Foundations of Biology
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
Foundations of Biology provides an in-depth introduction to the fundamental principles of biological science, covering topics such as cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of life. The course emphasizes the molecular and cellular basis of life, the mechanisms of heredity and variation, and the interactions between organisms and their environments. Students will develop critical thinking and scientific inquiry skills through laboratory experiments and analysis of real-world biological problems, preparing them for more advanced studies in the biological sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Campbell Biology 11th Edition by Lisa A. Urry
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Evolution, the Themes of Biology, and Scientific Inquiry
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Q1) A localized group of organisms that belong to the same species is called a
A) community
B) population
C) ecosystem
D) family
Answer: B
Q2) In comparison to eukaryotes, prokaryotes ________.
A) are more structurally complex
B) are larger
C) are smaller
D) do not have membranes
Answer: C
Q3) The process by which the information in a gene directs the synthesis of a protein is called ________.
A) gene expression
B) replication
C) post translation modification
D) cloning
Answer: A
Page 3
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Chapter 2: The Chemical Context of Life
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Q1) How is a single covalent bond formed?
A) Two atoms share two pairs of electrons.
B) Two atoms share two electrons.
C) Two atoms share one electron.
D) One atom loses a pair of electrons to the other.
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A) Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and calcium are the most abundant elements of living matter.
B) Some naturally occurring elements are toxic to organisms.
C) All life requires the same essential elements.
D) A patient suffering from a goiter should not consume seafood.
Answer: B
Q3) How many electron pairs are shared between carbon atoms in a molecule that has the formula C H ?
A) one
B) two
C) three
D) four
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Water and Life
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Q1) A beaker contains 100 milliliters (mL)of NaOH solution at pH = 13. A technician carefully pours into the beaker 10 mL of HCl at pH = 1. Which of the following statements correctly describes the result of this mixing?
A) The concentration of Na+ ions will rise.
B) The pH of the beaker's contents will increase.
C) The pH of the beaker's contents will be neutral.
D) The pH of the beaker's contents will decrease.
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following effects can occur because of the high surface tension of water?
A) Lakes cannot freeze solid in winter, despite low temperatures.
B) A raft spider can walk across the surface of a small pond.
C) Organisms can resist temperature changes, although they give off heat due to chemical reactions.
D) Sweat can evaporate from the skin, helping to keep people from overheating.
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Carbon and the Molecular Diversity of Life
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Q1) Some carbon skeletons have different numbers and locations of double bonds to
A) add molecular complexity and diversity that characterize living matter
B) be more flexible that makes the molecule stronger
C) stay in its liquid state
D) increase its solubility in water
Q2) Which of the functional groups is not reactive but serves as a recognizable tag on the DNA molecule and alter the expression of genes in the cells.
A) amino
B) methyl
C) carboxyl
D) hydroxyl
Q3) Which of the following carbon molecules does not have the bond angle of 109.5°?
A) CH
B) C H
C) C H
D) C H
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Chapter 5: The Structure and Function of Large Biological
Molecules
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Q1) Which of the following statements about the 5 end of a polynucleotide strand of RNA is correct?
A) The 5 end has a hydroxyl group attached to the number 5 carbon of ribose.
B) The 5 end has a phosphate group attached to the number 5 carbon of ribose.
C) The 5 end has phosphate attached to the number 5 carbon of the nitrogenous base.
D) The 5 end has a carboxyl group attached to the number 5 carbon of ribose.
Q2) Which of the following provides the information necessary to stipulate a protein's 3-D shape?
A) peptide bonds between different amino acids
B) sequence of amino acids in the polypeptide chain
C) side chains of various amino acids
D) number of water molecules in the vicinity
Q3) What is the major structural difference between starch and glycogen?
A) the types of monosaccharide subunits in the molecules
B) the type of glycosidic linkages in the molecule
C) whether glucose is in the or form
D) the amount of branching that occurs in the molecule
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Page 7
Chapter 6: A Tour of the Cell
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Q1) Which of the following would be most appropriate method to observe and measure the size of ribosomes in a eukaryotic cell?
A) a hand lens (magnifying glass)
B) standard light microscopy
C) scanning electron microscopy
D) transmission electron microscopy
Q2) Asbestos is a material that was once used extensively in construction. One risk from working in a building that contains asbestos is the development of asbestosis caused by the inhalation of asbestos fibers. Cells will take up asbestos by phagocytosis, but are not able to degrade it. As a result, asbestos fibers accumulate in ________.
A) the Golgi apparatus
B) nuclei
C) peroxisomes
D) lysosomes
Q3) Which structure is not part of the endomembrane system?
A) nuclear envelope
B) chloroplast
C) Golgi apparatus
D) plasma membrane
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Chapter 7: Membrane Structure and Function
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Q1) The force driving simple diffusion is ________, while the energy source for active transport is ________.
A) a concentration gradient; ADP
B) a concentration gradient; ATP hydrolysis
C) transmembrane pumps; an electrochemical gradient
D) phosphorylated carrier proteins; ATP
Q2) The membranes of winter wheat are able to remain fluid when it is extremely cold by ________.
A) increasing the proportion of unsaturated phospholipids in the membrane
B) decreasing the percentage of cholesterol molecules in the membrane
C) decreasing the number of hydrophobic proteins in the membrane
D) increasing the proportion of glycolipids in the membrane
Q3) Which of the following types of molecules are hydrophilic and therefore excluded from the hydrophobic portion of the phospholipid bilayer?
