Foundations of Biology Final Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Foundations of Biology introduces students to the fundamental concepts of living systems, emphasizing the structure and function of cells, genetics, evolution, and the diversity of life. The course covers basic biochemistry, cellular organization, metabolic pathways, molecular biology, and genetic inheritance. Through lectures, discussions, and laboratory work, students develop an understanding of the principles that govern biological processes and the scientific methods used to study organisms at the molecular, cellular, and population levels. This foundational knowledge prepares students for advanced studies in biology and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Campbell Biology Concepts and Connections 9th Edition by Jane B. Reece
Available Study Resources on Quizplus
56 Chapters
4366 Verified Questions
4366 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/751
Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction: Themes in the Study of Life
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
64 Verified Questions
64 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14647
Sample Questions
Q1) Which theme(s)is/are best illustrated by an experiment in which a biologist seeks a medication that will inhibit pain responses in a cancer patient?
A) II
B) VII
C) III and V
D) V and VIII
E) VI and VII
Answer: B
Q2) Since these organisms are protists, which of these characteristics could the students assume to be true?
A) The organisms are photosynthetic.
B) All of them are marine.
C) They are single-celled.
D) They lack membrane-bound organelles.
E) Each has a single circular molecule of DNA.
Answer: A
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 3
Chapter 2: The Chemical Context of Life
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
83 Verified Questions
83 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14648
Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is true of all atoms that are anions?
A) The atom has more electrons than protons.
B) The atom has more protons than electrons.
C) The atom has fewer protons than does a neutral atom of the same element.
D) The atom has more neutrons than protons.
E) The net charge is 1-.
Answer: A
Q2) Van der Waals interactions result when
A) hybrid orbitals overlap.
B) electrons are not symmetrically distributed in a molecule.
C) molecules held by ionic bonds react with water.
D) two polar covalent bonds react.
E) a hydrogen atom loses an electron.
Answer: B
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 4
Chapter 3: Water and Life
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14649
Sample Questions
Q1) You have two beakers. One contains a solution of HCl at pH = 1.0. The other contains a solution of NaOH at pH = 13. Into a third beaker, you slowly and cautiously pour 20 mL of the HCl and 20 mL of the NaOH. After complete stirring, the pH of the mixture will be
A) 2.0.
B) 12.0.
C) 7.0.
D) 5.0.
E) 9.0.
Answer: C
Q2) Which type of bond must be broken for water to vaporize?
A) ionic bonds
B) both hydrogen bonds and ionic bonds
C) polar covalent bonds
D) hydrogen bonds
E) both polar covalent bonds and hydrogen bonds
Answer: D
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 5
Chapter 4: Carbon and the Molecular Diversity of Life
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
71 Verified Questions
71 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14650
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements best describes the carbon atoms present in a seed-eating bird?
A) Inorganic carbon atoms in the seeds were incorporated into organic molecules by the bird.
B) The carbon atoms ultimately came from the soil.
C) The carbon atoms are ultimately derived from coal.
D) The carbon atoms ultimately came from carbon dioxide incorporated into sugars through photosynthesis.
E) The carbon atoms ultimately came from simple organic compounds that formed abiotically from inorganic carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen atoms.
Q2) Which molecule shown above has a carbonyl functional group in the form of an aldehyde?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 6
Chapter 5: The Structure and Function of Large Biological
Molecules
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
109 Verified Questions
109 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14651
Sample Questions
Q1) The molecular formula for glucose is C H O . What would be the molecular formula for a polymer made by linking ten glucose molecules together by dehydration reactions?
A) C H O
B) C H O
C) C H O
D) C H O
E) C H O
Q2) Upon chemical analysis, a particular polypeptide was found to contain 100 amino acids. How many peptide bonds are present in this protein?
A) 101
B) 100
C) 99
D) 98
E) 97
Q3) Among these biological polymers, which has the least structural variety?
A) polysaccharides
B) proteins
C) DNA
D) RNA
Page 7
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 6: A Tour of the Cell
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
80 Verified Questions
80 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14652
Sample Questions
Q1) One of the key innovations in the evolution of eukaryotes from a prokaryotic ancestor is the endomembrane system. What eukaryotic organelles or features might have evolved as a part of, or as an elaboration of, the endomembrane system?
A) plasma membrane
B) chloroplasts
C) mitochondria
D) nuclear envelope
E) none of these
Q2) Which of the following is a major cause of the size limits for certain types of cells?
A) limitation on the strength and integrity of the plasma membrane as cell size increases
B) the difference in plasma membranes between prokaryotes and eukaryotes
C) evolutionary progression in cell size; more primitive cells have smaller sizes
D) the need for a surface area of sufficient area to support the cell's metabolic needs
E) rigid cell walls that limit cell size expansion
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 7: Membrane Structure and Function
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
80 Verified Questions
80 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14653
Sample Questions
Q1) In the years since the proposal of the fluid mosaic model of the cell membrane, which of the following observations has been added to the model?
A) The membrane is only fluid across a very narrow temperature range.
B) Proteins rarely move, even though they possibly can do so.
C) Unsaturated lipids are excluded from the membranes.
D) The concentration of protein molecules is now known to be much higher.
E) The proteins are known to be made of only acidic amino acids.
Q2) Which component is the peripheral protein?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Q3) The CFTR protein belongs to what category of membrane proteins?
A) gap junctions
B) aquaporins
C) electrogenic ion pumps
D) cotransporters
E) hydrophilic channels
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 9
Chapter 8: An Introduction to Metabolism
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
80 Verified Questions
80 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14654
Sample Questions
Q1) Chemical equilibrium is relatively rare in living cells. Which of the following could be an example of a reaction at chemical equilibrium in a cell?
