must be cut and spliced at specific nucleotide sequences
D) one of the two DNA strands must be degraded
E) they must first be transcribed
Q3) What is used to cut the DNA in panels 1 and 2?
A) restriction enzymes
B) reverse transcriptase
C) DNA polymerases
D) RNA polymerases
E) DNA ligases
Q4) __________ can reveal the order of nucleotide bases in a fragment of DNA.
Q5) How could personal DNA testing be beneficial to medicine?
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Evidence of Evolution
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Q1) ____________________ are evidence of life in the distant past.
Q2) The process of fossilization typically begins when an organism or traces of it ____.
A) settle on the seafloor
B) are pressurized under the weight of sediment
C) crystallize into minerals
D) are saturated with groundwater
E) become covered with sediments, mud, or ash
Q3) ____________________ that impart greater ____________________ to an individual become more common in a population over generations, compared with less competitive forms.
Q4) The time it takes for half of a radioisotope's atoms to decay ____.
A) cannot be calculated
B) is used to construct the geologic time scale
C) is its half-life
D) is the same for uranium 238 and carbon 14
E) is highly variable
Q5) Several times in Earth's history, land masses have converged as supercontinents. ____________________ and ____________________ are examples.
Q6) Which fossil would be the oldest in a given strata and why?
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Processes of Evolution
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Q1) Adaptive radiation is demonstrated by ____.
A) the dinosaurs going extinct
B) coelecanths remaining similar over hundreds of millions of years
C) the evolution of mammals after dinosaurs went extinct
D) rats and resistance to warfarin
E) warbler body mass and survival
Q2) Reproductive isolation is marked by the __________of gene flow between populations.
Q3) Mutations are the original source of new alleles, but may be adaptive, __________ or __________.
Q4) Which of the following is the best definition of sympatric speciation?
A) species that evolve due to geographical distance
B) mechanical isolation acts to prevent speciation
C) breeding behavior that prevents the organisms from breeding due to differences in their breeding time
D) ecological isolation
E) divergence within a population leads to speciation in the absence of a physical barrier to gene flow.
Q5) Do human beings meet the five conditions necessary for the Hardy-Weinberg law? Explain.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Organizating Information About Species
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Q1) A monophyletic group has how many common ancestors?
A) one
B) two
C) three
D) many
E) it is variable
Q2) __________ is the science of making hypotheses about evolutionary relationships among clades.
Q3) Changes in an organism's genome that have no effect on an individual's survival or reproduction are called ____.
A) amino acid substitutions
B) deleterious mutations
C) Hox genes
D) neutral mutations
E) mitochondrial DNA
Q4) Neutral mutations tend to accumulate in DNA at a predictable rate; like the ticks of a(n) __________, they can help researchers estimate how long ago two lineages diverged.
Q5) Why do scientists favor the clade in which derived traits evolve the fewest times?
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Chapter 19: Lifes Origin and Early Evolution
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Q1) The first eukaryotic fossils are dated to about ____.
A) 2.7 billion years ago
B) 1.8 billion years ago
C) 1.5 billion years ago
D) 750 million years ago
E) 201 million years ago
Q2) Proteins that speed metabolic reactions might have first formed when reactants could have begun interacting inside tiny holes in rocks near deep-sea __________.
Q3) The ozone layer is valuable because it blocks A) heat.
B) UV radiation.
C) radio waves.
D) asteroids.
E) X-rays.
Q4) Are the three methods of producing the building blocks of life proposed in this chapter mutually exclusive?
Q5) Laboratory simulations provide indirect evidence that organic compounds such as __________ and __________ self-assemble spontaneously under conditions like those thought to have prevailed on the early Earth.
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Chapter 20: Viruses - Bacteria - and Archaea
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Q1) These bacteria can live in water of very high salt concentration.
A)halophiles
B)cyanobacteria
C)thermophiles
D)proteobacteria
E)methanogens
Q2) Four of the following are true of herpes simplex 1. Which one is the exception?
A) It is a DNA virus.
B) It has a latent phase in its replication cycle.
C) It can remain latent in nerve cells for years.
D) Activation of the latent virus causes cold sores.
E) Once activated it causes a form of skin cancer.
Q3) How do archaea differ from bacteria?