A) transmembrane proteins
B) integral membrane proteins
C) peripheral membrane proteins
D) cholesterol
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Chapter 8: An Introduction to Metabolism
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Q1) Which of the following aspects of enzyme structure is best described by a clasping handshake analogy?
A) the specific manner in which an enzyme folds to form secondary and tertiary structures
B) the specific manner in which an enzyme interacts with water
C) the specific manner in which an enzyme binds substrate
D) the specific manner in which an enzyme is denatured by low pH
Q2) During a laboratory experiment, you discover that an enzyme-catalyzed reaction has a G of -20 kcal/mol. If you double the amount of enzyme in the reaction, what will be the G for the new reaction?
A) -40 kcal/mol
B) -20 kcal/mol
C) -10 kcal/mol
D) +20 kcal/mol
Q3) Some bacteria are metabolically active in hot springs because
A) they are able to maintain a lower internal temperature.
B) high temperatures make catalysis unnecessary.
C) their enzymes have high optimal temperatures.
D) their enzymes are completely insensitive to temperature.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Cellular Respiration and Fermentation
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Q1) Carbon dioxide (CO )is released during which of the following stages of cellular respiration?
A) glycolysis and the oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA
B) oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA and the citric acid cycle
C) oxidative phosphorylation and fermentation
D) fermentation and glycolysis
Q2) Which of the following events takes place in the electron transport chain?
A) the breakdown of glucose into six carbon dioxide molecules
B) the breakdown of an acetyl group to carbon dioxide
C) the harnessing of energy from high-energy electrons derived from glycolysis and the citric acid cycle
D) substrate-level phosphorylation
Q3) Which of the following metabolic processes normally occurs regardless of whether or not oxygen (O )is present?
A) citric acid cycle
B) glycolysis
C) lactate fermentation
D) oxidative phosphorylation
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Chapter 10: Photosynthesis
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Q1) Where are ATP synthase complexes located in plant cells?
A) thylakoid membrane only
B) inner mitochondrial membrane only
C) thylakoid membrane and inner mitochondrial membrane
D) thylakoid membrane and plasma membrane
Q2) As a research scientist, you measure the amount of ATP and NADPH consumed by the Calvin cycle in one hour. You find that 30,000 molecules of ATP were consumed, but only 20,000 molecules of NADPH were consumed. What is the source of the extra ATP molecules?
A) photosystem II
B) photosystem I
C) cyclic electron flow
D) linear electron flow
Q3) Which process is most directly driven by light energy?
A) creation of a pH gradient by pumping protons across the thylakoid membrane
B) reduction of NADP molecules
C) transfer of energy from pigment molecule to pigment molecule
D) ATP synthesis
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12
Chapter 11: Cell Communication
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Q1) Particular receptor tyrosine kinases (RTKs)that promote excessive cell division are found at high levels in various cancer cells. HER2 is an RTK that is present at excessively high levels in some breast cancer cells. Herceptin is a protein that binds to HER2 and inhibits cell division. Herceptin may be an effective treatment for breast cancer treatment under which of the following conditions?
A) If injection of HER2 in the patient's cancer cells stimulates cell division.
B) If the patient's cancer cells have excessive levels of HER2.
C) If the patient's genome codes for the HER2.
D) If the patient has excessive levels of other RTKs in cancer cells.
Q2) If an adult person has a faulty version of the human analog to ced-4 of the nematode, which of the following is most likely to result?
A) activation of a developmental pathway found in the worm but not in humans
B) a form of cancer in which there is insufficient apoptosis
C) formation of molecular pores in the mitochondrial outer membrane
D) excess skin loss
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Chapter 12: The Cell Cycle
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Q1) A group of cells is assayed for DNA content immediately following mitosis and is found to have an average of 8 picograms of DNA per nucleus. How many picograms of DNA would be found in a nucleus at prophase of mitosis?
A) 4
B) 8
C) 16
D) 24
Q2) During which phase of mitosis do the chromatids become chromosomes?
A) telophase
B) anaphase
C) prophase
D) metaphase
Q3) Movement of the chromosomes during anaphase would be most affected by a drug that prevents which of the following events in mitosis and cell division?
A) nuclear envelope breakdown
B) elongation of microtubules
C) shortening of microtubules
D) formation of a cleavage furrow
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Chapter 13: Meiosis and Sexual Life Cycles
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Q1) If we continue to follow the cell lineage from question 4, then the DNA content of a single cell at metaphase of meiosis II will be
A) 0.25x.
B) 0.5x.
C) x.
D) 2x.
Q2) Which sample of DNA might represent a zygote?
A) I
B) II
C) III
D) either I or II
Q3) Which of the following statements is correct regarding the human X chromosomes?
A) It is present in every somatic cell of males and females.
B) It is the same size as other chromosomes and has the same number of genes.
C) It carries genes that determine an individual's biological sex.
D) It is referred to as an autosome.
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Chapter 14: Mendel and the Gene Idea
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Q1) Phenylketonuria is an inherited disease caused by a recessive autosomal allele. If a woman and her husband are both carriers, what is the probability that their first child will be a phenotypically normal girl?
A) 1/4
B) 1/16
C) 3/16
D) 3/8
Q2) In human blood types, Rh positive is a trait that shows simple dominance over Rh negative. A woman who has blood type A positive has a daughter who is type O positive and a son who is type B negative. Which of the following phenotypes is possible for the father?
A) A negative
B) O negative
C) B positive
D) AB negative
Q3) Which of the following phenotypes is an example of polygenic inheritance?
