Foundations of Biology Final Exam
Course Introduction
Foundations of Biology provides an in-depth introduction to the fundamental principles that govern living systems. The course explores key topics such as cell structure and function, molecular genetics, evolution, and the diversity of life. It emphasizes scientific inquiry and critical thinking, helping students develop an understanding of biological processes at molecular, cellular, and organismal levels. Through lectures, discussions, and laboratory experiences, students gain foundational knowledge necessary for advanced studies in the biological sciences and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Biology 8th Edition by Neil A. Campbell
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2
Chapter 1: Introduction: Themes in the Study of Life
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Q1) A controlled experiment is one that
A)proceeds slowly enough that a scientist can make careful records of the results.
B)may include experimental groups and control groups tested in parallel.
C)is repeated many times to make sure the results are accurate.
D)keeps all environmental variables constant.
E)is supervised by an experienced scientist.
Answer: B
Q2) Collecting data based on observation is an example of __________; analyzing this data to reach a conclusion is an example of __________ reasoning.
A)hypothesis-based science; inductive
B)the process of science; deductive
C)discovery science; inductive
D)descriptive science; deductive
E)hypothesis-based science; deductive
Answer: C
Q3) A theory in science is equivalent in scope to a well-structured hypothesis.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Chemical Context of Life
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Q1) Which of the following best describes the relationship between the atoms described below?
\(\begin{array} { l l }
\text { Atom 1 } & \text { Atom 2 } \\
{ } _ { 1 } ^ { 1 } \mathrm { H } & { } _ { 1 } ^ { 3 } \mathrm { H }
\end{array}\)
A)They are isomers.
B)They are polymers.
C)They are isotopes.
D)They contain 1 and 3 protons, respectively.
E)They each contain 1 neutron.
Answer: C
Q2) What results from the chemical reaction illustrated in Figure 2.3?
A)a cation with a net charge of +1
B)a cation with a net charge of -1
C)an anion with a net charge of +1
D)an anion with a net charge of -1
E)A and D
Answer: E
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Chapter 3: Water and the Fitness of the Environment
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Q1) You have two beakers; one contains pure water, the other contains pure methanol (wood alcohol). The covalent bonds of methanol molecules are nonpolar, so there are no hydrogen bonds among methanol molecules. You pour crystals of table salt (NaCl)into each beaker. Predict what will happen.
A)Equal amounts of NaCl crystals will dissolve in both water and methanol.
B)NaCl crystals will NOT dissolve in either water or methanol.
C)NaCl crystals will dissolve readily in water but will not dissolve in methanol.
D)NaCl crystals will dissolve readily in methanol but will not dissolve in water.
E)When the first crystals of NaCl are added to water or to methanol, they will not dissolve; but as more crystals are added, the crystals will begin to dissolve faster and faster.
Answer: C
Q2) Draw three water molecules and label the atoms. Draw solid lines to indicate covalent bonds and dotted lines for hydrogen bonds. Add partial charge labels as appropriate.
Answer: 11ea4e3a_1ad5_a4ff_9ed3_91b8bd4142d5_TB2680_00
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Chapter 4: Carbon and the Molecular Diversity of Life
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Q1) Testosterone and estradiol are A)nucleic acids.
B)carbohydrates. C)proteins.
D)phospholipids.
E)steroids.
Q2) Organic chemistry is currently defined as
A)the study of compounds made only by living cells.
B)the study of carbon compounds.
C)the study of vital forces.
D)the study of natural (as opposed to synthetic)compounds.
E)the study of hydrocarbons.
Q3) Which molecule contains a sulfhydryl functional group?
Q4) Which is a basic functional group that can accept H+ and become positively charged?
Q5) Which molecule can function as a base?
Q6) Which molecule has a carbonyl functional group in the form of a ketone?
Q7) Which is an acidic functional group that can dissociate and release H+ into a solution?
Q8) Which molecule has a carbonyl functional group in the form of an aldehyde?
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Chapter 5: The Structure and Function of Large Biological
Molecules
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Q1) If 2 molecules of the general type shown in Figure 5.1 were linked together, carbon 1 of one molecule to carbon 4 of the other, the single molecule that would result would be A)maltose.
B)fructose. C)glucose.
D)galactose. E)sucrose.
Q2) Which molecule has hydrophilic and hydrophobic properties and would be found in plasma membranes?
A)1
B)5
C)6
D)12
E)14
Q3) Which bond is closest to the N-terminus of the molecule?
Q4) Which bond is closest to the carboxyl end of the molecule?
Q5) At which bond would water need to be added to achieve hydrolysis of the peptide, back to its component amino acid?
Q6) Which bond is a peptide bond?
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Chapter 6: A Tour of the Cell
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Q1) Motor proteins provide for molecular motion in cells by interacting with what types of cellular structures?
A)sites of energy production in cellular respiration
B)membrane proteins
C)ribosomes
D)cytoskeletons
E)cellulose fibers in the cell wall
Q2) Of the following, which cell structure would most likely be visible with a light microscope that has been manufactured to the maximum resolving power possible?