A) a reaction in which the free energy at equilibrium is higher than the energy content at any point away from equilibrium
B) a chemical reaction in which the entropy change in the reaction is just balanced by an opposite entropy change in the cell's surroundings
C) an endergonic reaction in an active metabolic pathway where the energy for that reaction is supplied only by heat from the environment
D) a chemical reaction in which both the reactants and products are not being produced or used in any active metabolic pathway
E) no possibility of having chemical equilibrium in any living cell
Q2) Which of the following is most similar in structure to ATP?
A) a pentose sugar
B) a DNA nucleotide
C) an RNA nucleotide
D) an amino acid with three phosphate groups attached
E) a phospholipid
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 10
Chapter 9: Cellular Respiration and Fermentation
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
107 Verified Questions
107 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14655
Sample Questions
Q1) Carbon dioxide (CO )is released during which of the following stages of cellular respiration?
A) glycolysis and the oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA
B) oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA and the citric acid cycle
C) the citric acid cycle and oxidative phosphorylation
D) oxidative phosphorylation and fermentation
E) fermentation and glycolysis
Q2) Why is coenzyme A, a sulfur-containing molecule derived from a B vitamin, added?
A) because sulfur is needed for the molecule to enter the mitochondrion
B) in order to utilize this portion of a B vitamin which would otherwise be a waste product from another pathway
C) to provide a relatively unstable molecule whose acetyl portion can be readily transferred to a compound in the citric acid cycle
D) because it drives the reaction that regenerates NAD
E) in order to remove one molecule of CO
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 10: Photosynthesis
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
81 Verified Questions
81 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14656
Sample Questions
Q1) Reduction of oxygen to form water occurs during
A) photosynthesis only.
B) respiration only.
C) both photosynthesis and respiration.
D) neither photosynthesis nor respiration.
E) photorespiration only.
Q2) What wavelength of light in the figure is most effective in driving photosynthesis?
A) 420 mm
B) 475 mm
C) 575 mm
D) 625 mm
E) 730 mm
Q3) If the power fails and the lights go dark, what will happen to CO levels?
A) CO will rise as a result of both animal and plant respiration.
B) CO will rise as a result of animal respiration only.
C) CO will remain balanced because plants will continue to fix CO in the dark.
D) CO will fall because plants will increase CO fixation.
E) CO will fall because plants will cease to respire in the dark.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
12
Chapter 11: Cell Communication
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
69 Verified Questions
69 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14657
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following amino acids are most frequently phosphorylated by protein kinases in the cytoplasm during signal transduction?
A) tyrosines
B) glycine and histidine
C) serine and threonine
D) glycine and glutamic acid
E) Any of the 20 amino acids are equally phosphorylated.
Q2) This method of affinity chromatography would be expected to collect which of the following?
A) molecules of the hormone
B) molecules of purified receptor
C) G proteins
D) assorted membrane proteins
E) hormone-receptor complexes
Q3) Adenylyl cyclase has the opposite effect of which of the following?
A) protein kinase
B) protein phosphatase
C) phosphodiesterase
D) phosphorylase
E) GTPase
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 13
Chapter 12: The Cell Cycle
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
79 Verified Questions
79 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14658
Sample Questions
Q1) At the M phase checkpoint, the complex allows for what to occur?
A) Separase enzyme cleaves cohesins and allows chromatids to separate.
B) Cohesins alter separase to allow chromatids to separate.
C) Kinetochores are able to bind to spindle microtubules.
D) All microtubules are made to bind to kinetochores.
E) Daughter cells are allowed to pass into G .
Q2) Movement of the chromosomes during anaphase would be most affected by a drug that
A) reduces cyclin concentrations.
B) increases cyclin concentrations.
C) prevents elongation of microtubules.
D) prevents shortening of microtubules.
E) prevents attachment of the microtubules to the kinetochore.
Q3) For a chemotherapeutic drug to be useful for treating cancer cells, which of the following is most desirable?
A) It is safe enough to limit all apoptosis.
B) It does not alter metabolically active cells.
C) It only attacks cells that are density dependent.
D) It interferes with cells entering G .
E) It interferes with rapidly dividing cells.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 14
Chapter 13: Meiosis and Sexual Life Cycles
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14659
Sample Questions
Q1) For a species with a haploid number of 23 chromosomes, how many different combinations of maternal and paternal chromosomes are possible for the gametes?
A) 23
B) 46
C) 460
D) 920
E) about 8 million
Q2) How many different combinations of maternal and paternal chromosomes can be packaged in gametes made by an organism with a diploid number of 8 (2n = 8)?
A) 2
B) 4
C) 8
D) 16
E) 32
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 15
Chapter 14: Mendel and the Gene Idea
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
73 Verified Questions
73 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14660
Sample Questions
Q1) Mendel's second law of independent assortment has its basis in which of the following events of meiosis I?
A) synapsis of homologous chromosomes
B) crossing over
C) alignment of tetrads at the equator
D) separation of homologs at anaphase
E) separation of cells at telophase
Q2) If both children are of blood type M, which of the following is possible?
A) Each parent is either M or MN.
B) Each parent must be type M.
C) Both children are heterozygous for this gene.
D) Neither parent can have the N allele.
E) The MN blood group is recessive to the ABO blood group.
Q3) What is the genotype of individual II-5?
A) WW
B) Ww
C) ww
D) WW or ww
E) ww or Ww
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 16
Chapter 15: The Chromosomal Basis of Inheritance
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
61 Verified Questions
61 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14661
Sample Questions
Q1) What does a frequency of recombination of 50% indicate?
A) The two genes are likely to be located on different chromosomes.
B) All of the offspring have combinations of traits that match one of the two parents.
C) The genes are located on sex chromosomes.
D) Abnormal meiosis has occurred.
E) Independent assortment is hindered.
