Foundations of Biology Final
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Course Introduction
Foundations of Biology introduces students to the essential principles that underpin the study of living organisms. The course covers fundamental topics such as cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of life. Through lectures, laboratory exercises, and discussions, students gain a comprehensive understanding of biological processes at the molecular, cellular, and organismal levels, as well as an appreciation for the scientific method and the relevance of biology to real-world issues in health and the environment.
Recommended Textbook
Biology Concepts and Investigations 3rd Edition by Marille Hoefnagels Dr
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Scientific Study of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Charles Darwin observed an orchid flower with very long,thin tubes that prevent many species from feeding on flower nectar and pollinating the flower.He offered a prediction that some species of pollinator would eventually be found that can feed and pollinate through the small tube.You decide to test Charles Darwin's proposal by placing nets over some orchids that allow small pollinators to enter,but prevent the large sphinx moth from entering.You then compare the number of seeds produced by plants with and without the nets.The seed production is
A) a theory.
B) a dependent variable.
C) an independent variable.
D) a standardized variable.
E) a hypothesis.
Answer: B
Q2) In this experiment,if the people actually giving the placebo,low,medium or high vaccine doses did not know which dose they were administering,it was an example of a double-blind experiment.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Many diseases,cancers and even normal human variations can be caused by mutations and variations in the DNA nucleotide sequence.The most likely immediate result of DNA having a different nucleotide sequence is that A) the peptide bonds in the protein would by hydrolyzed and the protein would fall apart.
B) the protein resulting from the DNA mutation would be denatured and nonfunctional.
C) the primary structure of R group sequence in a protein would be altered.
D) no direct result of change in the protein molecule would occur if DNA is mutated.
Answer: C
Q2) In our diets,this molecule is often covalently bonded with others in the polymer form of
A) a complex carbohydrate.
B) a fatty acid chain.
C) a triglyceride.
D) a simple sugar.
Answer: A
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4
Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Q1) You are working on a forensics team and collect some cells from a crime scene.The cells are angular,rigid,and have a cell wall made up of cellulose.This sample most likely came from a(n)
A) plant.
B) All of the answer choices are correct.
C) animal.
D) fungus.
E) All could be correct.
Answer: A
Q2) Cilia in eukaryote cells
A) can move in unison to establish a current to move objects, as with human eggs through the reproductive tract.
B) can assist digestive tract cells in absorbing food molecules.
C) can be used in eukaryotes to do any of these functions.
D) can beat in unison to help a single cell, such as a protist, to swim.
E) can add surface area for senses such as taste, smell, balance, hearing.
Answer: C
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5
Chapter 4: The Energy of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Competitive inhibition of enzymes occurs
A) when a substance binds to an enzyme at a site away from the active site.
B) when the product, instead of the reactant of a reaction binds to the active site.
C) when a substance other than the substrate binds at the active site of an enzyme.
D) when the product, or other substances, instead of the reactant, bind to the active site of the enzyme.
E) by blocking the production of an enzyme.
Q2) Simple diffusion occurs naturally as it ___ of a system.
A) decreases the kinetic energy
B) increases the potential energy
C) decreases the equilibrium
D) increases the entropy
E) All of the answer choices are correct.
Q3) Coupled reactions are reactions in which a
A) exergonic reaction drives an endergonic reaction.
B) exergonic reaction drives a spontaneous reaction.
C) endergonic reaction drives an exergonic reaction.
D) endergonic reaction drives a spontaneous reaction.
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6
Chapter 5: Photosynthesis
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Q1) How did the scientists rule out that the chloroplasts could function outside of a host cell?
A) They shined light on the chloroplasts and looked for oxygen production.
B) They found the algal photosystem II psbO gene in the sea slug chromosomes.
C) They injected the chloroplasts into a heterotrophic bacteria and it could now perform photosynthesis.
D) The chloroplast chromosomes were missing photosystem II gene psbO.
E) They did not find the photosystem II psbO gene in the puffer fish chromosomes.
Q2) The role of water in photosystem I is in contributing electrons,hydrogens,and oxygen.The resulting electrons in photosystem I
A) are used by the Rubisco enzyme to complete carbon fixation with RuBP and CO<sub>2</sub>.