A) pink flowers in snapdragons
B) the ABO blood group in humans
C) white and purple flower color in peas
D) skin pigmentation in humans
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Chapter 15: The Chromosomal Basis of Inheritance
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Q1) Of the following human aneuploidies, which is the one that generally has the most severe impact on the health of the individual?
A) 47, trisomy 21
B) 47, XXY
C) 47, XXX
D) 45, X
Q2) The SRY gene is best described as ________.
A) a gene present on the X chromosome that triggers female development
B) an autosomal gene that is required for the expression of genes on the Y chromosome
C) a gene present on the Y chromosome that triggers male development
D) an autosomal gene that is required for the expression of genes on the X chromosome
Q3) Which of the following individuals will inherit an X-linked allele from a man who carries it?
A) all of his daughters
B) half of his daughters
C) all of his sons
D) all of his children
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Chapter 16: The Molecular Basis of Inheritance
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Q1) In E. coli, which enzyme catalyzes the elongation of a new DNA strand in the 5' 3' direction?
A) primase
B) DNA ligase
C) DNA polymerase III
D) helicase
Q2) Which of the following characteristics would you expect of a eukaryotic organism that lacks the enzyme telomerase?
A) a high probability of somatic cells becoming cancerous
B) an inability to produce Okazaki fragments
C) an inability to repair thymine dimers
D) a reduction in chromosome length in gametes
Q3) Suppose you are provided with an actively dividing culture of E. coli bacteria to which radioactive thymine has been added. What would happen if a cell replicates once in the presence of this radioactive base?
A) One of the daughter cells, but not the other, would have radioactive DNA.
B) Neither of the two daughter cells would be radioactive.
C) All four bases of the DNA would be radioactive.
D) DNA in both daughter cells would be radioactive.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Gene Expression: From Gene to Protein
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Q1) Which of the following types of mutation, resulting in an error in the mRNA just after the AUG start of translation, is likely to have the most serious effect on the polypeptide product?
A) a deletion of a codon
B) a deletion of two nucleotides
C) a substitution of the third nucleotide in an ACC codon
D) a substitution of the first nucleotide of a GGG codon
Q2) Which of the following processes is the first event to take place in translation in eukaryotes?
A) base pairing of activated methionine-tRNA to AUG of the messenger RNA
B) binding of the larger ribosomal subunit to smaller ribosomal subunits
C) the ribosome reaches a stop codon
D) the small subunit of the ribosome recognizes and attaches to the 5 cap of mRNA
Q3) What is the function of the release factor during translation in eukaryotes?
A) It binds to the stop codon in the A site in place of a tRNA.
B) It releases the amino acid from its tRNA to allow the amino acid to form a peptide bond.
C) It supplies a source of energy for termination of translation.
D) It releases the ribosome from the ER to allow polypeptides into the cytosol.
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Chapter 18: Regulation of Gene Expression
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Q1) Which of the following molecules is a protein produced by a regulatory gene?
A) operon
B) inducer
C) promoter
D) repressor
Q2) How does extracellular glucose inhibit transcription of the lac operon?
A) by strengthening the binding of the repressor to the operator
B) by weakening the binding of the repressor to the operator
C) by inhibiting RNA polymerase from opening the strands of DNA to initiate transcription
D) by reducing the levels of intracellular cAMP
Q3) Why are BRCA1 and BRCA2 considered to be tumor-suppressor genes?
A) Their normal products participate in repair of DNA damage.
B) The mutant forms of either one of these prevent breast cancer.
C) The normal genes make estrogen receptors.
D) They block penetration of breast cells by chemical carcinogens.
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Chapter 19: Viruses
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Q1) A researcher lyses a cell that contains nucleic acid molecules and capsomeres of tobacco mosaic virus (TMV). The cell contents are left in a covered test tube overnight. The next day this mixture is sprayed on tobacco plants. What would you expect to happen to the plants that were sprayed with the mixture?
A) The plants would develop some but not all of the symptoms of the TMV infection.
B) The plants would develop the typical symptoms of TMV infection.
C) The plants would not show any disease symptoms.
D) The plants would become infected, but extracts from these plants would be unable to infect other plants.
Q2) In many ways, the regulation of the genes of a particular group of viruses will be similar to the regulation of the host genes. Therefore, which of the following regulation mechanisms would you expect of the genes of a bacteriophage?
A) regulation via acetylation of histones
B) positive control mechanisms rather than negative
C) control of more than one gene in an operon
D) reliance on transcription activators
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21
Chapter 20: DNA Tools and Biotechnology
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Q1) Why might using retroviral vectors for gene therapy increase the patient's risk of developing cancer?
A) Retroviral vectors may introduce proteins from the virus.
B) Retroviral vectors do not express the genes that were introduced into a patient's cells.
C) Retroviral vectors do not integrate their recombinant DNA into the patient's genome.
D) Retroviral vectors integrate recombinant DNA into the genome in ways that may misregulate the expression of genes at or near the site of integration.
Q2) In large scale, genome-wide association studies in humans, what types of genetic markers do researchers look for?
A) lengthy sequences that might be shared by most members of a population
B) SNPs where one allele is found more often in persons with a particular disorder than in healthy controls
C) SNPs where one allele is found in families with a particular introns sequence
D) SNPs where one allele is found in two or more adjacent genes
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Chapter 21: Genomes and Their Evolution
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Q1) Which of the following statements correctly describes one characteristic of a multigene family?