Q2) A phenotypically normal prospective couple seeks genetic counseling because the man knows that he has a translocation of a portion of his chromosome 4 that has been exchanged with a portion of his chromosome 12. Although he is normal because his translocation is balanced, he and his wife want to know the probability that his sperm will be abnormal. What is your prognosis regarding his sperm?
A) 1/4 will be normal, 1/4 will have the translocation, and 1/2 will have duplications and deletions.
B) All will carry the same translocation as the father.
C) None will carry the translocation since abnormal sperm will die.
D) His sperm will be sterile and the couple might consider adoption.
E) 1/2 will be normal and the rest will have the father's translocation.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 17
Chapter 16: The Molecular Basis of Inheritance
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
57 Verified Questions
57 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14662
Sample Questions
Q1) The elongation of the leading strand during DNA synthesis
A) progresses away from the replication fork.
B) occurs in the 3' 5' direction.
C) produces Okazaki fragments.
D) depends on the action of DNA polymerase.
E) does not require a template strand.
Q2) An Okazaki fragment has which of the following arrangements?
A) primase, polymerase, ligase
B) 3' RNA nucleotides, DNA nucleotides 5'
C) 5' RNA nucleotides, DNA nucleotides 3'
D) DNA polymerase I, DNA polymerase III
E) 5' DNA to 3'
Q3) In E. coli, there is a mutation in a gene called dnaB that alters the helicase that normally acts at the origin. Which of the following would you expect as a result of this mutation?
A) No proofreading will occur.
B) No replication fork will be formed.
C) The DNA will supercoil.
D) Replication will occur via RNA polymerase alone.
E) Replication will require a DNA template from another source.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 18
Chapter 17: From Gene to Protein
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
83 Verified Questions
83 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14663
Sample Questions
Q1) When the genome of a particular species is said to include 20,000 protein-coding regions, what does this imply?
A) There are 20,000 genes.
B) Each gene codes for one protein.
C) Any other regions are "junk" DNA.
D) There are also genes for RNAs other than mRNA.
E) The species is highly evolved.
Q2) The figure represents tRNA that recognizes and binds a particular amino acid (in this instance, phenylalanine). Which codon on the mRNA strand codes for this amino acid?
A) UGG
B) GUG
C) GUA
D) UUC
E) CAU
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 19
Chapter 18: Regulation of Gene Expression
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
99 Verified Questions
99 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14664
Sample Questions
Q1) The functioning of enhancers is an example of
A) transcriptional control of gene expression.
B) a post-transcriptional mechanism to regulate mRNA.
C) the stimulation of translation by initiation factors.
D) post-translational control that activates certain proteins.
E) a eukaryotic equivalent of prokaryotic promoter functioning.
Q2) Within a cell, the amount of protein made using a given mRNA molecule depends partly on
A) the degree of DNA methylation.
B) the rate at which the mRNA is degraded.
C) the presence of certain transcription factors.
D) the number of introns present in the mRNA.
E) the types of ribosomes present in the cytoplasm.
Q3) Which of the following statements about the DNA in one of your brain cells is true?
A) Most of the DNA codes for protein.
B) The majority of genes are likely to be transcribed.
C) Each gene lies immediately adjacent to an enhancer.
D) Many genes are grouped into operon-like clusters.
E) It is the same as the DNA in one of your heart cells.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 20
Chapter 19: Viruses
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
47 Verified Questions
47 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14665
Sample Questions
Q1) If you already knew that the infectious agent was either bacterial or viral, which treatment would allow you to distinguish between these two possibilities?
A) I
B) II
C) III
D) IV
E) either II or IV
Q2) In the figure, when new viruses are being assembled (IV), what mediates the assembly?
A) host cell chaperones
B) assembly proteins coded for by the host nucleus
C) assembly proteins coded for by the viral genes
D) viral RNA intermediates
E) nothing; they self-assemble
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 21
Chapter 20: Biotechnology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
72 Verified Questions
72 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14666
Sample Questions
Q1) A researcher has used in vitro mutagenesis to mutate a cloned gene and then has reinserted this into a cell. In order to have the mutated sequence disable the function of the gene, what must then occur?
A) recombination resulting in replacement of the wild type with the mutated gene
B) use of a microarray to verify continued expression of the original gene
C) replication of the cloned gene using a bacterial plasmid
D) transcription of the cloned gene using a BAC
E) attachment of the mutated gene to an existing mRNA to be translated
Q2) To introduce a particular piece of DNA into an animal cell, such as that of a mouse, you would find more probable success with which of the following methods?
A) the shotgun approach
B) electroporation followed by recombination
C) introducing a plasmid into the cell
D) infecting the mouse cell with a Ti plasmid
E) transcription and translation
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 22
Chapter 21: Genomes and Their Evolution
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14667
Sample Questions
Q1) One of the characteristics of retrotransposons is that
A) they code for an enzyme that synthesizes DNA using an RNA template.
B) they are found only in animal cells.
C) they generally move by a cut-and-paste mechanism.
D) they contribute a significant portion of the genetic variability seen within a population of gametes.
E) their amplification is dependent on a retrovirus.
Q2) Which of the following can be duplicated in a genome?
A) DNA sequences above a minimum size only
B) DNA sequences below a minimum size only
C) entire chromosomes only
D) entire sets of chromosomes only
E) sequences, chromosomes, or sets of chromosomes
Q3) Why might the cricket genome have 11 times as many base pairs as that of Drosophila melanogaster?
A) The two insect species evolved at very different geologic eras.
B) Crickets have higher gene density.
C) Drosophila are more complex organisms.
D) Crickets must have more noncoding DNA.