B) directly pass through ATP synthase enzymes to activate them in transforming ADP to ATP.
C) prevent chlorophylls from losing all electrons and breaking apart as they capture light energy.
D) are added to hydrogens so they can be transported across the thylakoid membranes more easily.
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Chapter 6: How Cells Release Energy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The three main biochemical pathways of cellular respiration are
A) Calvin cycle, Krebs cycle, and light reactions.
B) light reactions, carbon reactions, and electron transport.
C) glycolysis, Krebs cycle, and electron transport.
D) glycolysis, light reactions, and Calvin cycle.
E) Krebs cycle, Calvin cycle, and electron transport.
Q2) Plants are net
A) O<sub>2</sub> and CO<sub>2</sub> consumers.
B) O<sub>2</sub> consumers and CO<sub>2</sub> producers.
C) O<sub>2</sub> producers and CO<sub>2</sub> consumers.
D) O<sub>2</sub> and CO<sub>2</sub> producers.
Q3) The reactions in glycolysis are reversible,however,the conversion of pyruvate into acetyl CoA is irreversible in animal cells.Can fatty acids be converted back into carbohydrates?
A) No, because they enter metabolism as acetyl CoA.
B) No, because they enter metabolism as pyruvate.
C) Yes, because they enter metabolism as pyruvate.
D) Yes, because they enter metabolism in the Krebs cycle.
E) Yes, because they enter metabolism as acetyl CoA.
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Chapter 7: DNA Structure and Gene Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The step of translation in which amino acids are added one at a time to the growing polypeptide is
A) initiation.
B) transcription.
C) termination.
D) elongation.
E) mitosis.
Q2) How did the researchers estimate that the original FOXP2 mutation happened 300,000-400,000 years ago?
A) by examining the fossil record
B) They found the mutation in Neandertal DNA.
C) They found the mutation in chimpanzee DNA.
D) They found the mutation in 300,000-year-old human remains.
E) using a molecular clock
Q3) Transposable elements
A) result from damage to the chromosomes by things like radiation.
B) are DNA sequences that can "jump" within the genome.
C) are another name for translocations.
D) are segments of RNA found in chromosomes.
E) are formed during transcription.
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Chapter 8: DNA Replication, mitosis, and the Cell Cycle
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Q1) The enzyme that builds a short complementary piece of RNA at the start of each DNA segment to be replicated is
A) helicase.
B) ligase.
C) DNA polymerase.
D) primase.
E) ATP synthase.
Q2) The four nitrogen bases that are found in the different nucleotides of DNA are
A) adenine, thymine, cytosine, guanine.
B) uracil, adenine, cytosine, guanine.
C) None of the answer choices are correct.
D) adenine, thymine, cytosine, uracil.
E) uracil, cytosine, guanine, thymine.
Q3) In order for a cell to become cancerous,oncogenes must be ___,or tumor suppressors are ___.
A) activated; activated
B) activated; inactivated
C) inactivated; inactivated
D) inactivated; activated
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Sexual Reproduction and Meiosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the correct comparison between the human X and Y chromosomes.
A) The X chromosome is larger than the Y chromosome.
B) Only the Y chromosome is always found without a homologous match.
C) Only the X chromosome is paired with a homologous match in human females.
D) Although both are sex chromosomes, they do not share the same genes.
E) All of the answer choices are correct.
Q2) In plants,haploid gametophytes produce gametes by A) non-disjunction.
B) mitosis.
C) meiosis.
D) sporulation.
E) fertilization.
Q3) Suppose a researcher halts a cell undergoing mitosis in interphase.The chromosomes are in the 2n state,
A) with the diploid chromosome set viewable in a karyotype.
B) easily viewable in a karyotype.
C) because they have already formed gametes.
D) meaning the cell is diploid.
E) because the cell is haploid.
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Patterns of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) A gene that produces a protein that is important in more than one biochemical pathway,or other trait,is a ___ gene.