A)mitochondrion
B)microtubule
C)ribosome
D)largest microfilament
E)nuclear pore
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8
Chapter 7: Membrane Structure and Function
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Q1) Which of the following statements correctly describes the normal tonicity conditions for typical plant and animal cells?
A)The animal cell is in a hypotonic solution, and the plant cell is in an isotonic solution.
B)The animal cell is in an isotonic solution, and the plant cell is in a hypertonic solution.
C)The animal cell is in a hypertonic solution, and the plant cell is in an isotonic solution.
D)The animal cell is in an isotonic solution, and the plant cell is in a hypotonic solution.
E)The animal cell is in a hypertonic solution, and the plant cell is in a hypotonic solution.
Q2) Ions diffuse across membranes down their
A)chemical gradients.
B)concentration gradients.
C)electrical gradients.
D)electrochemical gradients.
E)A and B are correct.
Q3) Which line represents the bag with the highest initial concentration of sucrose?
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Chapter 8: An Introduction to Metabolism
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Q1) Which of the following statements is (are)True about enzyme-catalyzed reactions?
A)The reaction is faster than the same reaction in the absence of the enzyme.
B)The free energy change of the reaction is opposite from the reaction in the absence of the enzyme.
C)The reaction always goes in the direction toward chemical equilibrium.
D)A and B only
E)A, B, and C
Q2) Which of the following terms best describes the reaction?
A)endergonic
B)exergonic
C)anabolic
D)allosteric
E)nonspontaneous
Q3) What must be the difference (if any)between the structure of ATP and the structure of the precursor of the A nucleotide in DNA and RNA?
A)The sugar molecule is different.
B)The nitrogen-containing base is different.
C)The number of phosphates is three instead of one.
D)The number of phosphates is three instead of two.
E)There is no difference.
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Chapter 9: Cellular Respiration: Harvesting Chemical
Energy
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Q1) Even though plants carry on photosynthesis, plant cells still use their mitochondria for oxidation of pyruvate. When and where will this occur?
A)in photosynthetic cells in the light, while photosynthesis occurs concurrently
B)in non-photosynthesizing cells only
C)in cells that are storing glucose only
D)in photosynthesizing cells in dark periods and in other tissues all the time
E)in photosynthesizing cells in the light and in other tissues in the dark
Q2) One function of both alcohol fermentation and lactic acid fermentation is to
A)reduce NAD to NADH.
B)reduce FAD to FADH .
C)oxidize NADH to NAD .
D)reduce FADH to FAD .
E)none of the above
Q3) In which step is an inorganic phosphate added to the reactant?
Q4) Where are the proteins of the electron transport chain located?
A)cytosol
B)mitochondrial outer membrane
C)mitochondrial inner membrane
D)mitochondrial intermembrane space
E)mitochondrial matrix
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Chapter 10: Photosynthesis
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Q1) Generation of proton gradients across membranes occurs during A)photosynthesis.
B)respiration.
C)both photosynthesis and respiration.
D)neither photosynthesis nor respiration.
E)photorespiration.
Q2) In autotrophic bacteria, where are the enzymes located that can carry on organic synthesis?
A)chloroplast membranes
B)nuclear membranes
C)free in the cytosol
D)along the outer edge of the nucleoid
E)along the inner surface of the plasma membrane
Q3) Which of the following statements is True concerning Figure 10.3?
A)It represents cell processes involved in C photosynthesis.
B)It represents the type of cell structures found in CAM plants.
C)It represents an adaptation that maximizes photorespiration.
D)It represents a C photosynthetic system.
E)It represents a relationship between plant cells that photosynthesize and those that cannot.
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Chapter 11: Cell Communication
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Q1) Why has C. elegans proven to be a useful model for understanding apoptosis?
A)The animal has very few genes, so that finding those responsible is easier than in a more complex organism.
B)The nematode undergoes a fixed and easy-to-visualize number of apoptotic events during its normal development.
C)This plant has a long-studied aging mechanism that has made understanding its death just a last stage.
D)While the organism ages, its cells die progressively until the whole organism is dead.
E)All of its genes are constantly being expressed so all of its proteins are available from each cell.
Q2) Up to 60% of all medicines used today exert their effects by influencing what structures in the cell membrane?
A)tyrosine-kinases receptors
B)ligand-gated ion channel receptors
C)growth factors
D)G proteins
E)cholesterol
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13
Chapter 12: The Cell Cycle
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Q1) Cells from an advanced malignant tumor most often have very abnormal chromosomes, and often an abnormal total number of chromosomes. Why might this occur?
A)Cancer cells are no longer density dependent.
B)Cancer cells are no longer anchorage dependent.
C)Chromosomally abnormal cells can still go through cell cycle checkpoints.
D)Chromosomally abnormal cells still have normal metabolism.
E)Transformation introduces new chromosomes into cells.
Q2) Movement of the chromosomes during anaphase would be most affected by a drug that
A)reduces cyclin concentrations.
B)increases cyclin concentrations.
C)prevents elongation of microtubules.