E) Crickets must make many more proteins.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 23
Chapter 22: Descent with Modification: A Darwinian View of Life
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
55 Verified Questions
55 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14668
Sample Questions
Q1) In the mid-1900s, the Soviet geneticist Lysenko believed that his winter wheat plants, exposed to ever-colder temperatures, would eventually give rise to ever more cold-tolerant winter wheat. Lysenko's attempts in this regard were most in agreement with the ideas of
A) Cuvier.
B) Hutton.
C) Lamarck.
D) Darwin.
E) Lyell.
Q2) What is true of pseudogenes?
A) They are composed of RNA, rather than DNA.
B) They are the same things as introns.
C) They are unrelated genes that code for the same gene product.
D) They are vestigial genes.
Q3) What was the prevailing belief prior to the time of Lyell and Darwin?
A) Earth is a few thousand years old, and populations are unchanging.
B) Earth is a few thousand years old, and populations gradually change.
C) Earth is millions of years old, and populations rapidly change.
D) Earth is millions of years old, and populations are unchanging.
Page 24
E) Earth is millions of years old, and populations gradually change.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 23: The Evolution of Populations
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
78 Verified Questions
78 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14669
Sample Questions
Q1) Sparrows with average-sized wings survive severe storms better than those with longer or shorter wings, illustrating
A) the bottleneck effect.
B) disruptive selection.
C) frequency-dependent selection.
D) neutral variation.
E) stabilizing selection.
Q2) What is the estimated frequency of allele A in the gene pool?
A) 0.25
B) 0.50
C) 0.75
Q3) If the sickle-cell allele is recessive, what proportion of the population should be susceptible to sickle-cell anemia under typical conditions?
A) 0.04
B) 0.16
C) 0.20
D) 0.32
E) 0.80
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
25
Chapter 24: The Origin of Species
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
63 Verified Questions
63 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14670
Sample Questions
Q1) Rocky Mountain juniper (Juniperus scopulorum)and one-seeded juniper (J. monosperma)have overlapping ranges. If pollen grains (which contain sperm cells)from one species are unable to germinate and make pollen tubes on female ovules (which contain egg cells)of the other species, then which of these terms is applicable?
A) behavioral isolation
B) mechanical isolation
C) hybrid breakdown
D) reduced hybrid viability
Q2) A hybrid zone is properly defined as
A) an area where two closely related species' ranges overlap.
B) an area where mating occurs between members of two closely related species, producing viable offspring.
C) a zone that features a gradual change in species composition where two neighboring ecosystems border each other.
D) a zone that includes the intermediate portion of a cline.
E) an area where members of two closely related species intermingle, but experience no gene flow.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 25: The History of Life on Earth
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
75 Verified Questions
75 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14671
Sample Questions
Q1) The loss of ventral spines by modern freshwater sticklebacks is due to natural selection operating on the phenotypic effects of Pitx1 gene
A) duplication (gain in number).
B) elimination (loss).
C) mutation (change).
D) silencing (loss of expression).
Q2) Anatomically, what was true of Lystrosaurus?
A) Its jaw would have been hinged the same way as the jaws of the early reptiles were hinged.
B) It was a tetrapod.
C) It had skin without scales, typical of modern amphibians.
D) It would have had no temporal fenestra in its skull.
Q3) If arrows indicate locations in the column where fossils of a particular type (see key above)first appear, then which core in Figure 25.2 has the most accurate arrangement of fossils?
A) core A
B) core B
C) core C
D) core D
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 27
Chapter 26: Phylogeny and the Tree of Life
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
73 Verified Questions
73 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14672
Sample Questions
Q1) It was once thought that cetaceans had evolved from an extinct group of mammals called the mesonychids. If, in the future, it is determined that some organisms currently classified as cetaceans did actually evolve from mesonychids, whereas other cetaceans evolved from artiodactyl stock, then what will be true of the order Cetacea?
A) It will be paraphyletic.
B) It will be polyphyletic.
C) It will need to be thrown out or modified if classification is to reflect evolutionary history.
D) Two of the responses are correct.
Q2) From Figure 26.5, to which of the extant apes are orangutans most closely related?
A) gibbons and siamangs
B) Dryopithecus and Ouranopithecus
C) gorillas
D) chimps
E) chimps, gorillas, and humans
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 27: Bacteria and Archaea
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
78 Verified Questions
78 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14673
Sample Questions
Q1) Which two species might be expected to cooperate metabolically, perhaps forming a biofilm wherein one species surrounds cells of the other species?
A) species A and B
B) species A and C
C) species B and E
D) species C and D
E) species C and E
Q2) Which of the following statements is not true?
A) Archaea and bacteria have different membrane lipids.
B) Both archaea and bacteria generally lack membrane-enclosed organelles.
C) The cell walls of archaea lack peptidoglycan.
D) Only bacteria have histones associated with DNA.
E) Only some archaea use CO to oxidize H , releasing methane.
Q3) Which species should be able to respond most readily to taxes (plural of taxis)?
A) species A
B) species B
C) species C
D) species D
E) species E
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 29
Chapter 28: Protists
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
76 Verified Questions
76 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14674
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following was derived from an ancestral cyanobacterium?
A) chloroplast
B) mitochondrion
C) hydrogenosome
D) mitosome
E) Two of the responses above are correct.
Q2) You are given the task of designing an aquatic protist that is a primary producer. It cannot swim on its own, yet must stay in well-lit surface waters. It must be resistant to physical damage from wave action. It should be most similar to a(n)
A) diatom.
B) dinoflagellate.
C) apicomplexan.
D) red alga.
E) radiolarian.
Q3) The cysts of Giardia are most analogous to the
A) mitochondria of ancestral diplomonads.
B) nuclei of archaeans.
C) endospores of bacteria.