A) A multigene family includes multiple genes whose products must be coordinately expressed.
B) A multigene family includes genes whose sequences are very similar and that probably arose by duplication.
C) A multigene family includes a gene whose exons can be spliced in a number of different ways.
D) A multigene family includes a highly conserved gene found in a number of different species.
Q2) Which of the following statements is a correct representation of gene density?
A) Humans have 1,000 Mb per genome.
B) C. elegans has ~20,000 genes.
C) Humans have ~20,000 protein-encoding genes in a 3,000 Mb.
D) Saccharomyces has a genome 40 times the size of a human genome.
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23
Chapter 22: Descent with Modification: A Darwinian View of Life
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Q1) Structures as different as human arms, bat wings, and dolphin flippers contain many of the same bones, which develop from similar embryonic tissues. These structural similarities are an example of ________.
A) homology
B) convergent evolution
C) the evolution of common structure as a result of common function
D) the evolution of similar appearance as a result of common function
Q2) If the bacterium Staphylococcus aureus experiences a cost for maintaining one or more antibiotic-resistance genes, what would happen in environments that lack antibiotics?
A) These genes would be maintained in case the antibiotics appear.
B) These bacteria would be outcompeted and replaced by bacteria that have lost these genes.
C) These bacteria would try to make the cost worthwhile by locating and migrating to microenvironments where traces of antibiotics are present.
D) The number of genes conveying antibiotic resistance would increase in these bacteria.
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Chapter 23: The Evolution of Populations
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Q1) The higher the proportion of loci that are "fixed" in a population, the lower are that population's ________.
A) nucleotide variability
B) chromosome number
C) average heterozygosity
D) nucleotide variability and average heterozygosity
Q2) Which statement about the beak size of finches on the island of Daphne Major during prolonged drought is true?
A) Each bird evolved a deeper, stronger beak as the drought persisted.
B) Each bird's survival was strongly influenced by the depth and strength of its beak as the drought persisted.
C) Each bird that survived the drought produced only offspring with deeper, stronger beaks than seen in the previous generation.
D) The frequency of the strong-beak alleles increased in each bird as the drought persisted.
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25
Chapter 24: The Origin of Species
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Q1) The largest unit within which gene flow can readily occur is ________.
A) a population
B) a species
C) the entire range of a genus
D) the hybrid zone
Q2) Suppose that a group of male pied flycatchers migrated from a region where there were no collared flycatchers to a region where both species were present. Assuming events like this are very rare, which of the following scenarios is least likely?
A) Migrant pied males would produce fewer offspring than would resident pied males.
B) Pied females would rarely mate with collared males.
C) Migrant males would mate with collared females more often than with pied females.
D) The frequency of hybrid offspring would decrease.
Q3) Reinforcement is most likely to occur when ________.
A) the environment is changing
B) hybrids have lower fitness than either parent population
C) prezygotic isolating mechanisms are in place
D) gene flow is low
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Chapter 25: The History of Life on Earth
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Q1) Many species of snakes lay eggs. However, in the forests of northern Minnesota, where growing seasons are short, only live-bearing snake species are present. This trend toward species that have live births in a particular environment is an example of
A) an exaptation
B) sexual selection
C) species selection
D) goal direction in evolution
Q2) An early consequence of the release of oxygen gas by plant and bacterial photosynthesis was to ________.
A) change the atmosphere from oxidizing to reducing
B) make it easier to maintain reduced molecules
C) cause iron in ocean water and terrestrial rocks to rust (oxidize)
D) prevent the formation of an ozone layer
Q3) If one organ is an exaptation of another organ, then these two organs ________.
A) are homologous
B) are undergoing convergent evolution
C) are found in the same species
D) have the same function
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Phylogeny and the Tree of Life
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Q1) Imagine that a phylogeny was developed for a group of mammals based on bone structure. Which of the following statements would be a reasonable prediction about a phylogeny for the same group of species based on similarities and differences in the structure of a particular enzyme?
A) The same phylogeny would be unlikely.
B) The same phylogeny would be predicted.
C) No prediction could be made.
D) The amino acid sequence would be identical in all species.
Q2) The legless condition that is observed in several groups of extant reptiles is the result of ________.
A) their common ancestor having been legless
B) a shared adaptation to an arboreal (living in trees) lifestyle
C) several instances of the legless condition arising independently of each other D) individual lizards adapting to a fossorial (living in burrows) lifestyle during their lifetimes
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Chapter 27: Bacteria and Archaea
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Q1) A hypothetical bacterium swims among human intestinal contents until it finds a suitable location on the intestinal lining. It adheres to the intestinal lining using a feature that also protects it from phagocytes, bacteriophages, and dehydration. Fecal matter from a human in whose intestine this bacterium lives can spread the bacterium, even after being mixed with water and boiled. The bacterium is not susceptible to the penicillin family of antibiotics. It contains no plasmids and relatively little peptidoglycan. This bacterium derives nutrition by digesting human intestinal contents. Thus, this bacterium is an ________.
A) aerobic chemoheterotroph
B) aerobic chemoautotroph
C) anaerobic chemoheterotroph
D) anaerobic chemoautotroph
Q2) Which of the following traits do archaeans and eukaryotes share?
A) presence of a nuclear envelope
B) presence of peptidoglycan in the cell wall
C) sensitivity to streptomycin
D) presence of introns
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Chapter 28: Protists
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Q1) Which of the following approaches would be most likely to cause evolution of a drug-resistant strain of Plasmodium?