D)prevents shortening of microtubules.
E)prevents attachment of the microtubules to the kinetochore.
Q3) Which of the following does not occur during mitosis?
A)condensation of the chromosomes
B)replication of the DNA
C)separation of sister chromatids
D)spindle formation
E)separation of the spindle poles
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Meiosis and Sexual Life Cycles
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Q1) At which stage of mitosis are chromosomes usually photographed in the preparation of a karyotype?
A)Prophase
B)Metaphase
C)Anaphase
D)Telophase
E)Interphase
Q2) Which of the following happens at the conclusion of meiosis I?
A)Homologous chromosomes are separated.
B)The chromosome number per cell is conserved.
C)Sister chromatids are separated.
D)Four daughter cells are formed.
E)The sperm cells elongate to form a head and a tail end.
Q3) Which of the following is True of a species that has a chromosome number of 2n = 16?
A)The species is diploid with 32 chromosomes per cell.
B)The species has 16 sets of chromosomes per cell.
C)Each cell has 8 homologous pairs.
D)During the S phase of the cell cycle there will be 32 separate chromosomes.
E)A gamete from this species has 4 chromosomes.
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Chapter 14: Mendel and the Gene Idea
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Q1) In corn plants, a dominant allele I inhibits kernel color, while the recessive allele i permits color when homozygous. At a different locus, the dominant allele P causes purple kernel color, while the homozygous recessive genotype pp causes red kernels. If plants heterozygous at both loci are crossed, what will be the phenotypic ratio of the offspring?
Q2) Given the parents AABBCc × AabbCc, assume simple dominance and independent assortment. What proportion of the progeny will be expected to phenotypically resemble the first parent?
A)1/4
B)1/8
C)3/4
D)3/8
E)1
Q3) Two plants are crossed, resulting in offspring with a 3:1 ratio for a particular trait. This suggests
A)that the parents were True-breeding for contrasting traits.
B)incomplete dominance.
C)that a blending of traits has occurred.
D)that the parents were both heterozygous.
E)that each offspring has the same alleles.
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Chapter 15: The Chromosomal Basis of Inheritance
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Q1) If nondisjunction occurs in meiosis II during gametogenesis, what will be the result at the completion of meiosis?
A)All the gametes will be diploid.
B)Half of the gametes will be n + 1, and half will be n - 1.
C)1/4 of the gametes will be n + 1, one will be n - 1, and two will be n.
D)There will be three extra gametes.
E)Two of the four gametes will be haploid, and two will be diploid.
Q2) The frequency of Down syndrome in the human population is most closely correlated with which of the following?
A)Frequency of new meiosis
B)Average of the ages of mother and father
C)Age of the mother
D)Age of the father
E)Exposure of pregnant women to environmental pollutants
Q3) What pattern of inheritance would lead a geneticist to suspect that an inherited disorder of cell metabolism is due to a defective mitochondrial gene?
Q4) Bananas plants, which are triploid, are seedless and therefore sterile. Propose a possible explanation.
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Chapter 16: The Molecular Basis of Inheritance
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Q1) Why does the DNA double helix have a uniform diameter?
A)Purines pair with pyrimidines.
B)C nucleotides pair with A nucleotides.
C)Deoxyribose sugars bind with ribose sugars.
D)Nucleotides bind with nucleosides.
E)Nucleotides bind with nucleoside triphosphates.
Q2) For a couple of decades, biologists knew the nucleus contained DNA and proteins. The prevailing opinion was that the genetic material was proteins, and not DNA. The reason for this belief was that proteins are more complex than DNA. What was the basis of this thinking?
A)Proteins have a greater variety of three-dimensional forms than does DNA.
B)Proteins have two different levels of structural organization; DNA has four.
C)Proteins are made of 40 amino acids and DNA is made of four nucleotides.
D)Some viruses only transmit proteins.
E)A and B are correct.
Q3) A space probe returns with a culture of a microorganism found on a distant planet. Analysis shows that it is a carbon-based life-form that has DNA. You grow the cells in ¹ N medium for several generations and then transfer them to ¹ N medium. Which pattern in Figure 16.1 would you expect if the DNA was replicated in a conservative manner?
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Chapter 17: From Gene to Protein
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Q1) A frameshift mutation could result from
A)a base insertion only.
B)a base deletion only.
C)a base substitution only.
D)deletion of three consecutive bases.
E)either an insertion or a deletion of a base.
Q2) Gene expression in Archaea differs from that in other prokaryotes. It shares features with which of the following?
A)eubacteria only
B)eukaryotes only
C)protists only
D)fungi only
E)bacteria and eukaryotes
Q3) When does translation begin in prokaryotic cells?
A)after a transcription initiation complex has been formed
B)as soon as transcription has begun
C)after the 5' caps are converted to mRNA
D)once the pre-mRNA has been converted to mRNA
E)as soon as the DNA introns are removed from the template
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Chapter 18: Control of Gene Expression
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Q1) Transcription of the structural genes in an inducible operon
A)occurs continuously in the cell.
B)starts when the pathway's substrate is present.