Q4) Which of the following lack a nucleus and are structurally simple?
A) eukaryotes
B) prokaryotes
C) fungi
D) algae
E) protists
Q5) Why are endospores so dangerous to food production?
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Chapter 21: Protists - the Simplest Eukaryotes
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Q1) Diatoms are used for four of the following. Which one is the exception?
A) biofuels
B) ink
C) filters
D) cleaners
E) insecticides
Q2) __________ are heterotrophs that grow as a mesh of absorptive filaments. Some are plant pathogens.
Q3) __________ are aquatic heterotrophs and autotrophs with a cellulose covering.
Q4) What feature is common to all the alveolates?
A) autotrophy
B) lung-like sacs used for respiration
C) bioluminescence
D) complex life cycle with two hosts
E) membrane-bound sacs beneath the plasma membrane
Q5) Euglenoids live in freshwater; a(n) __________ rids them of excess water.
Q6) Why can red algae grow at deeper depths of water than green algae?
Q7) Are humans responsible for neurotoxic shellfish poisoning? Why or why not?
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Q8) Some protists have complex life cycles and change between the haploid and diploid state. This process is called __________ of _________.
Chapter 22: The Land Plants
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Q1) mosses, liverworts
A)lycophytes
B)bryophytes
C)monocots
D)conifers
E)eudicots
Q2) In the illustration above showing the haploid phase in the life cycle of a fern, what part represents the male gametangium?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5
Q3) Oils from rapeseed and hemp are used in four of the following. Which one is the exception?
A) detergents
B) dye
C) skin care products
D) fuel
E) industrial lubricants
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Chapter 23: Fungi
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Q1) A dikaryotic cell ____.
A) is a spore
B) results from nuclear fusion
C) forms from two hyphae
D) becomes a zygote
E) becomes a gamete
Q2) Four of the following are associated with mushrooms. Which one is the exception?
A) Gills
B) dikaryotic hyphae
C) nuclear fusion
D) Meiosis
E) flagellated spores
Q3) The cell walls of fungi are composed mainly of ____.
A) Cellulose
B) Lignin
C) Chitin
D) Pectin
E) protein
Q4) The filaments typically grow as an extensive mesh called a(n) __________.
Q5) What sort of symbiosis would a mycorrhiza represent?
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Chapter 24: Animal Evolution - the Invertibrates
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Q1) flatworms
A)two pairs of legs per segment
B)Arachnids
C)planarians, flukes, tapeworms
D)Nematodes
E)snails, squids, clams
F)wheel animals
G)flagellated collar cells present
H)jellyfish and corals
I)crustaceans, ticks, and insects
J)polychaetes, earthworms, leeches
K)sea urchins, sea stars
Q2) __________ is a process where a concentration of nerves and sensory structures forms in the head region.
Q3) A water-vascular system is characteristic of the phylum ____.
A) A water-vascular system is characteristic of the phylum ____.
B) Annelida
C) Chordata
D) Mollusca
E) Echinodermata
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Chapter 25: Animal Evolution - the Chordates
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Q1) __________ are tetrapods that live on land but typically return to water to reproduce.
Q2) Birds are evolved from reptiles, but also differ dramatically. Which features of birds differentiate them from most reptiles?
Q3) bony fishes
A)cartilaginous skeleton; jaws
B)reptile with four-chambered heart
C)placental mammal
D)legless amphibian
E)invertebrate chordate; no metamorphosis
F)endotherm with feathers
G)limbless reptile
H)most primitive fishes with jaws; extinct
I)modern-day parasitic jawless vertebrate
J)marsupial
K)adult is called "sea squirt"
L)egg-laying mammal
M)swim bladder for buoyancy
N)may be sexually mature in larval form
Q4) What are the bird-like and reptile-like features of Archaeopteryx?
Page 27
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Chapter 26: Human Evolution
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Q1) The primate fossil named Lucy was ____.
A) a Neanderthal
B) an australopith
C) a Denisovan
D) a prosimian
E) a modern human
Q2) Homo erectus
A) shorter than modern humans, but stood upright; stocky body adapted to colder climates
B) arose in Africa about 2 million years ago; had a significantly larger brain than earlier hominins and a gait similar to modern humans.
