Foundations of Biology
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
Foundations of Biology introduces students to the fundamental concepts and principles that underpin the study of living organisms. The course covers the structure and function of cells, biochemical processes, genetics, evolution, and the diversity of life. Through lectures, laboratory exercises, and interactive discussions, students will explore how organisms grow, reproduce, and interact with their environment. Emphasis is placed on the scientific method, experimental design, and the relevance of biology to real-world issues. This foundational course provides the essential knowledge required for advanced studies in the biological sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Biology Now 1st Edition by Anne Houtman
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Nature of Science
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Sample Questions
Q1) In 1890, Robert Koch developed a hypothesis regarding the cause of communicable diseases. He designed an experiment and collected data that supported his hypothesis. Later, his experiment was repeated by many other scientists who used other pathogens and documented similar results that not only supported their hypotheses but also supported Koch's original hypothesis. These many experiments that supported multiple hypotheses regarding the cause of communicable diseases contributed to the development of the
A)theory of evolution.
B)germ theory of disease.
C)theory of relativity.
D)law of gravity.
Answer: B
Q2) A scientific hypothesis must be ________; if not, science cannot evaluate it.
A)provable
B)testable
C)accepted
D)rejected
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) During a study session, a Biology classmate holds up a bottle of water and mentions that there are both hydrogen bonds and covalent bonds found within the liquid. Explain your classmate's statement by describing the types of bonds that are found within your bottle of water.
Answer: Your classmate is correct in his or her assessment of the bonds in the water. Within a water molecule, the hydrogen and oxygen atoms are held together by covalent bonds. Hydrogen bonds attract neighboring water molecules due to partial positive and partial negative charges on the hydrogen and oxygen atoms, respectively.
Q2) Which of the following amino acids begins the construction of all proteins in the human body?
A)methionine
B)leucine
C)proline
D)tryptophan
Answer: A
Q3) The number that represents neutrality on the pH scale is ________. Answer: 7
Q4) The class of macromolecules that do NOT form true polymers are the ________. Answer: lipids
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Chapter 3: Life Is Cellular
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Q1) Which of the following types of organisms are commonly single-celled (unicellular)?
A)bacteria, some fungi (yeast), and many protozoans
B)many fungi, some protozoans, and plants
C)plants and animals
D)many fungi, plants, and animals
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following statements is true of chloroplasts?
A)They produce proteins used by other parts of the cell.
B)They capture energy from sunlight.
C)They give an animal cell its shape.
D)They contain an entire copy of a cell's genetic material.
Answer: B
Q3) A factory with an office that controls the information sent to separate rooms for each of the manufacturing and shipping processes would be analogous to A)a virus.
B)a prokaryotic cell with a nucleus.
C)a prokaryotic cell without a nucleus.
D)a eukaryotic cell with a nucleus.
Answer: D
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Page 5
Chapter 4: How Cells Work
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Krebs cycle produces
A)NADH, ATP, and FADH2.
B)water and carbon dioxide.
C)ADP and NADP+.
D)acetyl CoA and sugars.
Q2) produces light energy
Q3) Chemical reactions that break down lipids are
A)catabolic.
B)anabolic.
C)metabolic.
D)respiration.
Q4) As an energy carrier, ATP differs from NADPH in that
A)ATP transfers energy through phosphorylation, whereas NADPH donates electrons and hydrogen ions.
B)ATP transfers energy through redox reactions, whereas NADPH uses phosphorylation.
C)NADPH is involved in a larger variety of chemical reactions than ATP.
D)NADPH is made by Photosystem I, whereas ATP is made by Photosystem II.
Q5) used by animal cells
Q6) used by plant cells
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Chapter 5: Cell Division
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Q1) The G phase of the cell cycle is distinguished by
A)the failure of cells to divide following telophase.
B)a doubling of chromosomes.
C)an absence of preparation for DNA synthesis.
D)the appearance of a metaphase plate.
Q2) Which of the following accurately describes crossing over?