C)starts when the pathway's product is present.
D)stops when the pathway's product is present.
E)does not result in the production of enzymes.
Q2) Which of the following statements is True about stem cells?
A)Stem cells can continually reproduce and are not subject to mitotic control.
B)Stem cells can differentiate into specialized cells.
C)Stem cells are found only in bone marrow.
D)Stem cells are found only in the adult human brain.
E)Stem cell DNA lacks introns.
Q3) Which of the following is established prior to fertilization in Drosophila eggs?
A)the anterior-posterior and dorsal-ventral axes
B)the position of the future segments
C)the position of the future wings, legs, and antennae
D)A and B only
E)A, B, and C
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Chapter 19: Viruses
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Q1) Which of the following is the best predictor of how much damage a virus causes?
A)ability of the infected cell to undergo normal cell division
B)ability of the infected cell to carry on translation
C)whether the infected cell produces viral protein
D)whether the viral mRNA can be transcribed
E)how much toxin the virus produces
Q2) Given Baltimore's scheme, a positive sense single-stranded RNA virus such as the polio virus would be most closely related to which of the following?
A)T-series bacteriophages
B)retroviruses that require a DNA intermediate
C)single-stranded DNA viruses such as herpesviruses
D)nonenveloped double-stranded RNA viruses
E)linear double-stranded DNA viruses such as adenovirus
Q3) RNA viruses require their own supply of certain enzymes because
A)host cells rapidly destroy the viruses.
B)host cells lack enzymes that can replicate the viral genome.
C)these enzymes translate viral mRNA into proteins.
D)these enzymes penetrate host cell membranes.
E)these enzymes cannot be made in host cells.
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Biotechnology
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Q1) Which of the following cuts DNA molecules at specific locations?
A)restriction enzymes
B)gene cloning
C)DNA ligase
D)gel electrophoresis
E)reverse transcriptase
Q2) One successful form of gene therapy has involved delivery of an allele for the enzyme adenosine deaminase (ADA)to bone marrow cells of a child with SCID, and delivery of these engineered cells back to the bone marrow of the affected child. What is one major reason for the success of this procedure as opposed to many other efforts at gene therapy?
A)The engineered bone marrow cells from this patient can be used for any other SCID patient.
B)The ADA introduced allele causes all other ADA-negative cells to die.
C)The engineered cells, when reintroduced into the patient, find their way back to the bone marrow.
D)No vector is required to introduce the allele into ADA-negative cells
E)The immune system fails to recognize cells with the variant gene
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Chapter 21: Genomes and Their Evolution
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Q1) Bioinformatics can be used to scan sequences for probable genes looking for start and stop sites for transcription and for translation, for probable splice sites, and for sequences known to be found in other known genes. Such sequences containing these elements are called
A)expressed sequence tags.
B)cDNA.
C)multigene families.
D)proteomes.
E)short tandem repeats.
Q2) Bioinformatics includes all of the following except
A)using computer programs to align DNA sequences.
B)analyzing protein interactions in a species.
C)using molecular biology to provide biological information to a system so that it gets expressed.
D)development of computer-based tools for genome analysis.
E)use of mathematical tools to make sense of biological systems.
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Chapter 22: Descent With Modification: a Darwinian View of Life
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Q1) Of the following anatomical structures, which is homologous to the wing of a bird?
A)Dorsal fin of a shark
B)Hindlimb of a kangaroo
C)Wing of a butterfly
D)Tail fin of a flying fish
E)Flipper of a cetacean
Q2) If the HMS Beagle had completely bypassed the Galapagos Islands, Darwin would have had a much poorer understanding of the
A)relative stability of a well-adapted population's numbers over many generations.
B)ability of populations to undergo modification as they adapt to a particular environment.
C)tendency of organisms to produce the exact number of offspring that the environment can support.
D)unlimited resources that support population growth in most natural environments.
E)lack of genetic variation among all members of a population.
Q3) Which stratum should contain the greatest proportion of extinct organisms?
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Chapter 23: The Evolution of Populations
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Q1) Which of these is the smallest unit that natural selection can change?
A)a species' gene frequency
B)a population's gene frequency
C)an individual's genome
D)an individual's genotype
E)an individual's phenotype
Q2) During breeding season, one should expect female house finches to prefer to mate with males with the brightest red feathers. Which of the following is True of this situation?
A)Alleles that promote more efficient acquisition of carotenoid-containing foods by males should increase over the course of generations.
B)Alleles that promote more effective deposition of carotenoid pigments in the feathers of males should increase over the course of generations.
C)There should be directional selection for bright red feathers in males.
D)All three of these.
E)Only B and C.
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25
Chapter 24: The Origin of Species
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Q1) You are confronted with a box of preserved grasshoppers of various species that are new to science and have not been described. Your assignment is to separate them into species. There is no accompanying information as to where or when they were collected. Which species concept will you have to use?
A)biological
B)phylogenetic
C)ecological
D)morphological
Q2) Which of the following statements about species, as defined by the biological species concept, is (are)correct?