A) widespread, frequent spraying to kill mosquitoes
B) use of a cocktail of three drugs in patients suffering from malaria
C) widespread, frequent use of a single drug in patients suffering from malaria
D) widespread use of anti-mosquito bed nets
Q2) In a life cycle with alternation of generations, multicellular haploid forms alternate with
A) unicellular haploid forms.
B) unicellular diploid forms.
C) multicellular haploid forms.
D) multicellular diploid forms.
Q3) Branching points at the root of the eukaryotic phylogenetic tree ________.
A) reveal that unikonts are derived from the SAR clade
B) suggest that Archaeplastids were the first eukaryotes
C) strongly suggest that fungi are more closely related to plants than animals
D) are presently unclear
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Chapter 29: Plant Diversity I: How Plants Colonized Land
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Q1) Which of the following characteristics of plants is absent in their closest relatives, the charophyte algae?
A) chlorophyll b
B) cellulose in cell walls
C) sexual reproduction
D) alternation of multicellular generations
Q2) Increasing the number of stomata per unit surface area of a leaf when atmospheric carbon dioxide levels decline is most analogous to a human ________.
A) breathing faster as atmospheric carbon dioxide levels increase
B) putting more red blood cells into circulation when oxygen availability declines at high elevations
C) breathing more slowly as atmospheric oxygen levels increase
D) increasing the volume of its lungs when atmospheric carbon dioxide levels increase
Q3) Which set contains the most closely related terms?
A) megasporangium, megaspore, pollen, ovule
B) microsporangium, microspore, egg, ovary
C) megasporangium, megaspore, egg, ovule
D) microsporangium, microspore, carpel, ovary
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Chapter 30: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants
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Q1) Which of the following sex and generation combinations directly produces the megasporangium of pine ovules?
A) male gametophyte
B) female gametophyte
C) male sporophyte
D) female sporophyte
Q2) The closest relatives of the familiar pine and spruce trees are ________.
A) ferns, horsetails, lycophytes, and club mosses
B) hornworts, liverworts, and mosses
C) gnetophytes, cycads, and ginkgos
D) elms, maples, and aspens
Q3) Which of the following characteristics is functionally important in cells of the gametophytes of both angiosperms and gymnosperms?
A) diploid nuclei
B) mitochondria
C) endosperm
D) chloroplasts
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Chapter 31: Fungi
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Q1) Which of the following characteristics would be most helpful in distinguishing among different species of fungi?
A) morphology
B) hyphae structure
C) DNA sequence
D) life cycle
Q2) All fungi are
A) symbiotic.
B) heterotrophic.
C) flagellated.
D) decomposers.
Q3) In most fungi, karyogamy does not immediately follow plasmogamy, which consequently ________.
A) means that sexual reproduction can occur in specialized structures
B) results in multiple diploid nuclei per cell
C) allows fungi to reproduce asexually most of the time
D) results in heterokaryotic or dikaryotic cells
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Chapter 32: An Overview of Animal Diversity
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Q1) In the future, phylogenetic studies should be conducted to ________.
A) resolve the branching patterns (evolutionary history) of the Lophotrochozoa
B) discover the Hox genes in sponges
C) discover the relationships between nematodes and platyhelminthes
D) discover the larval stages of echinoderms
Q2) Placing sponges as the basal metazoans on the basis of lack of tissues implies which of the following?
A) Sponge ancestors never had tissues.
B) Modern-day sponges have lost the ability to form tissues.
C) Multicellular, modern-day choanoflagellates can form tissues.
D) Sponges do not have nerve cells.
Q3) Which of the following was probably the least important factor in bringing about the Cambrian explosion?
A) the emergence of predator-prey relationships
B) an increase in the concentration of atmospheric oxygen
C) the movement of animals onto land
D) the origin of Hox genes
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Chapter 33: An Introduction to Invertebrates
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Q1) The sharp, inch-long thorns of the crown-of-thorns sea star are its spines. These spines, unlike those of most other sea stars, contain a potent toxin. If it were discovered that crown-of-thorns sea stars do not make this toxin themselves, then the most likely alternative would be that this toxin is ________.
A) derived from the nematocysts of its prey
B) absorbed from the surrounding seawater
C) an endotoxin of cellulose-digesting bacteria that inhabit the sea star's digestive glands
D) injected into individual thorns by mutualistic corals which live on the aboral surfaces of these sea stars
Q2) Which of the following organisms would you expect to have the largest surface-area-to-volume ratio? Assume that all of the following are the same total length.
A) a mollusc
B) an annelid
C) an arthropod
D) a platyhelminth
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Page 35
Chapter 34: The Origin and Evolution of Vertebrates
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Q1) How did the evolution of the jaw contribute to diversification of early vertebrate lineages?
A) It allowed for smaller body size.
B) It was the first stage in the development of a bony skull.
C) It made additional food sources available.
D) It increased the surface area for respiration and feeding.
Q2) Many sentences in this chapter include the words "may suggest." This phrase indicates that ________.
A) causality of a pattern is uncertain
B) there is no cause-and-effect association
C) the author is explaining a well-established relationship
D) scientists agree on the cause of a pattern
Q3) The evolution of similar insulating skin coverings such as fur, hair, and feathers in mammals and birds is a result of ________.
A) shared ancestry
B) convergent evolution
C) homology
D) evolutionary divergence
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Chapter 35: Vascular Plant Structure, Growth, and Development
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Q1) What tissue makes up most of the wood of a tree?