A)Sister chromatids of maternal chromosome 1 exchange segments of genetic information with one another.
B)Maternal chromosome 3 exchanges segments of DNA with paternal chromosome 21.
C)Sister chromatids of paternal chromosome 1 exchange segments of genetic information with one another.
D)Paternal chromosome 7 exchanges segments of DNA with maternal chromosome 7.
Q3) What is the purpose of having cell cycle checkpoints? What are the consequences of not having them?
Q4) In the space provided below, diagram the major events of the cell cycle. Describe the processes that occur during each of these major stages.
Q5) Sister chromatids are held together at a constriction point called a ________.
Q6) Cells spend the bulk of their time in the ________ phase of the cell cycle.
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Chapter 6: Patterns of Inheritance
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Q1) A dihybrid cross of fruit flies is used to examine inheritance patterns for eye color (black or white) and head shape (round or elongated). This cross produces 10,000 offspring, and the ratio is 1 (black eyes, round head): 1 (black eyes, elongated head): 1 (white eyes, round head): 1 (white eyes, elongated head). Is this what you would expect from a dihybrid cross? Explain your answer.
Q2) In a particular plant, two genes control leaf shape and color. Round leaves (R) are dominant to jagged leaves (r). Yellow fruits (Y) are dominant to white fruits (y). A true-breeding round-leaved, yellow-fruited plant is mated with a jagged-leaved, white-fruited plant. What are the genotypes of the plants involved in this cross?
A)RRYY ´ RRYY
B)RRYY ´ rryy
C)RrYy ´ RrYy
D)cannot determine from the information given
Q3) According to Mendel's law of ________, when gametes are formed, the separation of alleles for one gene is unrelated to the separation of alleles for other genes.
Q4) The observable physical characteristics of an organism are known as its
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Chapter 7: Chromosomes and Human Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A karyotype from an adult male indicates a chromosomal abnormality, which does not affect his health. Which of the following abnormalities is most likely seen?
A)three copies of the X chromosome
B)no copies of chromosome 2
C)a translocation between chromosome 14 and chromosome 15
D)a deletion on chromosome 5
Q2) What information in a pedigree would indicate a condition is likely dominant?
A)Twenty-five percent of the individuals in the pedigree have the condition.
B)Two-thirds of the affected individuals are females.
C)None of the affected individuals have unaffected parents.
D)Most of the affected individuals are males.
Q3) A man with a translocation in a chromosome that does not affect gene function may not realize he has a translocation until he attempts to have a child. Explain how a translocation that does not affect the individual may become problematic during reproduction.
Q4) If an individual has two alleles at a given locus that are different, the individual is said to be ________ for the gene.
Q5) An allele that "hides" in heterozygous carriers is called a ________ allele.
Q6) Why are dominant genetic disorders more rare than recessive disorders?
Page 9
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Chapter 8: What Genes Are
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a strand of double-stranded DNA, C will always be bound with A) a.
B)T.
C)C.
D)G.
Q2) A permanent change in the DNA base sequence due to an uncorrected mismatch error is called a(n)
A)mutation.
B)replication.
C)repair protein.
D)insertion.
Q3) Which of the following is true of eukaryotic genomes?
A)They consist of a single chromosome.
B)Most of the DNA codes for proteins.
C)Genes are organized by function.
D)The DNA is in the nucleus of the cell.
Q4) People with xeroderma pigmentosum frequently exhibit skin cancer. The disease is a result of a mutation in a gene that produces a ________ protein. Without this protein, cells cannot fix changes in their DNA sequence caused by exposure to ultraviolet (UV) light.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: How Genes Work
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a codon?
A)U
B)UU
C)UUU
D)UUUU
Q2) Bacteria and humans use the same DNA components, and both kinds of cells also perform transcription and translation. Which of the following choices is a potentially significant outcome of this shared mechanism?
A)Bacteria are able to transcribe and translate human DNA, and thus they potentially could produce human proteins.
B)Bacteria are able to transcribe and translate human DNA, thus they could evolve into humans.