I. Biological species are defined by reproductive isolation.
II. Biological species are the model used for grouping extinct forms of life.
III. The biological species is the largest unit of population in which successful reproduction is possible.
A)I only
B)II only
C)I and III
D)II and III
E)I, II, and III
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Chapter 25: The History of Life on Earth
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Q1) Which of these is the most likely explanation for the existence of dicynodont fossils on modern-day Antarctica?
A)They arrived there aboard "rafts" of vegetation, and quickly adapted to the bitterly cold climate.
B)Earth's polar regions were once so warm (especially immediately after the "snowball Earth period")that reptiles and mammal-like reptiles flourished there.
C)The landmass that is now the Antarctic continent was formerly located at a more-northerly position, and was also united to other landmasses.
D)Dicynodonts originated on the island continent of Antarctica and went extinct as the continent migrated to its current position at the South Pole.
Q2) Dicynodonts survived the Permian extinction and, therefore, existed during both the A)Paleozoic and Mesozoic eras.
B)Proterozoic and Archaean eons.
C)Proterozoic and Phanerozoic eons.
D)Mesozoic and Cenozoic eras.
E)Carboniferous and Permian periods.
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Chapter 26: Phylogeny and the Tree of Life
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Q1) Some molecular data place the giant panda in the bear family (Ursidae)but place the lesser panda in the raccoon family (Procyonidae). Consequently, the morphological similarities of these two species are probably due to
A)inheritance of acquired characteristics.
B)sexual selection.
C)inheritance of shared derived characters.
D)possession of analogous structures.
E)possession of shared primitive characters.
Q2) The relative lengths of the amphibian and mouse branches in the phylogeny in Figure 26.12 in your textbook indicate that
A)amphibians evolved before mice.
B)mice evolved before amphibians.
C)the genes of amphibians and mice have only coincidental homoplasies.
D)the homologous gene has evolved more slowly in mice.
E)the homologous gene has evolved more rapidly in mice.
Q3) A taxon, all of whose members have the same common ancestor, is A)paraphyletic.
B)polyphyletic.
C)monophyletic.
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Chapter 27: Bacteria and Archaea
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Q1) If it occurs in the absence of any other type of adaptation listed here, which of these is least reasonable in terms of promoting bacterial survival over evolutionary time in a low-glucose environment?
A)increased efficiency at transporting glucose into the cell from the environment
B)increased ability to survive on simple sugars, other than glucose
C)increased ability to synthesize glucose from amino acid precursors
D)increased reliance on glycolytic enzymes
E)increased sensitivity to, and ability to move toward, whatever glucose is present in its habitat
Q2) Plant-like photosynthesis that releases O occurs in A)cyanobacteria.
B)chlamydias.
C)archaea.
D)actinomycetes.
E)chemoautotrophic bacteria.
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Chapter 28: Protists
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Q1) Green algae often differ from land plants in that some green algae
A)are heterotrophs.
B)are unicellular.
C)have plastids.
D)have alternation of generations.
E)have cell walls containing cellulose.
Q2) Biologists have long been aware that the defunct kingdom Protista is paraphyletic. Which of these statements is both True and consistent with this conclusion?
A)Many species within this kingdom were once classified as monerans.
B)Animals, plants, and fungi arose from different protist ancestors.
C)The eukaryotic condition has evolved only once among the protists, and all eukaryotes are descendants of that first eukaryotic cell.
D)Chloroplasts among various protists are similar to those found in prokaryotes.
E)Some protists, all animals, and all fungi share a protist common ancestor, but these protists, animals, and fungi are currently assigned to three different kingdoms.
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Chapter 29: Plant Diversity I: How Plants Colonized Land
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Q1) If the actual results most closely resembled those in Figure 29.2(A), then a further question arising from these data is: "Do the Polytrichum rhizoids have to be alive in order to reduce soil nitrogen loss, or do dead rhizoids have the same effect? " Arrange the following steps in the correct sequence to test this hypothesis:
1) Add metabolic poison to the soil of the experimental plot of mosses.
2) Apply water equally to the experimental and control plots.
3) Measure initial soil nitrogen contents of control and experimental plots.
4) Determine nitrogen loss from soil of control and experimental plots.
5) Establish two identical plots of Polytrichum mosses; one as a control, the other as the experimental treatment.
A)5 ? 1 ? 3 ? 2 ? 4
B)5 ? 2 ? 3 ? 1 ? 4
C)5 ? 3 ? 1 ? 2 ? 4
D)4 ? 5 ? 1 ? 3 ? 2
E)5 ? 3 ? 2 ? 1 ? 4
Q2) Which graph of soil nitrogen loss over time in Figure 29.2 most strongly supports the hypothesis that if rhizoids had helped stabilize the soil, then less erosion and less loss of nitrogen would occur?
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Chapter 30: Plant Diversity Ii: the Evolution of Seed Plants
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Q1) If the beetles survive by consuming cycad pollen, then whether the beetles should be considered mutualists with, or parasites of, the cycads depends upon
A)the extent to which their overall activities affect cycad reproduction.