A) recessive
B) dominant
C) pleiotropic
D) codominant
E) incomplete dominant
Q2) Phenotype means
A) the number of chromosomes in an individual.
B) the genes an individual has.
C) the combination of alleles in an individual.
D) the observable expression of the genes in an individual.
E) the number of gametes in an individual.
Q3) The individual sometimes referred to as the "father of genetics" because he influenced the science of genetics more than anyone else is Gregor Mendel.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: DNA Technology
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Q1) Being cloned,Dolly exhibited differences from normally reproduced sheep,in that she A) was able to reproduce asexually, without requirement of a male sperm.
B) gave birth to healthy lambs through normal sexual reproduction.
C) developed lung disease at a young age of six years.
D) developed both arthritis in her hind legs, and lung disease, dying at a young age.
E) developed arthritis in her hind legs.
Q2) Pre-implantation genetic diagnosis uses DNA testing to examine the genes in sperm,egg,or embryo cells.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The method of polymerase chain reaction (PCR)is used to make enough exact copies of DNA for researchers to use in analysis.
A)True B)False
Q4) A GMO is a transgenic organism.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: The Forces of Evolutionary Change
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Q1) The few ancestors of the Galàpagos finches who colonized the islands would be an example of
A) founder effect.
B) increased mutation rate.
C) a bottleneck.
D) gene flow.
E) natural selection.
Q2) In figure (a),what was the dependent variable?
A) the mean weight of harvested fish
B) the species of fish
C) the size at which the fish were harvested
D) the age of the fish
E) the generation
Q3) In the Hardy-Weinberg equation,p<sup>2</sup> + 2pq + q<sup>2</sup> = 1: 2pq represents the frequency of
A) homozygous recessive and heterozygous individuals.
B) homozygous dominant individuals.
C) homozygous recessive individuals.
D) heterozygous individuals.
E) homozygous dominant and heterozygous individuals.
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Chapter 13: Evidence of Evolution
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Q1) According to fossil records,mammals
A) first appeared in the same geologic era, the Mesozoic, as dinosaurs.
B) None of the answer choices are correct.
C) first appeared in the current Quaternary period of the Cenozoic era.
D) did not appear until the Cenozoic era, after dinosaurs were extinct.
E) lived in the same era, the Paleozoic, as reptiles, amphibians, and bony fishes.
Q2) Fossils may be
A) All of the answer choices are correct.
B) from impressions left after an organism decays.
C) casts from footprints that have filled with mud and then turned to stone.
D) formed when plant resin or tar preserves the specimen.
E) formed as organic matter is replaced by minerals, turning to stone.
Q3) The abundant presence of ammonite fossils,corals,sponges,and crinoids in a large area indicate that the area was once part of an ocean.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Earth's history spans about 4.5 billion years.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Speciation and Extinction
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Q1) The types of living organisms on Earth have changed over time,new species have originated,and existing species have disappeared.These are examples of A) macroevolution.
B) hybridization.
C) speciation.
D) alternation of generations.
E) extinction.
Q2) Lizards and mammals are proposed in this cladogram to be more closely related than lizards and birds.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When the researchers crossed M.lewisii and M.cardinalis,the hybrids had which genotype?
A) yup
B) YUP/YUP
C) YUP
D) yup/yup
E) YUP/yup
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Chapter 15: The Origin and History of Life
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Q1) The mass extinctions of the Permian period
A) was caused by a drop in sea level.
B) paved the way for the age of dinosaurs.
C) All of the answer choices are correct.
D) was caused by a rise in global temperature.
E) was caused by a long series of volcanic eruptions.
Q2) How is the ability of phospholipids to spontaneously form membranes when placed in water important in the origin of life on Earth?
A) Membranes are used by cells to isolate their contents from the environment.
B) Membranes protect a cell from gases in the atmosphere.
C) Membranes protect a cell from high temperatures and pressures in the environment.
D) Membranes are used by cells to catalyze reactions.
E) Membranes are used by cells to store genetic information.
Q3) The endoplasmic reticulum,Golgi apparatus,and other membranous organelles of cells might have formed by numerous infoldings of the cell's outer membrane.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Viruses
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Q1) A reason(s)given by scientists as to why viruses are not considered living organisms include
A) viruses do not contain a nucleus.