A) primary xylem
B) secondary xylem
C) secondary phloem
D) vascular cambium
Q2) The vascular bundle in the shape of a single central cylinder in a root is called the ________.
A) cortex
B) stele
C) periderm
D) pith
Q3) Plant meristematic cells ________.
A) are distributed evenly in all tissues throughout the plant
B) are undifferentiated cells that produce new cells
C) increase the surface area of dermal tissue by developing root hairs
D) subdivide into three distinct cell types named parenchyma, ground meristem, and procambium
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Page 37
Chapter 36: Resource Acquisition and Transport in Vascular Plants
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Q1) Which of the following would be least likely to affect osmosis in plants?
A) a difference in solute concentrations
B) receptor proteins in the membrane
C) aquaporins
D) a difference in water potential
Q2) Which of the following experimental procedures would most likely reduce transpiration while allowing the normal growth of a plant?
A) subjecting the leaves of the plant to a partial vacuum
B) increasing the level of carbon dioxide around the plant
C) putting the plant in drier soil
D) decreasing the relative humidity around the plant
Q3) Which of the following is an adaptation that enhances the uptake of water and minerals by roots?
A) mycorrhizae
B) pumping through plasmodesmata
C) active uptake by vessel elements
D) rhythmic contractions by cells in the root cortex
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Soil and Plant Nutrition
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Q1) Soil erosion could be controlled by ________.
A) planting rows of trees as windbreaks
B) no-till agriculture
C) terrace hillside crops
D) all of the above
Q2) Which criteria allow biologists to divide chemicals into macronutrients and micronutrients?
A) molecular weight of the element or compound
B) the quantities of each required by plants
C) how they are used in metabolism
D) whether or not they are essential for plant growth
Q3) Nitrogen fixation is a process that ________.
A) recycles nitrogen compounds from dead and decaying materials
B) converts ammonia to ammonium
C) releases nitrate from the rock substrate
D) converts nitrogen gas into ammonia
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Chapter 38: Angiosperm Reproduction and Biotechnology
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Q1) Many flowering plants coevolve with specific pollinators. The Madagascar orchid has a 12-inch floral tube and is a reliable nectar source for the hawkmoth, which has a correspondingly long proboscis (tongue). Which statement most accurately describes how coevolution might have occurred for the hawkmoth and Madagascar orchid?
A) The hawkmoths that expended the most effort to reach the nectar would be the most fit, and pass the longer tongue phenotype to their offspring.
B) Natural selection would favor orchids with nectar tubes just long enough to for an insect with pollen to make contact. Hawkmoths whose tongue could reach the deep tubes would be more fit.
C) Hawkmoths whose tongue was just long enough to obtain nectar, but not able to pick up pollen would become the most fit in the population.
D) It is most likely that mutations that resulted in both the length of the orchid floral tube and the length of the hawkmoth tongue occurred abruptly and simultaneously.
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Chapter 39: Plant Responses to Internal and External
Signals
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Q1) Suppose a plant had a photosynthetic pigment that absorbed far-red wavelengths of light. In which of the following environments could that plant thrive?
A) on the surface of a lake
B) on the forest floor, beneath a canopy of taller plants
C) on the ocean floor, in very deep waters
D) on mountaintops, closer to the Sun
Q2) Experiments on the positive phototropic response of plants indicate that ________.
A) light destroys auxin
B) auxin moves down the plant apoplastically
C) auxin is synthesized in the area where the stem bends
D) auxin can move to the shady side of the stem
Q3) The biological clock controlling circadian rhythms must ultimately ________.
A) depend on environmental cues
B) affect gene transcription
C) stabilize on a 24-hour cycle
D) speed up or slow down with increasing or decreasing temperature
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Chapter 40: Basic Principles of Animal Form and Function
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Q1) Which of the following animals uses the largest percentage of its energy budget for homeostatic regulation?
A) marine jelly (an invertebrate)
B) snake in a temperate forest
C) desert insect
D) desert bird
Q2) The body's automatic tendency to maintain a constant and optimal internal environment is termed as ________.
A) balanced equilibrium
B) physiological chance
C) homeostasis
D) static equilibrium
Q3) Muscle cells are organized to perform specific types of contractions within a tissue. Which of the following is a characteristic of smooth muscle?
A) many cells fused together
B) intercalated discs
C) spindle-shaped cells with a single nucleus
D) striations with sarcomeres
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Chapter 41: Animal Nutrition
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Q1) Feelings of hunger can be stimulated by the hormone ________, but suppressed by the hormone ________.
A) insulin; glucagon
B) secretin; gastrin
C) pepsin; trypsin
D) ghrelin; PYY
Q2) Food being digested in the stomach is in a highly acidic environment. When the food is released from the stomach into the small intestine, why is the environment no longer acidic?
A) Secretin increases the flow of bicarbonate ions from the pancreas into the small intestine to neutralize the stomach acid.
B) Trypsinogen is activated, thus neutralizing the stomach acid.
C) Bile salts from the gallbladder neutralize the stomach acid.
D) When pepsinogen activates pepsin, one result is the neutralization of stomach acid in the stomach.
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43
Chapter 42: Circulation and Gas Exchange
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Q1) Humans infected with some types of parasitic worms develop a condition called elephantiasis, which is characterized by swelling of the limbs. Which of the following would be the most likely cause of elephantiasis?
A) The infected human's immune system is fighting the worms.
B) The worm infection is causing a decrease in cardiac output.