B)the extent to which the beetles are affected by the neurotoxins.
C)the extent to which the beetles damage the cycad flowers.
D)the distance the beetles must travel between cycad microsporophylls and cycad megasporophylls.
Q2) Which of these statements correctly describes a portion of the pine life cycle?
A)Female gametophytes use mitosis to produce eggs.
B)Seeds are produced in pollen-producing cones.
C)Pollen grains contain female gametophytes.
D)A pollen tube slowly digests its way through the triploid endosperm.
Q3) pollen tube
A)male gametophyte
B)female gametophyte
C)male sporophyte
D)female sporophyte
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Chapter 31: Fungi
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Q1) The hydrolytic digestion of which of the following should produce monomers that are aminated (i.e., have an amine group attached)molecules of beta-glucose?
A)insect exoskeleton
B)plant cell walls
C)fungal cell walls
D)A and C only
E)A, B and C
Q2) Members of this phylum form arbuscular mycorrhizae:
A)Zygomycota
B)Ascomycota
C)Basidiomycota
D)Glomeromycota
E)Chytridiomycota
Q3) The ascomycetes get their name from which aspect of their life cycle?
A)vegetative growth form
B)asexual spore production
C)sexual structures
D)shape of the spore
E)type of vegetative mycelium
Q4) Which location is nearest to basidiocarps?
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Chapter 32: An Introduction to Animal Diversity
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Q1) Which group includes both ecdysozoans and lophotrochozoans?
A)I
B)II
C)III
D)IV
E)V
Q2) If an undisturbed embryo is allowed to develop further, then one should expect that
A)the first opening of the gastrula will ultimately serve as the mouth.
B)upon metamorphosis, the resulting trochophore larva will gain a backbone.
C)upon gastrulation, a solid ball of cells will be produced.
D)both A and B
E)both B and C
Q3) According to the evidence collected so far, the animal kingdom is A)monophyletic.
B)paraphyletic.
C)polyphyletic.
D)euphyletic.
E)multiphyletic.
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Chapter 33: Invertebrates
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Q1) Which of the following characteristics is probably most responsible for the great diversification of insects on land?
A)segmentation
B)antennae
C)eyes
D)bilateral symmetry
E)exoskeleton
Q2) Nematode worms and annelid worms share which of the following features?
A)use of fluid in the body cavity as a hydrostatic skeleton
B)ecdysis
C)presence of a circulatory system
D)presence of segmentation
E)absence of species with parasitic lifestyles
Q3) Which class of the phylum Cnidaria includes "jellies" with rounded (as opposed to boxlike)medusae?
A)Hydrozoa
B)Scyphozoa
C)Anthozoa
D)Cubozoa
E)Both A and C are referred to as "jellies."
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Chapter 34: Vertebrates
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Q1) The mystery organism probably belongs to which order, in which class?
A)order Anura, class Amphibia
B)order Apoda, class Amphibia
C)order Urodela, class Ampihibia
D)order Squamates, class Reptilia
E)order Tuatara, class Reptilia
Q2) The snakelike organism turned out to be a hagfish. Consequently, why should Terry throw the fish he caught overboard, rather than having it for dinner?
A)It has mucus on its skin.
B)If it had an ectoparasite, then it must also have endoparasites.
C)The bite of the hagfish introduces paralytic neurotoxins, which Terry wants to avoid.
D)It was already sick or dying; otherwise, the hagfish would probably not have attacked it.
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Chapter 35: Plant Structure, Growth, and Development
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Q1) CO2 enters the inner the inner spaces of the leaf through the A)cuticle.
B)epidermal trichomes.
C)stoma.
D)phloem.
E)walls of guard cells.
Q2) What would be a plant adaptation that increases exposure of a plant to light in a dense forest?
A)closing of the stomata
B)lateral buds
C)apical dominance
D)absence of petioles
E)intercalary meristems
Q3) A plant that is at least 3 years old is represented by A)I only.
B)II only.
C)III only.
D)IV only.
E)both I and III.
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Chapter 36: Transport in Vascular Plants
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Q1) According to the pressure flow hypothesis of phloem transport,
A)solute moves from a high concentration in the "source" to a lower concentration in the "sink."
B)water is actively transported into the "source" region of the phloem to create the turgor pressure needed.
C)the combination of a high turgor pressure in the "source" and transpiration water loss from the "sink" moves solutes through phloem conduits.
D)the formation of starch from sugar in the "sink" increases the osmotic concentration.
E)the pressure in the phloem of a root is normally greater than the pressure in the phloem of a leaf.
Q2) Most angiosperms have alternate phyllotaxy. What allows each leaf to get the maximum exposure to light and reduces shading of lower leaves?
A)a leaf area index above 8
B)self pruning
C)one leaf only per node
D)leaf emergence at an angle of 137.5° from the site of previous leaves
E)A and D
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Soil and Plant Nutrition
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Q1) A woodlot was sprayed with a fungicide. What would be the most serious effect of such spraying?