C) modern humans since 195,000 years ago
D) Lucy; lived about 3.2 million years ago
Q3) Did Homo sapiens mate with Homo neanderthalensis?
Q4) The only surviving Homo species.
A)Homo habilis
B)Homo erectus
C)Homo sapiens
D)Homo neanderthalensis
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Chapter 27: Plant Tissues
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Q1) tissue containing cells with pectin on their primary walls
A)parenchyma
B)collenchyma
C)sclerenchyma
D)xylem
E)phloem
Q2) This tissue gives rise to protoderm and procambium.
A)primary meristems
B)ground meristem
C)pericycle
D)vascular cambium
Q3) Monocots and eudicots differ in how xylem and phloem are distributed in ground tissue, in the number of petals in flowers, and in the number of
Q4) The vascular tissue that conducts water and mineral ions is called ____.
A) sieve elements
B) companion cells
C) sclerenchyma
D) xylem
E) phloem
Page 29
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Chapter 28: Plant Nutrition and Transport
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Q1) Explain the cohesion-tension theory.
Q2) With metal pollutants, the best phytoremediation uses ____.
A) hydrologic injections that dilute the groundwater
B) chemical injections that degrade the pollutants
C) plants that take up toxins and store them in aboveground tissues
D) plants that prevent the toxins from being absorbed in their tissues
E) plants that can breakdown the toxins and release them into the air
Q3) The pitted end walls of sieve elements are called ____.
A) plasmodesmata
B) sieve tubes
C) companion cells
D) perforation plates
E) sieve plates
Q4) __________ is the evaporation of water from plant parts, mainly at stomata, into air.
Q5) What are guard cells and how are they able to control the opening and closing of stomata.
Q6) Explain the pressure flow theory.
Q7) Phytoremediation uses the ability of plants to take up __________ dissolved in soil water.
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Chapter 29: Life Cycles of Flowering Plants
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Q1) __________ are the specialized reproductive structures of angiosperms.
Q2) carpel
A)haploid cell that gives rise to pollen grain
B)releases two sperm cells when it reaches and penetrates female gametophyte
C)develops into a fruit at maturity
D)created from a triploid cell that is produced when one sperm cell fuses with the endosperm mother cell
E)reproductive organs that produce the plant's male gametophytes
F)modified leaf with pigments and fragrance-producing cells
G)immature male gametophyte
H)female reproductive organ
I)landing platform for pollen
J)contains pollen sacs
K)forms in an ovule and gives rise to a female gametophyte
L)outermost whorl of leaf parts on a receptacle; generally green, but sometimes pigmented
M)region of carpel that receives pollen grains
N)arrival of pollen on a receptive stigma
O)forms a seed at maturity
Q3) sepal
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Chapter 30: Communication Strategies in Plants
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Q1) Temperature extremes, lack of water, and other environmental stresses trigger an increase in ____ synthesis, release, and transport, which helps the plant survive the adverse conditions.
A) cytokinin
B) gibberellin
C) auxin
D) abscisic acid
E) ethylene
Q2) This hormone promotes bud and seed dormancy.
A)auxins
B)gibberellins
C)cytokinins
D)abscisic acid
E)ethylene
Q3) Auxin is made mainly in ____ and in young leaves, and transported elsewhere.
A) chloroplasts
B) lateral buds
C) lateral meristems
D) root apical meristems
E) shoot apical meristems
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Chapter 31: Animal Tissues
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Q1) Which tissue lines blood and lymph vessels?
A) A
B) B
C) C
Q2) Which system produces red blood cells?
A) endocrine
B) skeletal
C) muscular
D) immune
E) integumentary
Q3) Which body process most often involves in a negative feedback system?
A) hybridization
B) reproduction
C) pH adjustment
D) homeostasis
E) evaporation
Q4) Specialized epithelial cells called ____________________ secrete substances that function outside the cell.
Q5) sebaceous gland
Q6) If you sweat, are you losing extracellular fluid or intracellular fluid?