D) capsids of viruses.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 30
Chapter 29: Plant Diversity I: How Plants Colonized Land
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
74 Verified Questions
74 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14675
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following characteristics of plants is absent in their closest relatives, the charophyte algae?
A) chlorophyll b
B) cellulose in cell walls
C) formation of a cell plate during cytokinesis
D) sexual reproduction
E) alternation of multicellular generations
Q2) Which taxon is essentially equivalent to the "embryophytes"?
A) Viridiplantae
B) Plantae
C) Pterophyta
D) Bryophyta
E) Charophycea
Q3) Which of the following is not evidence that charophytes are the closest algal relatives of plants?
A) similar sperm structure
B) the presence of chloroplasts
C) similarities in cell wall formation during cell division
D) genetic similarities in chloroplasts
E) similarities in proteins that synthesize cellulose
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 31
Chapter 30: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
102 Verified Questions
102 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14676
Sample Questions
Q1) Where in an angiosperm would you find a megasporangium?
A) in the style of a flower
B) inside the tip of a pollen tube
C) enclosed in the stigma of a flower
D) within an ovule contained within an ovary of a flower
E) packed into pollen sacs within the anthers found on a stamen
Q2) From reading their biology textbook, what would Harold and Kumar discover?
A) About one-quarter of all prescription drugs come from seed plants.
B) Prescription drugs that enter the water table are responsible for the extinction of many plants.
C) Much of what was once rain forest has been replanted with fields of medicinally valuable plants.
D) All rain forest plants contain at least one chemical useful as a medicine.
Q3) Cutting down rain forests can lead to
A) decreased temperatures.
B) decreased rainfall.
C) decreased atmospheric carbon dioxide.
D) increased biodiversity.
E) more than one of these.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 32
Chapter 31: Fungi
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
89 Verified Questions
89 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14677
Sample Questions
Q1) Some fungi can exist either as unicellular yeasts or as filamentous hyphae. Which of these forms would be most favorable in an environment where nutrients are limited?
A) a smaller unicellular yeast
B) a larger unicellular yeast
C) a shorter filamentous hypha
D) a longer filamentous hypha
Q2) The answer to which of these questions would be of most assistance to one who is attempting to assign the genus Sporothrix to the correct fungal phylum?
A) Do these yeasts perform fermentation while growing on the rose-bush thorns, or do they wait until inside a human host?
B) Does S. schenkii rely on animal infection to complete some part of its life cycle, or is the infection merely opportunistic?
C) Are the hyphae in lymphatic vessels septate, or are they coenocytic?
D) Is S. schenkii best described as a decomposer, parasite, pathogen, or mutualist of humans?
E) Being a yeast, does S. schenkii perform the process of budding?
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
33
Chapter 32: An Overview of Animal Diversity
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
74 Verified Questions
74 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14678
Sample Questions
Q1) Protostome characteristics generally include which of the following?
A) a mouth that develops secondarily, and far away from the blastopore
B) radial body symmetry
C) radial cleavage
D) determinate cleavage
E) absence of a body cavity
Q2) In its native environment, a Tp cell neither gains nor loses water. What should one expect to occur when Tp is placed into fresh water?
A) no change from the above, as fresh water is its native environment
B) lysis
C) plasmolysis
D) slight shrinkage
Q3) Which of the following characteristics generally applies to protostome development?
A) radial cleavage
B) determinate cleavage
C) diploblastic embryo
D) blastopore becomes the anus
E) archenteron absent
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 34
Chapter 33: An Introduction to Invertebrates
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
93 Verified Questions
93 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14679
Sample Questions
Q1) One day, little Tommy (a student in an undersupervised class of 40 fifth graders)got the urge to pet Nemo (the clownfish), who was swimming among the waving petals of a pretty underwater "flower" that had a big hole in the midst of the petals. Tommy giggled upon finding that these petals felt sticky. A few hours later, Tommy was in the nurse's office with nausea and cramps. Microscopic examination of his fingers would probably have revealed the presence of
A) teeth marks.
B) spines.
C) spicules.
D) nematocysts.
E) a radula.
Q2) If 100,000 sea slug cells together contain 1.0 mg of protein, then what is the minimum number of dinoflagellates per sea slug cell that constitutes a "high," and therefore beneficial, population?
A) 1 cell
B) 5 cells
C) 10 cells
D) 50 cells
E) 100 cells
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 35
Chapter 34: The Origin and Evolution of Vertebrates
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
109 Verified Questions
109 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14680
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements would be least acceptable to most zoologists?
A) The extant lancelets are contemporaries, not ancestors, of vertebrates.
B) The first fossils resembling lancelets appeared in the fossil record around 530 million years ago.
C) Recent work in molecular systematics supports the hypothesis that lancelets are the most recent common ancestor of all vertebrates.
D) The extant lancelets are the immediate ancestors of the fishes.
E) Lancelets display the same method of swimming as do fishes.
Q2) Whose DNA would have had the most sequence homologies with amphibian DNA?
A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) 8
E) 9
Q3) Which group's members have had both lungs and gills during their adult lives?
A) sharks, skates, and rays
B) lungfishes
C) lancelets
D) amphibians
E) ichthyosaurs and plesiosaurs
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 36
Chapter 35: Plant Structure, Growth, and Development
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
67 Verified Questions
67 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14681
Sample Questions
Q1) Additional vascular tissue produced as secondary growth in a root originates from which cells?
A) vascular cambium
B) apical meristem
C) endodermis
D) phloem
E) xylem
Q2) What effect does "pinching back" have on a houseplant?
A) increases apical dominance
B) inhibits the growth of lateral buds
C) produces a plant that will grow taller
D) stimulates lateral buds to grow
E) increases the flow of auxin down the shoot
Q3) ________ is to xylem as ________ is to phloem.