A)a decrease in food for animals that eat mushrooms
B)an increase in rates of wood decay
C)a decrease in tree growth due to the death of mycorrhizae
D)an increase in the number of decomposing bacteria
E)A and B
Q2) In the 1640s Jan Baptista van Helmont planted a small willow in a pot that contained 90.9 kg of soil. After five years, the plant weighed 76.8 kg, but only 0.06 kg of soil had disappeared from the pot. What did van Helmont conclude from this experiment?
A)80-90% of the tree's mass is the result of C3 photosynthesis.
B)The increase in the mass of the tree was from the water that he added over the five years.
C)Most of the increase in the mass of the tree was due to the uptake of CO2.
D)Soil simply provides physical support for the tree without providing any nutrients.
E)The 0.06 kg of soil was mainly nitrogen.
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Chapter 38: Angiosperm Reproduction and Biotechnology
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Q1) All of the following strategies are being pursued with the goal of preventing transgene escape from genetically modified crops except
A)the engineering of male sterility into plants.
B)the genetic engineering of apomixis into transgenic crops.
C)the genetic engineering of trangenes into the chloroplast DNA .
D)the genetic engineering of flowers that develop normally, but fail to open.
E)hybridize transgenic crop genes with related wild weeds.
Q2) What is the first step in the germination of a seed?
A)pollination
B)fertilization
C)imbibition of water
D)hydrolysis of starch and other food reserves
E)emergence of the radicle
Q3) Which of the following statements is correct about the basal cell in a zygote?
A)It develops into the root of the embryo.
B)It forms the suspensor that anchors the embryo.
C)It results directly from the fertilization of the polar nuclei by a sperm nucleus.
D)It divides and initiates the two cotyledons.
E)It forms the proembryo.
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Page 40
Chapter 39: Plant Responses to Internal and External Signals
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Sample Questions
Q1) The apical bud of a pine tree inhibits the growth of lateral buds through the production of A)abscisic acid.
B)ethylene.
C)cytokinin.
D)gibberellin.
E)auxin.
Q2) Incandescent light bulbs, which have high output of red light, are least effective in promoting A)photosynthesis.
B)seed germination.
C)phototropism.
D)flowering.
E)entrainment of circadian rhythms.
Q3) How does indoleacetic acid affect fruit development?
A)preventing pollination
B)inhibiting formation of the ovule
C)promoting gene expression in cambial tissue
D)promoting rapid growth of the ovary
E)inducing the formation of brassinosteroids
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Chapter 40: Basic Principles of Animal Form and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Muscles are joined to bones by A)ligaments.
B)tendons.
C)loose connective tissue.
D)Haversian systems.
E)spindle fibers.
Q2) For an adult human female, the metabolic "costs" of pregnancy and lactation are
A)100 -125% more than when she was non-pregnant.
B)30-40% more than when she was non-pregnant.
C)5-8% more than when she was non-pregnant.
D)10-20% less than when she was non-pregnant.
E)30-40% less than when she was non-pregnant.
Q3) Panting by an overheated dog is an example of A)acclimatization.
B)torpor.
C)evaporative cooling.
D)non-shivering thermogenesis.
E)shivering thermogenesis.
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Chapter 41: Animal Nutrition
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Q1) When more energy sources are needed than are generated by diet, in which order does the animal draw on stored sources?
A)fat, glycogen, protein
B)glycogen, protein, fat
C)liver glycogen, muscle glycogen, fat
D)muscle glycogen, fat, liver glycogen
E)fat, protein, glycogen
Q2) Intracellular digestion of peptides is usually immediately preceded by which process?
A)hydrolysis
B)endocytosis
C)absorption
D)elimination
E)secretion
Q3) Make a flowchart of the events that occur after partially digested food leaves the stomach. Use the following terms: bicarbonate secretion, circulation, decrease in acid, secretin secretion, increase in acid, signal detection. Next to each term, indicate the compartment(s)involved. You may use a term more than once.
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Chapter 42: Circulation and Gas Exchange
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Q1) If the partial pressure of CO2 at sea level is approximately 0.23 mm Hg, how does this influence gas exchange in terrestrial animals?
A)the higher pressure of oxygen causes the lung surface to extract oxygen and give up carbon dioxide
B)the lower pressure of oxygen causes the lung surface to extract oxygen and give up carbon dioxide
C)the low concentration of carbon dioxide causes the oxygen to move across the lung surface
D)the low concentration of carbon dioxide causes the carbon dioxide to exert pressure on the inner lung surface
E)since the concentration of oxygen is lower in water, the moist surface of the lung extracts less carbon dioxide
Q2) Which sequence of blood flow can be observed in either a reptile or a mammal?
A)left ventricle aorta lungs systemic circulation
B)right ventricle pulmonary vein pulmocutaneous circulation
C)pulmonary vein left atrium ventricle pulmonary circuit
D)vena cava right atrium ventricle pulmonary circuit
E)right atrium pulmonary artery left atrium ventricle
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Chapter 43: The Immune System
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Q1) Which of the following might be a child with Bruton's disease?