B) viruses do not reproduce on their own.
C) viruses can be frozen and still survive.
D) viruses do not contain genetic information.
E) viruses are all smaller than the smallest known cells.
Q2) Many viruses are inhibited by antibiotics.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Poliomyelitis is an RNA virus that can invade the nervous system and cause paralysis within a matter of hours.The nearly complete elimination of polio worldwide is due to A) quarantine.
B) vaccination.
C) antibiotics.
D) mosquito control.
E) improved water quality.
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Chapter 17: Bacteria and Archaea
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Q1) Many prokaryotes play vital roles in global nutrient cycles.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An organism to which oxygen is toxic is an obligate anaerobe.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Infections by Helicobacter pylori cause 90% of peptic ulcers in the United States.These bacteria have pili that are only expressed in acidic conditions.A characteristic of this organism should be an ability to
A) enter the bloodstream.
B) move in the direction opposite the pili.
C) avoid ingestion by cells in the immune system.
D) attach to cells in the host organism's stomach.
E) induce a large antibody response.
Q4) The main difference between gram-positive bacteria and gram-negative bacteria is in the structure of their cell membranes.
A)True
B)False
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19
Chapter 18: Protists
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Q1) A woman was told by her doctor that while she is pregnant,she might want to let someone else care for her cats so she would not contract toxoplasmosis through which mechanism?
A) exposure to infected cat feces
B) fleas that transmit toxoplasmosis
C) scratches from infected claws
D) infection from mice the cat may bring into the house
E) infection from saliva
Q2) Which algae group has the largest multicellular forms?
A) brown algae
B) diatoms
C) red algae
D) golden algae
E) green algae
Q3) All protists are single-celled.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Protists can be heterotrophs.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Plants
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Q1) In a biology lab experiment,you and the class planted seeds from eudicot and monocot plants in soil that had been sterilized,to remove nutrients.The seeds of each plant were still able to perform metabolism,enabling them to germinate and begin growing as seedlings.The structure that helped provide the nutrients is the
A) endosperm.
B) seed coat.
C) spore coat.
D) fruit.
E) pollen grain.
Q2) Which of the following is not a member of the gymnosperms?
A) ginkgos
B) conifers
C) cycads
D) ferns
E) gnetophytes
Q3) Stomata allow plants to exchange carbon dioxide and oxygen with the atmosphere.
A)True
B)False
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21
Chapter 20: Fungi
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Q1) Microscopic reproductive cells produced by most fungi are
A) fruiting bodies.
B) spores.
C) mycelium.
D) gills.
E) hyphae.
Q2) Mycologists classify fungi into five phyla based on their sexual structures.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In the figure,what was the dependent variable?
A) the percent of the leaf area damaged
B) the age of the leaf
C) the presence or absence of the pathogen Phytophthora
D) the presence or absence of endophyte spores
E) the percent of the leaf area containing endophytes
Q4) Salt and sugar in high enough concentrations retard mold growth by limiting the ability of these organisms to take up water by osmosis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Animals
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Q1) Which of the following is not an example of a mammal?
A) dolphin
B) whale
C) platypus
D) penguin
E) kangaroo
Q2) Sponges belong to the phylum containing the
A) Nematodes.
B) Flatworms.
C) Cnidarians.
D) Annelids.
E) Sponges.
Q3) The function of vertebrae is to
A) protect the brain and nerve cord.
B) protect the nerve cord and provide attachment points for muscles.
C) provide attachment points for muscles.
D) protect the brain.
E) protect the nerve chord.
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Chapter 22: Plant Form and Function
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Q1) Tree rings represent growth during wet and dry periods of the year.In a deciduous tree found in the north,which two seasons would contribute to tree rings?
A) winter and spring
B) summer and fall
C) spring and summer
D) spring and fall
E) winter and summer
Q2) On a hot,sunny day,which of the following would help protect a plant from water loss?