C) The worms are blocking the lymph vessels.
D) More blood is flowing through precapillary sphincters.
Q2) During aerobic exercise, the partial pressure of oxygen in muscle cells will ________, thus the rate of diffusion of oxygen into the muscle tissue from the blood will
A) decrease; increase
B) increase; decrease
C) not change; also not change
D) decrease; decrease
Q3) A decrease of blood pH from 7.4 to 7.2 causes hemoglobin to ________.
A) release all bound carbon dioxide molecules
B) bind more oxygen molecules
C) decrease its binding of H
D) give up more of its oxygen molecules
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Page 44
Chapter 43: The Immune System
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Q1) Mucus occurs in both the respiratory and digestive tracts. What is its main immunological function?
A) sweeping away debris
B) physically trapping of pathogens
C) destruction of pathogens because it is acidic
D) increasing oxygen absorption
Q2) ________ are receptor molecules on mammalian cells that recognize macromolecules that are present in or on certain groups of pathogens.
A) Cytokines
B) Toll-like receptors
C) Interferons
D) Complement proteins
Q3) For the successful development of a vaccine to be used against a pathogen, it is necessary that ________.
A) the surface antigens of the pathogen stay the same
B) all of the surface antigens on the pathogen be identified
C) the pathogen has only one epitope
D) the major histocompatibility (MHC) molecules are heterozygous
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Chapter 44: Osmoregulation and Excretion
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Q1) Excretory organs known as Malpighian tubules are present in ________.
A) flatworms
B) insects
C) jellyfish
D) sea stars
Q2) The advantage of excreting nitrogenous wastes as urea rather than as ammonia is that ________.
A) urea can be removed as a semi-solid paste
B) urea is less toxic than ammonia
C) urea does not affect the osmotic gradient
D) less nitrogen is removed from the body
Q3) Osmoregulatory adjustment via the atrial natriuretic peptide system can be triggered by ________.
A) sleeping for one hour
B) severe sweating on a hot day
C) eating a pizza with olives and pepperoni
D) drinking several glasses of water
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Chapter 45: Hormones and the Endocrine System
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Q1) Which of the following are similar in structure to cholesterol?
I.estradiol
II.insulin
III.glucocorticoids
IV.testosterone
V.antidiuretic hormone
A) I and II
B) I, II, and III
C) I, III, and IV
D) II and V
Q2) If a portion of the pancreas is surgically removed from a rat and the rat subsequently loses its appetite, one explanation is that the removed portion contains cells that secrete a chemical signal that somehow stimulates appetite. Given this scenario, what type of chemical signaling is occurring?
A) autocrine
B) paracrine
C) endocrine
D) neuroendocrine
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Chapter 46: Animal Reproduction
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Q1) The surgical removal of the seminal vesicles would likely ________.
A) cause sterility because sperm would not be produced
B) cause sterility because sperm would not be able to exit the body
C) greatly reduce the volume of semen
D) cause the testes to migrate back into the abdominal cavity
Q2) At the time of fertilization, the maturation of the human oogonium has resulted in
A) one secondary oocyte
B) two primary oocytes
C) four secondary oocytes
D) four zygotes
Q3) Environmental cues that influence the timing of reproduction generally do so by ________.
A) increasing the body temperature
B) providing access to water for external fertilization
C) increasing ambient temperature most favorable for sex
D) direct effects on hormonal control mechanisms
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Chapter 47: Animal Development
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Q1) The primitive streak in a bird is the functional equivalent of ________.
A) the lip of the blastopore in the frog
B) the archenteron in a frog
C) the notochord in a mammal
D) neural crest cells in a mammal
Q2) Cell migration occurs extensively during ________.
A) organogenesis, but not during gastrulation or cleavage
B) cleavage, but not during gastrulation or organogenesis
C) gastrulation and cleavage
D) both gastrulation and organogenesis
Q3) Even in the absence of sperm, metabolic activity in an egg can be artificially activated by ________.
A) abnormally high levels of carbonic acid in the cytosol
B) abnormally low levels of extracellular oxygen
C) injection of calcium ions into the cytosol
D) depletion of its ATP supplies
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Chapter 48: Neurons, Synapses, and Signaling
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Q1) The membrane potential in which there is no net movement of the ion across the membrane is called the ________.
A) graded potential
B) threshold potential
C) equilibrium potential
D) action potential
Q2) When two excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs)occur at a single synapse so rapidly in succession that the postsynaptic neuron's membrane potential has not returned to the resting potential before the second EPSP arrives, the EPSPs add together producing ________.
A) temporal summation
B) spatial summation
C) tetanus
D) the refractory state
Q3) Where are neurotransmitter receptors located?
A) the nuclear membrane
B) the nodes of Ranvier
C) the postsynaptic membrane
D) synaptic vesicle membranes
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Page 50
Chapter 49: Nervous Systems
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Q1) Exercise and reactions to exciting stimuli include ________.
A) increased activity in all parts of the peripheral nervous system
B) increased activity in the sympathetic, and decreased activity in the parasympathetic divisions
C) decreased activity in the sympathetic, and increased activity in the parasympathetic divisions
D) increased activity in the enteric nervous system
Q2) After suffering a stroke, a patient can see objects anywhere in front of him, but pays attention only to objects in his right field of vision. When asked to describe these objects, he has difficulty judging their size and distance. What part of the brain was likely damaged by the stroke?