A) Sclerenchyma cell; collenchyma cell
B) Apical meristem; vascular cambium
C) Vessel element; sieve-tube member
D) Cortex; pith
E) Vascular cambium; cork cambium
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 37
Chapter 36: Resource Acquisition and Transport in Vascular Plants
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
82 Verified Questions
82 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14682
Sample Questions
Q1) Guard cells are the only cells in the epidermis that contain chloroplasts and can undergo photosynthesis. This is important because
A) chloroplasts sense when light is available so that guard cells will open.
B) photosynthesis provides the energy necessary for contractile proteins to flex and open the guard cells.
C) guard cells will produce the O necessary to power active transport.
D) ATP is required to power proton pumps in the guard cell membranes.
E) chloroplasts sense when light is available so that guard cells will open and guard cells will produce the O necessary to power active transport.
Q2) Active transport of various materials in plants at the cellular level requires all of the following except A) a proton gradient.
B) ATP.
C) membrane potential.
D) transport proteins
E) xylem membranes.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 37: Soil and Plant Nutrition
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
83 Verified Questions
83 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14683
Sample Questions
Q1) A greenhouse experiment to test growth rates in tomato cultivars was conducted using sterile soil mix and watering with sterile solutions of water and fertilizer. Following germination, half of the plants in each group were transplanted into soil that was obtained from a nearby agricultural field (nonsterile), the other half into sterile soil. After several weeks the plants that were transplanted into nonsterile soil exhibited a much higher growth rate compared to the plants transplanted into sterile soil. The most likely explanation for this result is
A) the plants transplanted into the nonsterile soil were inoculated with mycorrhizae.
B) the plants transplanted into the nonsterile soil received more fertilizer.
C) the plants transplanted into the sterile soil were stunted due to overfertilization.
D) the plants transplanted into sterile soil suffered anoxia from improper water drainage.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 38: Angiosperm Reproduction and Biotechnology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
86 Verified Questions
86 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14684
Sample Questions
Q1) Fruits develop from
A) microsporangia.
B) receptacles.
C) fertilized eggs.
D) ovaries.
E) ovules.
Q2) Garden beans and many other eudicots have a hooked hypocotyl during germination. Which of the following is true concerning hypocotyls and/or the hypocotyl hook?
A) It is the first structure to emerge from a eudicot seed.
B) It pushes the cotyledons up through the soil.
C) It straightens when exposed to sufficient water.
D) It is stunted in an etiolated seedling.
E) It emerges after the successful establishment of the radicle.
Q3) Which of the following is the male gametophyte of a flowering plant?
A) ovule
B) microsporocyte
C) pollen grain
D) embryo sac
E) stamen
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 40
Chapter 39: Plant Responses to Internal and External
Signals
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
108 Verified Questions
108 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14685
Sample Questions
Q1) A plant mutant that shows normal gravitropic bending but does not store starch in its plastids would require a reevaluation of the role of ________ in gravitropism.
A) auxin
B) calcium
C) statoliths
D) light
E) differential growth
Q2) We tend to think of plants as immobile when, in fact, they can move in many ways. Which of the following is a legitimate way in which plants move?
A) stretching or shrinking movements up or down in response to light
B) folding and unfolding of leaves using muscle-like tissues
C) growth movements toward or away from light
D) cessation of plant growth in response to wind or touch
E) rapid responses using action potentials from nervous tissue cells similar to those found in the nervous tissue of animals
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 40: Basic Principles of Animal Form and Function
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
77 Verified Questions
77 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14686
Sample Questions
Q1) Examine the figure above. Near a goose's abdomen, the countercurrent arrangement of the arterial and venous blood vessels causes
A) the temperature difference between the contents of the two sets of vessels to be minimized.
B) the venous blood to be as cold near the abdomen as it is near the feet.
C) the blood in the feet to be as warm as the blood in the abdomen.
D) the temperature at the abdomen to be less than the temperature at the feet.
E) the loss of the maximum possible amount of heat to the environment.
Q2) To increase the effectiveness of exchange surfaces lining the lungs and the intestines, evolutionary pressures have
A) increased the exchange surface area with folds and branches.
B) increased the thickness of the membranes in these linings.
C) increased the number of cell layers in these linings.
D) decreased the metabolic rate of the cells in these linings.
E) increased the volume of the cells in these linings.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
42
Chapter 41: Animal Nutrition
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
64 Verified Questions
64 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14687
Sample Questions
Q1) Digestive secretions with a pH of 2 are characteristic of the A) small intestine.
B) stomach.
C) pancreas.
D) liver.
E) mouth.
Q2) Many obese humans produce normal or increased levels of leptin without satiety, so the search for healthy regulation of food intake should focus on
A) providing supplementary leptin.
B) inactivation of leptin.
C) overexpression of the leptin receptor gene.
D) eliminating carbohydrates from the diet.
E) inhibition of leptin receptors.
Q3) Upon activation by stomach acidity, the secretions of the parietal cells
A) initiate the digestion of protein in the stomach.
B) initiate the mechanical digestion of lipids in the stomach.
C) initiate the chemical digestion of lipids in the stomach.
D) include pepsinogen.
E) delay digestion until the food arrives in the small intestine.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 43
Chapter 42: Circulation and Gas Exchange
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
90 Verified Questions
90 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14688
Sample Questions
Q1) Most of the carbon dioxide produced by humans is
A) converted to bicarbonate ions by an enzyme in red blood cells.
B) bound to hemoglobin.
C) transported in the erythrocytes as carbonic acid.
D) simply dissolved in the plasma.
E) bicarbonate ions bound to hemoglobin.
Q2) The set of blood vessels with the lowest blood pressure driving flow is
A) the arteries.
B) the arterioles.
C) the metarterioles.
D) the capillaries.