A) stomata
B) phloem and stomata
C) cuticle and phloem
D) cuticle
E) cuticle and stomata
Q3) The three main types of tissue formed by plant cells are ground tissue,dermal tissue,and vascular tissue.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Plant Nutrition and Transport
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Q1) What can you conclude about the grass in your lawn if the recommended fertilizer has an N-P-K ratio of 29-3-4?
A) It has a taproot.
B) It is not a legume.
C) It is parasitic.
D) It needs a lot of water.
E) P and K are not essential nutrients.
Q2) During photosynthesis in a leaf,sugars are loaded into the sieve tube by _____,followed by ______ to increase the pressure.
A) osmosis; facilitated diffusion
B) osmosis; gravity
C) facilitated diffusion; osmosis
D) gravity; active transport
E) active transport; osmosis
Q3) Carnivorous plants exist only in science fiction.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The "wearing away" of soil by wind and water is called erosion.
A)True
B)False
25
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Chapter 24: Reproduction and Development of Flowering Plants
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Q1) A region of separation that forms near the base of the leaf's petiole when the leaf is shed is the
A) Casparian strip.
B) endosperm.
C) statolith.
D) abscission zone.
E) pericycle.
Q2) The portion of a flower that receives the pollen is the A) anther.
B) ovary.
C) sepal.
D) style.
E) stigma.
Q3) When Tewsbury and Nabhan carried out feeding preferences studies,they were testing their hypothesis that peppers are hot
A) to promote pollination of the peppers.
B) for a reason unrelated to seed dispersal or destruction.
C) to promote dispersion when animals drop the hot fruit.
D) to deter seed destroyers without affecting dispersers.
Page 26
E) to deter all animals from destroying the seeds.
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Chapter 25: Animal Tissues and Organ Systems
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Q1) The type of cell that produces fine fibers of collagen in cartilage is an osteocyte.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which pairs of organs interact to control gas exchange?
A) lungs, brain
B) lungs, skin
C) brain, skin
D) skin, bones
E) lungs, kidneys
Q3) The type of connective tissue which stores lipids is called
A) adipose.
B) bone.
C) cartilage.
D) dense connective.
E) blood.
Q4) An organ is defined as consisting of two or more interacting tissues.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: The Nervous System
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Q1) How would exposure to saxitoxin from algae cause changes in clam populations?
A) Saxitoxin would cause mutations to occur in the clam's DNA.
B) Saxitoxin would increase the mutation rates in clams.
C) Saxitoxin would select existing mutations in the clam population.
D) Clams sensitive to saxitoxin would migrate away from the algae bloom.
E) Clams would want to change their Na<sup>+</sup> transporters to become resistant to saxitoxin.
Q2) A neuronn must reach threshold potential before an action potential begins.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If you were designing an artificial device to mimic a nerve involved in perceiving pressure,what kind of potential would the device need to mimic?
A) threshold potential
B) action potential
C) graded potential
D) both threshold and action potentials
E) both threshold and graded potentials
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Chapter 27: The Senses
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Q1) In humans,which of the following is used to primarily detect heat?
A) photoreceptor
B) proprioceptor
C) thermoreceptor
D) mechanoreceptor
E) chemoreceptor
Q2) If you wanted to design a drug to stop the sense of smell,what kind of receptor would you target?
A) photoreceptor
B) chemoreceptor
C) proprioreceptor
D) electroreceptor
E) thermoreceptor
Q3) In humans,taste buds are most highly concentrated on the inside surface of the lips of the mouth.
A)True
B)False
Q4) All animal eyes have a macula.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 28: The Endocrine System
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Q1) Which hormones is(are)primary endocrine product(s)of the ovaries?
A) estrogen and follicle-stimulating hormone
B) follicle-stimulating hormone and testosterone.
C) progesterone and testosterone
D) estrogen and follicle-stimulating hormone.
E) estrogen and progesterone
Q2) A person suffering from acromegaly produces too much ___________ as a(n)______________.
A) testosterone; child
B) testosterone; adult
C) growth hormone; child
D) growth hormone; adult
E) insulin; child
Q3) If you labelled the anterior pituitary with radioactivity,which hormone would you not expect to find containing radioactivity?
A) antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
B) luteinizing hormone (LH)
C) follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
D) thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
E) adredocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
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Chapter 29: The Skeletal and Muscular Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) A slow-twitch muscle fiber
A) uses ATP quickly in short, fast contractions.
B) has many capillaries.
C) is low in myoglobin content.
D) works aerobically.
E) All of the answer choices are correct.
Q2) Weak muscular contraction could be due to either poor binding of actin and myosin or to insufficient calcium available to stimulate contraction.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Due to the lack of moderate stress on the skeleton,a bedridden person is at risk of which of the following?
A) rheumatoid arthritis and muscular degeneration
B) osteoarthritis and tendon damage
C) osteoporosis and muscle degeneration
D) cartilage growth and a sprain
E) anemia and cartilage degradation
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Chapter 30: The Circulatory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The capillary wall consists only of
A) a single layer of epithelial cells covered by connective tissue.
B) connective tissue.
C) a single layer of endothelial cells.
D) smooth muscle.
E) a single layer of epithelial cells covered by smooth muscle.
Q2) Some people have been known to make money by selling blood plasma frequently,planning to do this as often as twice per week.Why is this frequency possible?
A) Plasma only contains fluid and dissolved substances such as proteins that can be rapidly replaced.
B) Plasma contains platelets which can be replaced quickly.
C) Plasma contains red blood cells which can be replaced quickly.
D) Plasma contains only water and can be rapidly replaced.
E) Plasma is regenerated from the blood cells injected back into the donor.
Q3) The right ventricle sends blood to the lungs.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 31: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) There are approximately ________________ alveoli in the adult human lung.
A) 500,000
B) 50 million
C) 500 million
D) 300,000
E) 300 million
Q2) If you were designing a new insecticide absorbed via the respiratory system,and you were studying a fluorescently labelled version of the arthropod killing chemical in it,you would first look for the label in the
A) spicules.
B) tracheae.
C) alveoli.
D) spiracles.
E) gills.
Q3) How does an insect "hold its breath"?
A) by closing its tracheae
B) by closing its mouth
C) by closing its spiracles
D) by closing its gills
E) by closing its nostrils
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Chapter 32: Digestion and Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) In sequence of their occurrence,the four major steps that vertebrate organisms use to obtain and use food are
A) ingestion, digestion, absorption, and elimination.
B) ingestion, absorption, digestion, and elimination.
C) absorption, ingestion, digestion, and elimination.
D) absorption, digestion, ingestion, and elimination.
E) digestion, absorption, ingestion, and elimination.
Q2) Most multivitamins should be taken with a meal for which reason?
A) to provide the energy needed to use the vitamins
B) to help with the absorption of water-soluble vitamins
C) to help with the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins
D) to provide food for the vitamins to break down
E) to provide the energy needed to synthesize more vitamins
Q3) In herbivores,the cecum is small because the food they ingest is easily digested.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Jellyfish have incomplete digestive tracts.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 33: Regulation of Temperature and Body Fluids
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Q1) The diffusion of water across a selectively permeable membrane is A) facilitated diffusion.
B) active transport.
C) simple diffusion.
D) osmosis.
E) phagocytosis.
Q2) The simplest nitrogenous waste product of protein breakdown is A) urea.
B) ammonia.
C) uric acid.
D) nucleic acid.
E) allatonin.
Q3) Saltwater fish lose water by osmosis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An endotherm typically will have a karger nasal cavity than an ectotherm of equivalent mass.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 34: The Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fever is part of humoral immunity since the temperature of the body is controlled from the bone marrow.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A vaccine could be prepared against a virus by allowing a patient to breathe viral coat proteins.This primary response would allow for a later,strong secondary immune response to the virus.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A phagocyte is a cell that
A) engulfs other cells and debris.
B) primarily is used to produce antibodies.
C) produces white blood cells.
D) produces platelets.
E) transports oxygen to tissues.
Q4) Administering antivenom is a form of active immunity.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 35: Animal Reproduction and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) A caterpillar turning into a butterfly is an example of A) direct development.
B) indirect development.
C) external fertilization.