Page 33
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Chapter 32: Neural Control
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Q1) slows digestion
A)parasympathetic
B)sympathetic
Q2) muscle spindle
A)cells that nurture and support neurons
B)sensory neuron
C)interneuron
D)acetylcholine or GABA
E)motor neuron
F)a type of active transporter
G)sheathed muscle cells that contain receptors
H)membrane potential
I)resting membrane potential
J)modified dendrite of a sensory neuron
K)action potential
L)positive feedback
M)threshold potential
N)produced by a Schwann cell
O)cluster of cell bodies outside the CNS
Q3) __________ neurons detect stimulI.86.__________ relay signals between neurons.
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Chapter 33: Sensory Perception
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Q1) Eyes contain ____
A) chemoreceptors
B) mechanoreceptors
C) photoreceptors
D) nociceptors
E) thermoreceptors
Q2) The utricle and saccule ____.
A) each contain an organ of dynamic equilibrium
B) detect rotation of the head
C) detect how the head is oriented relative to the ground
D) are semicircular canals
E) use the auditory nerve to send information to the brain
Q3) The adjustable ring of contractile and connective tissues that controls the amount of light entering the eye is the ____.
A) lens
B) cornea
C) pupil
D) iris
E) retina
Q4) Why is color blindness more common in males?
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Chapter 34: Endocrine Control
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Q1) One effect of type 1 diabetes is ____.
A) ketosis
B) storage of proteins
C) secretion of pancreatic juices
D) metabolism of glucose
E) fat storage
Q2) The hormones secreted by the anterior pituitary are ____.
A) peptide hormones
B) neurotransmitters
C) steroid hormones
D) second messengers
E) polar
Q3) This hormone controls water retention and loss.
A)estrogen
B)luteinizing hormone
C)somatotropin
D)oxytocin
E)antidiuretic hormone
Q4) pituitary gland
Q5) Darkness increases secretion of __________ by the pineal gland in the brain.
Page 36
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Chapter 35: Structural Support and Movement
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Q1) Examples are the joints connecting skull bones.
A)fibrous joint
B)cartilaginous joint
C)synovial joint
Q2) consist of myosin, a motor protein with a clublike head and a long tail
A)Z line
B)ATP
C)mitochondria
D)actin
E)sarcomeres
F)phosphate group
G)myofibrils
H)smooth muscle
I)thick filaments
J)myosin
K)skeletal muscle
Q3) In the absence of a nerve connection or electrical stimulation, can a muscle cell be made to contract in a laboratory setting? Explain your answer.
Q4) __________ are cells that synthesize bone, whereas __________ break bone down.
Q5) A(n) __________ consists of hardened parts at the body surface.
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Chapter 36: Circulation
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Q1) Blood is pumped to the majority of the body by this structure.
A)right atrium
B)left atrium
C)left ventricle
D)right ventricle
Q2) Circulation in the above diagram functions primarily as a(n) ____.
A) closed circulatory system
B) open circulatory system
C) semi-closed circulatory system
D) system of exchange using capillaries
E) continuous system of vessels
Q3) Which of these statements about hypertension is true?
A) Blood pressure is less than 120/80.
B) Poor diet and lack of regular exercise puts one at increased risk.
C) Sickle-cell anemia often accompanies this condition.
D) Most Americans with the condition seek treatment.
E) Atherosclerosis is another name for this condition.
Q4) An individual has an issue with their red blood cells. Are they most likely to have an issue with their immunity, oxygen transport, or hemostasis? Explain your answer.
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Chapter 37: Immunity
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Q1) Respiration in the human body relies on ____.
A) exocytosis and endocytosis
B) facilitated diffusion
C) osmosis
D) simple diffusion
E) active transport
Q2) Most of the carbon dioxide produced by the body is transported to the lungs ____.
A) in gaseous form
B) in the lymph system
C) as carbaminohemoglobin
D) in the form of bicarbonate
E) as carbonic acid
Q3) Oxygen moves from alveoli to the bloodstream ____.
A) because the concentration of oxygen is greater in alveoli than in the blood
B) mainly due to the activity of carbonic anhydrase in the red blood cells
C) against a concentration gradient
D) to equal the concentration of CO in the blood
E) by active transport
Q4) Why is it beneficial to urinate after sexual activity?