C)Bacterial and human proteins are identical in amino acid sequence because the mechanism for producing them is the same.
D)Bacterial and human DNA are identical in sequence because the method for producing them is the same.
Q3) The genetic code is ________, which means that all cells use the same code.
Q4) The process of using an RNA template to make proteins is called ________.
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Chapter 10: Evidence for Evolution
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Q1) The proteins and DNA of organisms that share a recent common ancestor are ________ the proteins and DNA of organisms that do not share a recent common ancestor.
A)more similar than B)less similar than C)identical to D)homologous to
Q2) Fossils of organisms that lived on Pangaea are likely found A)mainly in Africa.
B)mainly in Eurasia.
C)mainly in South America.
D)widely dispersed throughout the world.
Q3) Peppered moths are generally light in color and blend into the trunks of the trees they live on. Populations of peppered moths found in areas where soot has blackened the tree trunks are dark in color. This example demonstrates A)artificial selection.
B)natural selection.
C)genetic drift.
D)vestigial coloration.
Q4) The preserved remains of formerly living organisms are called ________.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Mechanisms of Evolution
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Q1) Genetic variation is based on
A)the inheritance of alleles accumulated during the lifetime of an individual.
B)differences in genotypes between the individuals in a population.
C)the accumulation of mutations in somatic cells (as opposed to gametes).
D)the formation of new combinations of alleles during asexual reproduction.
Q2) An area consists of dark and light rocks. Mouse populations that live on the dark rocks tend to be darkly colored; mouse populations that live on the light rocks tend to be lightly colored.
A)genetic drift
B)genetic bottleneck
C)founder effect
D)gene flow
E)natural selection
Q3) What is genetic drift?
A)gene mutation within, or between, populations
B)chance evolutionary change occurring in small populations
C)natural selection acting on large populations
D)shifts in allelic frequencies due to mutation
Q4) A chance evolutionary change occurring in small populations is referred to as
13
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Chapter 12: Adaptation and Species
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Q1) Based on the ________ species concept, organisms that breed asexually are most likely classified as species.
Q2) The great diversity of life on Earth is caused by the formation of new species in a process known as ________.
Q3) Choose two different reproductive barriers that lead to sympatric speciation and explain how they work.
Q4) Close ecological interactions between two different species may lead to
A)allopatric speciation.
B)sympatric speciation.
C)coevolution.
D)geographic isolation.
Q5) How does coevolution lead to speciation?
A)Coevolution is the mechanism that allows allopatric speciation to occur.
B)Coevolution causes the extinction of species that have limited genetic diversity.
C)The adaptations that occur during coevolution are passed on to other species.
D)An adaptation in one organism drives adaptation in a second organism.
Q6) Two species evolving together in response to interactions between the two species is referred to as ________.
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Chapter 13: The History of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which kind of organism makes up the oldest fossil found on Earth?
A)protists
B)animals
C)bacteria
D)plants
Q2) The emergence of each new branch on the evolutionary tree represents
A)the addition of a new Linnaean taxon within that lineage.
B)the completion of a generation for that particular organism.
C)the introduction of the most important features of a group.
D)a common ancestor and the introduction of a new shared derived feature.
Q3) The fossil record indicates that species have become extinct throughout the history of life. There have been five ________, during which greater than 50 percent of Earth's species became extinct.
Q4) Which of these kingdoms share a most recent, common ancestor?
A)Plantae and Fungi
B)Plantae and Animalia
C)Animalia and Protista
D)Animal and Fungi
Q5) Identify key characteristics for kingdom Fungi and provide three examples of members of this kingdom.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Human Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Family
A)Homo
B)Primates
C)Chordata
D)Homo sapiens
E)Mammalia
F)Animalia
G)Hominidae
Q2) Which of the following could NOT be used to describe humans?
A)eutherian
B)mammal
C)primate
D)marsupial
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a feature of hominins that distinguishes them from other hominids?
A)bipedal walking
B)upright posture
C)opposable big toe
D)a relatively flat face
Q4) All of your mitochondrial DNA was inherited from your ________.