E) the veins.
Q3) What will be the long-term effect of blocking the lymphatic vessels associated with a capillary bed?
A) more fluid entering the venous capillaries
B) an increase in the blood pressure in the capillary bed
C) the accumulation of more fluid in the interstitial areas
D) fewer proteins leaking out of the blood to enter the interstitial fluid
E) the area of the blockage becoming abnormally small
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 44
Chapter 43: The Immune System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
100 Verified Questions
100 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14689
Sample Questions
Q1) Engulfing-phagocytic cells of innate immunity include all of the following except A) neutrophils.
B) macrophages.
C) dendritic cells.
D) natural killer cells.
Q2) B cells interacting with helper T cells are stimulated to differentiate when
A) B cells produce IgE antibodies.
B) B cells release cytokines.
C) helper T cells present the class II MHC molecule-antigen complex on their surface.
D) helper T cells differentiate into cytotoxic T cells.
E) helper T cells release cytokines.
Q3) Within a differentiated B cell, the rearrangement of DNA sequences between variable regions and joining regions is accomplished by A) polyadenylase.
B) RNA polymerase.
C) reverse transcriptase.
D) epitopase.
E) recombinase.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 44: Osmoregulation and Excretion
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
69 Verified Questions
69 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14690
Sample Questions
Q1) In humans, the transport epithelial cells in the ascending loop of Henle
A) are the largest epithelial cells in the body.
B) are not in contact with interstitial fluid.
C) have plasma membranes of low permeability to water.
D) have 50% of their cell mass made of smooth endoplasmic reticulum.
E) are not affected by high levels of nitrogenous wastes.
Q2) Urea is
A) insoluble in water.
B) more toxic to human cells than ammonia.
C) the primary nitrogenous waste product of humans.
D) the primary nitrogenous waste product of most birds.
E) the primary nitrogenous waste product of most aquatic invertebrates.
Q3) When stimulated by aldosterone, the reabsorption of Na is increased along A) the loop of Henle.
B) the collecting duct.
C) Bowman's capsule.
D) the proximal tubule.
E) the distal tubule.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 45: Hormones and the Endocrine System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
72 Verified Questions
72 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14691
Sample Questions
Q1) In response to stress, the adrenal gland promotes the synthesis of glucose from noncarbohydrate substrates via the action of the steroid hormone
A) glucagon.
B) cortisol.
C) epinephrine.
D) thyroxine.
E) ACTH.
Q2) Which endocrine disorder is correctly matched with the malfunctioning gland?
A) diabetes insipidus and the posterior pituitary gland
B) giantism and the posterior pituitary gland
C) goiter and the adrenal medulla
D) diabetes mellitus and the parathyroid glands
E) dwarfism and the adrenal cortex
Q3) Melatonin is secreted by
A) the hypothalamus during the day.
B) the pineal gland during the night.
C) the autonomic nervous system during the winter.
D) the posterior pituitary gland during the day.
E) the thyroid gland during cold seasons.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 47
Chapter 46: Animal Reproduction
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
94 Verified Questions
94 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14692
Sample Questions
Q1) At the end of a nonpregnant ovarian cycle, the breakdown and discharge of the soft uterine tissues is called
A) menstruation.
B) lactation.
C) fertilization.
D) menopause.
E) ovulation.
Q2) Prior to ovulation, the primary steroid hormone secreted by the growing follicle is A) LH.
B) FSH.
C) inhibin.
D) GnRH.
E) estradiol.
Q3) Internal and external fertilization both
A) produce single-celled zygotes.
B) occur only among invertebrates.
C) occur only among terrestrial animals.
D) depend on the use of intromittent copulatory organs.
E) occur only among birds.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 48
Chapter 47: Animal Development
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
92 Verified Questions
92 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14693
Sample Questions
Q1) If gastrulation was blocked by an environmental toxin, then
A) cleavage would not occur in the zygote.
B) embryonic germ layers would not form.
C) fertilization would be blocked.
D) the blastula would not be formed.
E) the blastopore would form above the gray crescent in the animal pole.
Q2) In mammalian eggs, the receptors for sperm are found in the A) fertilization membrane.
B) zona pellucida.
C) cytosol of the egg.
D) nucleus of the egg.
E) mitochondria of the egg.
Q3) The endoderm was probably stained with A) red and yellow colors.
B) yellow and green colors.
C) green and purple colors.
D) blue and yellow colors.
E) purple and red colors.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 48: Neurons, Synapses, and Signaling
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
73 Verified Questions
73 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14694
Sample Questions
Q1) Two fundamental concepts about the ion channels of a "resting" neuron are that the channels
A) are always open, but the concentration gradients of ions frequently change.
B) are always closed, but ions move closer to the channels during excitation.
C) open and close depending on stimuli, and are specific as to which ion can traverse them.
D) open and close depending on chemical messengers, and are nonspecific as to which ion can traverse them.
E) open in response to stimuli, and then close simultaneously, in unison.
Q2) The major excitatory neurotransmitter of the human brain is
A) acetylcholine.
B) epinephrine.
C) glutamate.
D) nitric oxide.
E) GABA.
Q3) The fastest possible conduction velocity of action potentials is observed in
A) thin, non-myelinated neurons.
B) thin, myelinated neurons.
C) thick, non-myelinated neurons.
D) thick, myelinated neurons.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 50
Chapter 49: Nervous Systems
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
65 Verified Questions
65 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14695
Sample Questions
Q1) The activation of the parasympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system is associated with
A) resting and digesting.
B) release of epinephrine into the blood.
C) increased metabolic rate.
D) fight-or-flight responses.
E) intensive aerobic exercise.
Q2) Forming new long-term memories is strikingly disrupted after damage to the A) thalamus.
B) hypothalamus.