A) the left frontal lobe
B) the right frontal lobe
C) the left parietal lobe
D) the right parietal lobe
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Chapter 50: Sensory and Motor Mechanisms
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Q1) Chitin is a major component of the ________.
A) skeleton of mammals
B) hydrostatic skeletons of earthworms
C) exoskeleton of insects
D) body hairs of mammals
Q2) The venom of cobras contains a mixture of substances that have a variety of physiological effects. One substance in the venom works by preventing acetylcholine from binding to muscle receptors. How does the venom affect the prey of the cobra?
A) Action potentials would be continuously generated, causing convulsive muscle contractions.
B) Muscle contractions would be prevented, causing paralysis.
C) Muscle contractions could still occur, but relaxation of the muscle would be impaired.
D) Action potentials would be continuously generated, causing convulsive muscle contractions; muscle contractions would then be prevented, causing paralysis.
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Chapter 51: Animal Behavior
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Q1) According to Hamilton's rule,
A) natural selection does not favor altruistic behavior that causes the death of the altruist.
B) natural selection favors altruistic acts when the resulting benefit to the recipient, corrected for relatedness, exceeds the cost to the altruist.
C) natural selection is more likely to favor altruistic behavior that benefits an offspring than altruistic behavior that benefits a sibling.
D) the effects of kin selection are larger than the effects of direct natural selection on individuals.
Q2) The color of throats of males in a population of side-blotched lizards is determined by ________.
A) ambient temperature: blue = cold; orange = normal; yellow = hot
B) stage of development/maturity
C) their receptiveness to mate
D) the success of the mating behavior of each of the throat-color phenotypes
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Chapter 52: An Introduction to Ecology and the Biosphere
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Q1) Which statements about dispersal are accurate?
I.Dispersal is a common component of the life cycles of plants and animals.
II.Colonization of devastated areas after floods or volcanic eruptions primarily depends upon climate.
III.Seeds are important dispersal stages in the life cycles of most flowering plants.
IV.Dispersal occurs only on an evolutionary time scale.
A) only I and III
B) only II and IV
C) only I, II, and IV
D) only II, III, and IV
Q2) Which of the following might be an investigation of microclimate?
A) the effect of ambient temperature on the onset of caribou migration
B) the seasonal population fluctuation of nurse sharks in coral reef communities
C) competitive interactions among various species of songbirds during spring migration
D) how sunlight intensity affects plant community composition in the zone where a forest transitions into a meadow
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Chapter 53: Population Ecology
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Q1) Starting from a single individual, what is the size of a population of bacteria at the end of a 2-hour time period if they reproduce by binary fission every 20 minutes? (Assume unlimited resources and no mortality.)
A) 16
B) 32
C) 64
D) 128
Q2) Why does the U.S. population continue to grow even though the United States has essentially established a zero population growth (ZPG)?
A) emigration
B) immigration
C) baby boomer reproduction
D) the 2007-2009 economic recession
Q3) During exponential growth, a population always
A) has a constant per capita population growth rate.
B) quickly reaches its carrying capacity.
C) cycles through time.
D) loses some individuals to emigration.
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Chapter 54: Community Ecology
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Q1) According to the nonequilibrium model of community diversity, ________.
A) community structure remains stable in the absence of interspecific competition
B) communities are assemblages of closely linked species that are permanently changed by disturbance
C) interspecific interactions induce changes in community composition over time
D) communities are constantly changing after being influenced by disturbances
Q2) Approximately how many kilograms (kg)of carnivore (secondary consumer)biomass can be supported by a field plot containing 1000 kg of plant material?
A) 1000
B) 100
C) 10
D) 1
Q3) There are more species in tropical areas than in places more distant from the equator. This is probably a result of ________.
A) fewer predators and parasites
B) more dispersed annual solar radiation compared to the poles
C) more frequent ecological disturbances over a longer time span
D) a longer time frame without disturbances for evolution and speciation
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Page 56
Chapter 55: Ecosystems and Restoration Ecology
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Q1) Which of the following has the greatest effect on the rate of chemical cycling in an ecosystem?
A) the rate of decomposition in the ecosystem
B) the production efficiency of the ecosystem's consumers
C) the trophic efficiency of the ecosystem
D) the location of the nutrient reservoirs in the ecosystem
Q2) Why is terrestrial productivity higher in equatorial climates?
A) Productivity increases with temperature.
B) Productivity increases with water availability.
C) Productivity increases with available sunlight.
D) The answer is most likely a combination of the other responses.
Q3) Matter may be gained by, or lost from, ecosystems. How does this occur?
A) Chemoautotrophic organisms can convert matter to energy.
B) Matter can move from one ecosystem to another.
C) Photosynthetic organisms convert solar energy to sugars.
D) Heterotrophs convert heat to energy.
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Chapter 56: Conservation Biology and Global Change
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Q1) If the sex ratio in a population is significantly different from 50:50, then which of the following statements will always be accurate?
A) The population will enter the extinction vortex.
B) The genetic variation in the population will increase over time.
C) Modeling of the minimum viable population size will underestimate the actual population size.
D) The effective population size will be less than the actual population size.
Q2) One characteristic that distinguishes a population in an extinction vortex from most other populations is that
A) it is a rare, top-level predator.
B) its effective population size is lower than its total population size.
C) its genetic diversity is very low.
D) it is not well adapted to edge conditions.
Q3) Movement corridors can be harmful to certain species because they ________.
A) increase inbreeding
B) spread disease and parasites
C) increase genetic diversity
D) allow seasonal migration
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