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Chapter 15: General Principles of Ecology
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Q1) Not all gases are greenhouse gases. Which of the following would be a greenhouse gas?
A)a gas that participates in biogeochemical cycling in the biosphere
B)a gas that absorbs heat that radiates away from the Earth's surface
C)a gas that does not participate in biogeochemical cycling in the biosphere
D)a gas that does not absorb heat that radiates away from the Earth's surface
Q2) What best describes the relationship between cutting down forests and changes in atmospheric carbon dioxide levels?
A)Herbivore populations decline in the absence of forests, and without their respiration less carbon dioxide is recycled into the atmosphere.
B)The carbon dioxide used by the plants for cellular respiration would all be released into the atmosphere at once.
C)Trees naturally die and decompose, but when turned into lumber their carbon is prevented from recycling back to the atmosphere.
D)In the absence of forest plants, there would be less carbon dioxide removed from the atmosphere for use during photosynthesis.
Q3) Describe how burning fossil fuels can warm the planet.
Q4) Nonliving factors in the biosphere are called ________ factors.
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Growth of Populations
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Q1) Nene, Hawaiian geese, live on Maui. Their population density is approximately 0.2 per square kilometer and Maui is approximately 1,800 square kilometers in size.
Approximately how many nene live on Maui?
A)18
B)130
C)360
D)1,800
Q2) A new species is introduced into a given area. The population size begins to grow slowly, then at a very rapid rate, and finally levels off at a stable number. This growth pattern is best represented by a(n)
A)oscillating cycle.
B)J-shaped population curve.
C)C-shaped population curve.
D)S-shaped population curve.
Q3) One measure of population growth is the period in which a population increases to twice its size. This is referred to as the ________ of the population.
Q4) Explain whether a death rate increase from influenza is an example of a density-dependent population change or a density-independent population change.
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Chapter 17: Communities of Organisms
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Q1) The relationship between house pets and people would be best described as A)parasitic.
B)mutualistic.
C)predatorial.
D)competitive.
Q2) bears and wolves both consuming carcasses within the same area
A)mutualism
B)commensalism
C)exploitation
D)competition
Q3) The process that establishes new communities and restores disturbed communities is termed
A)secondary growth.
B)eutrophication.
C)diversification.
D)succession.
Q4) One of the factors governing diversity within a community is species ________, which is defined as the total number of different species living within that community.
Q5) How does primary succession differ from secondary succession?
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Chapter 18: Ecosystems
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Q1) Within the ecosystem, nutrients
A)move in a one-way path from producers toward consumers.
B)regularly cycle between organisms and the nonliving environment.
C)are consumed by their use and thus are not available for recycling.
D)are rarely limiting because they are constantly replenished as the Earth's crust is eroded.
Q2) What best explains this observation: consumers directly use approximately 20 percent of a forest's net primary productivity (NPP), whereas decomposers directly use approximately 80 percent?
A)Decomposers are more efficient at obtaining energy than consumers.
B)Forest ecosystems do not have a very high NPP, so they cannot support as many consumers as other ecosystems can.
C)Consumers eat only certain parts of organisms, such as fruits or muscle tissue, whereas decomposers obtain energy from the entire body of the food organism.
D)Secondary consumers eat the primary consumers more quickly than the primary consumers can eat the producers, thus leaving most of the NPP available to the decomposers.
Q3) Explain why ecosystems do not always have sharply defined physical boundaries.
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Chapter 19: Homeostasis, Reproduction, and Development
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Q1) After about an hour of basking in the sun, the body temperature of the marine iguana reaches 37°C, and the animal dives into the water to feed. In the water, its body temperature rapidly drops, and the iguana must return to the rocks to warm up. This process is an example of
A)tissue shock.
B)negative feedback.
C)set point control.
D)positive feedback.
Q2) site of oocyte production and maturation
A)oviduct
B)vagina
C)uterus
D)penis
E)ovary
F)testes
Q3) Explain the benefit to species that reproduce using organisms that are hermaphrodites.