C) hippocampus.
D) somatosensory cortex.
E) primary motor cortex.
Q3) The cerebral cortex plays a major role in all of the following except A) short-term memory.
B) long-term memory.
C) circadian rhythm.
D) foot-tapping rhythm.
E) breath holding.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 51
Chapter 50: Sensory and Motor Mechanisms
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
82 Verified Questions
82 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14696
Sample Questions
Q1) An injury to the occipital lobe will likely impair function of the A) primary visual cortex.
B) thalamus.
C) optic chiasma.
D) sense of taste.
E) sense of touch.
Q2) The "motor unit" in vertebrate skeletal muscle refers to
A) one actin binding site and its myosin partner.
B) one sarcomere and all of its actin and myosin filaments.
C) one myofibril and all of its sarcomeres.
D) one motor neuron and all of the muscle fibers on which it has synapses.
E) an entire muscle.
Q3) The muscle spindle is
A) an actin-myosin complex.
B) a troponin-tropomyosin complex.
C) axons wound around muscle fibers.
D) a group of dendrite-encircled muscle fibers.
E) a muscle cell that makes up a muscle group.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 52
Chapter 51: Animal Behavior
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
69 Verified Questions
69 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14697
Sample Questions
Q1) A region of the canary forebrain shrinks during the nonbreeding season and enlarges when breeding season begins. This change is probably associated with the annual A) addition of new syllables to a canary's song repertoire.
B) crystallization of subsong into adult songs.
C) sensitive period in which canary parents imprint on new offspring.
D) renewal of mating and nest-building behaviors.
E) elimination of the memorized template for songs sung the previous year.
Q2) The mating system in which females are more ornamented than males is A) monogamy.
B) promiscuity.
C) polygamy.
D) polygyny.
E) polyandry.
Q3) The evolution of mating systems is most likely affected by A) population density.
B) territoriality.
C) certainty of paternity.
D) sexual dimorphism.
E) None of the options is correct.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 53
Chapter 52: An Introduction to Ecology and the Biosphere
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
73 Verified Questions
73 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14698
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements about the ocean pelagic biome is true?
A) The ocean is a vast, deep storehouse that always provides sustenance; it is the next "frontier" for feeding humanity.
B) Because it is so immense, the pelagic ocean biome is globally uniform.
C) Globally, more photosynthesis occurs in the ocean neritic biome than in the pelagic biome.
D) Pelagic ocean photosynthetic activity is disproportionately low in relation to the size of the biome.
E) The most abundant animals are vertebrate fishes.
Q2) Species introduced by humans to new geographic locations
A) are usually successful in colonizing the area.
B) always spread because they encounter none of their natural predators.
C) increase the diversity and therefore the stability of the ecosystem.
D) can outcompete and displace native species for biotic and abiotic resources.
E) are always considered pests by ecologists.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 53: Population Ecology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
79 Verified Questions
79 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14699
Sample Questions
Q1) Which curve best describes survivorship in a marine crustacean that molts?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Q2) Which of the following was the most significant limiting factor in human population growth in the 20th century?
A) famine
B) non-HIV disease
C) HIV
D) genocide
E) clean water
Q3) Which pair of terms most accurately describes life history traits for a stable population of wolves?
A) semelparous; r-selected
B) semelparous; K-selected
C) iteroparous; r-selected
D) iteroparous; K-selected
E) iteroparous; N-selected
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 55
Chapter 54: Community Ecology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
77 Verified Questions
77 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14700
Sample Questions
Q1) What interactions exist between a "carrier crab" and "sea urchin hitch-hiker"?
A) +/+
B) +/o
C) +/-
D) o/o
E) -/-
Q2) According to the competitive exclusion principle, two species cannot continue to occupy the same
A) habitat.
B) niche.
C) territory.
D) range.
E) biome.
Q3) Which of the following could qualify as a top-down control on a grassland community?
A) limitation of plant biomass by rainfall amount
B) influence of temperature on competition among plants
C) influence of soil nutrients on the abundance of grasses versus wildflowers
D) effect of grazing intensity by bison on plant species diversity
E) effect of humidity on plant growth rates
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 56
Chapter 55: Ecosystems and Restoration Ecology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
81 Verified Questions
81 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14701
Sample Questions
Q1) Owls eat rats, mice, shrews, and small birds. Assume that, over a period of time, an owl consumes 5,000 J of animal material. The owl loses 2,300 J in feces and owl pellets and uses 2,500 J for cellular respiration. What is the primary efficiency of this owl?
A) 0.02%
B) 1%
C) 4%
D) 10%
E) 40%
Q2) Which of the following is true of detrivores?
A) They recycle chemical elements directly back to primary consumers.
B) They synthesize organic molecules that are used by primary producers.
C) They convert organic materials from all trophic levels to inorganic compounds usable by primary producers.
D) They secrete enzymes that convert the organic molecules of detritus into CO and H O.
E) Some species are autotrophic, while others are heterotrophic.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 56: Conservation Biology and Global Change
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
67 Verified Questions
67 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14702
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following strategies would most rapidly increase the genetic diversity of a population in an extinction vortex?
A) Capture all remaining individuals in the population for captive breeding followed by reintroduction to the wild.
B) Establish a reserve that protects the population's habitat.
C) Introduce new individuals transported from other populations of the same species.
D) Sterilize the least fit individuals in the population.
E) Control populations of the endangered population's predators and competitors.
Q2) The main cause of the increase in the amount of CO in Earth's atmosphere over the past 150 years is
A) increased worldwide primary production.
B) increased worldwide standing crop.
C) an increase in the amount of infrared radiation absorbed by the atmosphere.
D) the burning of larger amounts of wood and fossil fuels.
E) additional respiration by the rapidly growing human population.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.