D) internal fertilization.
E) reproduction.
Q2) A diaphragm is a shallow,dome-shaped rubber disk with a flexible rim that fits within the vagina and covers the cervix.How does this act as a contraceptive to prevent pregnancy?
A) It would prevent sperm from reaching the egg.
B) It would prevent ovulation.
C) It would cause the embryo to die.
D) It would prevent implantation on the uterine wall.
E) If would act as a spermicide, killing sperm.
Q3) Substances that cause birth defects are collectively called A) androgens.
B) prostaglandins.
C) teratogens.
D) follicle-stimulating hormones.
E) None of the answer choices are correct.
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Chapter 36: Animal Behavior
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Q1) Many small animals,such as raccoons and squirrels,become used to and stop reacting to loud noises,sights,and actions of people in cities or suburbs.They react differently from how they would,if encountering people in the wild.This is an example of A) habituation.
B) taxis.
C) reflex.
D) observational.
E) imprinting.
Q2) In which case is a male vertebrate exhibiting stronger confidence in paternity?
A) A male fish will help rear his young to adulthood.
B) A male fish will guard eggs that he fertilized.
C) A male dog will guard a female that he fertilized.
D) A male dog will help rear his young to adulthood.
Q3) An instantaneous automatic response to a stimulus is a(n) A) imprinting.
B) learned behavior.
C) reflex.
D) fixed action pattern.
E) taxis.
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Chapter 37: Population Ecology
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Questions
Q1) The difference between a population and a community in the same location is that
A) a population includes all the living organisms, while a community is the physical location in which they live.
B) a population includes members of one species, while a community includes multiple species populations.
C) a community includes members of one species, while a population includes multiple species.
D) a population includes members of one species, while a community includes its nonliving environmental resources.
E) a community is an isolated subpopulation of a larger population of a species.
Q2) In a survivorship curve,a type II species,like a song bird,is a species that has
A) the highest probability of dying at a very young age.
B) an equal probability of dying at any age.
C) the highest probability of dying as it reaches its maximum life span.
D) a strong possibility of becoming extinct in a relatively short period of time.
E) an extremely short life span.
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Chapter 38: Communities and Ecosystems
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Q1) The ecosystem that would most likely have a very high net primary productivity is a A) boreal forest.
B) desert.
C) temperate forest.
D) tundra.
E) tropical rain forest.
Q2) In a process called denitrification,bacteria convert NO<sub>3</sub><sup>- </sup>to N<sub>2</sub>.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Decomposers
A) include fungi.
B) All of the answer choices are correct.
C) obtain nutrients from detritus.
D) return organic molecules to an inorganic form.
E) include bacteria.
Q4) Resource partitioning allows only a single species to use a resource.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 39: Biomes
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Q1) The earth has an essentially constant tilt of _____ on its axis from its plane of orbit.
A) 5.5°
B) 9°
C) 12.5°
D) 23.5°
E) 30°
Q2) The biosphere is defined as the portion of _____ where life exists.
A) the earth
B) the atmosphere
C) the ocean
D) land on earth
E) fresh and salt water
Q3) As you climb a mountain,why do the biomes change?
A) The air is thinner.
B) The latitude is changing.
C) More rain falls in a rain shadow.
D) Some animals live better at higher elevations.
E) It is colder.
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Chapter 40: Preserving Biodiversity
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Q1) The background species extinction rate
A) estimates how many extinctions humans are causing.
B) estimates how quickly species disappeared before human intervention.
C) measures today's extinction rate of animals.
D) measures today's extinction rate of plants.
E) All of the answer choices are correct.
Q2) Why do populations that fragment in response to climate changes face a higher risk of extinction?
A) Population fragmentation leads to loss of genetic diversity.
B) Populations which have moved are subject to new predators.
C) Moving populations cannot breed as effectively.
D) The number of young decreases for several generations in new habitat.
E) All of the answer choices are correct.
Q3) Fish ladders can help fish populations deal with obstructions created by dams.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Lodgepole chipmunks have moved to higher elevations in the last century as temperatures at Yellowstone warmed.
A)True
B)False
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