Q4) A plastic pouch that lines the vagina and prevents the entry of sperm is called a ________.
Q5) The ________ is the site of ovum fertilization in human females.
21
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Chapter 20: Digestive, Muscular, and Skeletal Systems
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Q1) The knee is part of the ________ skeleton, which is designed primarily for
A)axial; protection
B)axial; motion
C)appendicular; protection
D)appendicular; motion
Q2) Which of the following would NOT be found in the lower small intestine?
A)microvilli
B)villi
C)a large surface area
D)a smooth surface
Q3) Explain why dietary fiber is important in a human's diet.
Q4) Ligaments are connective tissue that connects ________ to bone.
Q5) A person has a disorder that prevents the heads of myosin molecules from being released from actin filaments. How would you expect this disorder to affect a muscle in this person's body?
Q6) The nutrients in food enter our body by crossing through the epithelial cells that line the ________ intestine.
Q7) Tendons are connective tissue that connects ________ to bone.
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Q8) The ________ supplies digestive enzymes and bicarbonate to the small intestine.
Chapter 21: Circulatory, Respiratory, Urinary, and Nervous Systems
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Q1) Which of the following sensory receptor types is NOT found in humans?
A)chemoreceptors
B)mechanoreceptors
C)magnetoreceptors
D)thermoreceptors
Q2) For a human to inhale, the rib muscles and the diaphragm must
A)contract, decreasing pressure inside the lungs.
B)relax, increasing pressure inside the lungs.
C)contract, increasing pressure inside the lungs.
D)relax, decreasing pressure inside the lungs.
Q3) Which of the following structures has the smallest diameter?
A)the pharynx
B)the trachea
C)the bronchi
D)the bronchioles
Q4) The external signals and information that are received by an organism are called
A)sensory receptors.
B)dendrites.
C)stimuli.
D)nodes.
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Chapter 22: Endocrine and Immune Systems
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Q1) In the vertebrate immune response to a pathogen, which of the following would occur first?
A)inflammation
B)external defenses
C)fever
D)adaptive immunity
Q2) Which of the following prevents both blood loss and the invasion of pathogens in vertebrates?
A)the formation of blood clots
B)phagocytosis
C)humoral immunity
D)cell-mediated immunity
Q3) sites where trapped pathogens initiate adaptive immune responses
A)macrophages
B)mucous membranes
C)cytokines
D)B cells
E)lymph nodes
F)platelets
Q4) The hormone-producing tissues of animals make up the ________ system.
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Chapter 23: Plant Physiology
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Q1) A plant whose seeds are dispersed by animals most likely produces
A)small, soft seeds.
B)small, light seeds.
C)large, dense seeds.
D)large, sugary seeds.
Q2) Spores undergo mitosis to form the haploid ________, one of the two stages in the life cycle of plants.
Q3) Which of the following plants is a monocot?
A)a carnation
B)grass
C)an oak tree
D)a rose
Q4) Which of the following is NOT a plant hormone?
A)abscisic acid
B)ethylene
C)gibberellin
D)nicotine
Q5) The hormone ________ is a gas produced by ripening fruit, and it can induce other fruits nearby to ripen.
Page 25
Q6) Compare and contrast the products of meiosis in plants and in animals.
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Chapter 24: Applying the Science
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Q1) Biology Now, your textbook
A)primary
B)secondary
Q2) What is a first step an individual should take when beginning to assess a "scientific" claim made by another person?
Q3) You are reading a paper in the journal Vaccine that analyzed and combined the results from five observational studies involving over one million children and another five studies that compared children with autism to children without autism (a total of nearly 10,000 children). The paper you are reading is best recognized as a
A)secondary literature source.
B)meta-analysis and primary literature source.
C)cohort study.
D)case-control study.
Q4) Popular Science, a popular magazine about science
A)primary
B)secondary
Q5) A statement about how the world works that can be supported, or not, by using the scientific method is a(n) ________ claim.
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