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Chapter 38: Respiration
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Q1) alveoli
A) flexible windpipe reinforced with cartilage
B) surrounds each lung
C) oxygen-rich form of a respiratory protein
D) contains two true vocal cords
E) with the diaphragm, alter chest cavity volume
F) part of the brainstem; controls breathing
G) throat passage behind the mouth
H) inhalation and exhalation
I) connect trachea to lungs
J) flaplike structure that points upward allowing air to enter trachea, but blocks the larynx during swallowing
K) contraction increases thoracic volume
L) microscopically small pockets lined with moist epithelium
Q2) nasal cavity
Q3) Some invertebrates do not have special respiratory organs and rely on __________ exchange, which involves the diffusion of gases across the body surface.
Q4) trachea
Q5) bronchus
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Chapter 39: Digestion and Nutrition
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Q1) An empty stomach increases its secretion of ____ to stimulate the appetite.
A) pepsinogen
B) ghrelin
C) gastric fluid
D) chyme
E) serosa
Q2) Food is moved through the digestive system by ____.
A) sphincters
B) accessory organs
C) smooth muscle contractions
D) movement of villi
E) skeletal muscle contractions
Q3) Which enzyme(s) digest nucleic acids?
A) pepsins
B) disaccharidases
C) aminopeptidase
D) pancreatic nucleases
E) amylase
Q4) __________, which assists in fat digestion, is made in the liver and stored in the
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Chapter 40: Maintaining the Internal Environment
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Q1) The antidiuretic hormone works on ____ that encourages the kidneys to reabsorb water.
A) a positive feedback loop
B) a negative feedback loop
C) the proximal tubules of nephrons in the kidney
D) the action potential
E) the muscle tissue
Q2) What are the downsides of sweat as a cooling mechanism?
Q3) Urinalysis can be used to identify four of the following. Which one is the exception?
A) intoxication
B) prostate cancer
C) kidney disease
D) diabetes mellitus
E) previous heart attack
Q4) Marine bony fish __________ water by osmosis, while freshwater bony fish __________ water by osmosis.
Q5) __________ such as reptiles control core temperature mainly by behavior.
Q6) In freshwater sponges and other simple freshwater animals, water flows into the body by __________.
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Chapter 41: Animal Reproductive Systems
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Q1) Animal egg production is called ____.
A) spermatogenesis
B) oogenesis
C) oocytosis
D) spermatocytosis
E) cytokinesis
Q2) Which statement is true about chlamydia?
A) It often harms the joints and skin.
B) It damages the liver, bones and brain.
C) It has no cure.
D) It causes a compromised immune system.
E) It can be passed from mother to child during birth.
Q3) A male gamete is called a(n) __________ and a female gamete is called a(n) __________.
Q4) What is the last structure that a sperm travels through as it leaves the body?
A) ureter
B) urethra
C) vas deferens
D) ejaculatory duct
E) epididymis
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Chapter 42: Animal Development
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Q1) Gastrulation is controlled by signal-sending cells that cause movement of neighboring cells, a process called __________.
Q2) Without _____, humans might have a tail.
A) differentiation
B) epigenetics
C) cell migrations
D) apoptosis
E) the maternal gene effect
Q3) Which embryonic tissue is incorrectly associated with its derivative?
A) skin; ectoderm
B) nervous system; ectoderm
C) liver; endoderm
D) circulatory system; mesoderm
E) brain; mesoderm
Q4) __________ regulates the maturation of the mammary glands, and then oxytocin causes __________.
Q5) Nutrients and antibodies move across the placenta from mother to embryo or fetus, as do __________, which can cause birth defects.
Q6) __________ results in an early embryo that has three primary tissue layers.
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Chapter 43: Animal Behavior
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Q1) Epigenetic effects cause _____ behavior without altering _____.
A) instinctive; oxytocin level
B) instinctive; the genome
C) conditioned; the genome
D) heritable changes in; DNA sequence
E) temporary changes in; RNA sequence
Q2) __________ is one form of learning that happens only during a sensitive period early in life.
Q3) The "confusion effect" occurs ____.
A) when one animal flees a threat and others in the group do the same
B) when animals group and present a solid front to predators
C) when there is a "selfish herd"
D) in a hierarchal living group
E) in the mimicking of another species to escape predation
Q4) Altruistic behavior ____.
A) works in a similar way to selfish herds
B) is sexually directed behavior
C) is self-sacrificing behavior
D) is aggressive behavior
E) is nonreactive, such as freezing at the sign of danger
Page 45
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