A)baby girl Denise, with low level of antibody response to streptococcal infection
B)baby boy John, with immature T cells, missing CD4 receptors
C)baby boy Jeff, with no plasma cells following infection by bacterial pneumonia
D)baby girl Susan, with no evidence of a thymus gland
E)baby boy Matt, with very low circulating antigens
Q2) How do people contract salmonella poisoning?
A)The microbe can survive the acidic environment of the stomach and resist lysosomal degradation in macrophages.
B)The chemotactic messengers released by the salmonella bacterium do not attract sufficient neutrophils to entirely destroy the infection.
C)There is a delay in selection of the population of eosinophils that recognize and are responsible for fighting these bacterial infections.
D)The bacterium releases chemical messengers that make it resistant to phagocytosis.
E)The combination of foods eaten at the meal reduces the pH of the stomach sufficiently so that the bacterium was not destroyed.
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Chapter 44: Osmoregulation and Excretion
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Q1) Birds secrete uric acid as their nitrogenous waste because uric acid
A)is readily soluble in water.
B)is metabolically less expensive to synthesize than other excretory products.
C)requires little water for nitrogenous waste disposal which is conducive to the function of flight in terms of weight.
D)excretion allows birds to live in desert environments.
Q2) Processing of filtrate in the proximal and distal tubules accomplishes what important function?
A)sorting plasma proteins according to size
B)converting toxic ammonia to less toxic urea
C)maintaining a constant pH in body fluids
D)regulating the speed of blood flow through the nephron
E)reabsorbing urea to maintain osmotic balance
Q3) The body fluids of an osmoconformer would be __________ with its __________ environment.
A)hyperosmotic; freshwater
B)isotonic; freshwater
C)hyperosmotic; saltwater
D)isoosmotic; saltwater
E)hypoosmotic; saltwater
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Chapter 45: Hormones and the Endocrine System
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Q1) The endocrine system and the nervous system are chemically related. Which of the following substances best illustrates this relationship?
A)estrogen
B)calcitonin
C)norepinephrine
D)calcium
E)ecdysone
Q2) If the adrenal cortex were removed, which group of hormones would be most affected?
A)steroid
B)peptide
C)tropic
D)amino acid-derived
E)paracrine
Q3) Epinephrine is an example of
A)an androgen.
B)an estrogen.
C)a progestin.
D)a catecholamine.
E)melatonin.
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Chapter 46: Animal Reproduction
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Q1) Regeneration, the regrowth of lost body parts, normally follows
A)all types of asexual reproduction.
B)all types of sexual reproduction.
C)fission.
D)fragmentation.
E)parthenogenesis.
Q2) For water fleas of the genus Daphnia, switching from a pattern of asexual reproduction to sexual reproduction coincides with A)environmental conditions becoming more favorable.
B)greater abundance of food resources.
C)periods of temperature or food stresses.
D)completion of puberty.
E)exhaustion of an organism's supply of eggs.
Q3) Sperm cells are stored within human males in the A)urethra.
B)prostate.
C)epididymis.
D)seminal vesicles.
E)bulbourethral gland.
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Page 48
Chapter 47: Animal Development
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Q1) If an amphibian zygote is manipulated so that the first cleavage plane fails to divide the gray crescent, then
A)the daughter cell with the entire gray crescent will die.
B)both daughter cells will develop normally because amphibians are totipotent at this stage.
C)only the daughter cell with the gray crescent will develop normally.
D)both daughter cells will develop abnormally.
E)both daughter cells will die immediately.
Q2) In an egg cell treated with EDTA, a chemical that binds calcium and magnesium ions, the
A)acrosomal reaction would be blocked.
B)fusion of sperm and egg nuclei would be blocked.
C)fast block to polyspermy would not occur.
D)fertilization envelope would not be formed.
E)zygote would not contain maternal and paternal chromosomes.
Q3) A correct statement is:
A)The mesoderm gives rise to the notochord.
B)The endoderm gives rise to the hair follicles.
C)The ectoderm gives rise to the liver.
D)The mesoderm gives rise to the lungs.
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Chapter 48: Neurons, Synapses, and Signaling
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Q1) Most of the organelles in a neuron are located in the
A)dendritic region.
B)axon hillock.
C)axon.
D)cell body.
E)axon terminals.
Q2) Temporal summation always involves
A)both inhibitory and excitatory inputs.
B)synapses at more than one site.
C)inputs that are not simultaneous.
D)electrical synapses.
E)myelinated axons.
Q3) Saltatory conduction is a term applied to conduction of impulses
A)across electrical synapses.
B)an action potential that skips the axon hillock in moving from the dendritic region to the axon terminal.
C)rapid movement of an action potential reverberating back and forth along a neuron.
D)jumping from one neuron to an adjacent neuron.
E)jumping from one node of Ranvier to the next in a myelinated neuron.
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Page 50
Chapter 49: Nervous Systems
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Q1) The establishment and expression of emotions involves the
A)frontal lobes and limbic system.
B)frontal lobes and parietal lobes.
C)parietal lobes and limbic system.
D)frontal and occipital lobes.
E)occipital lobes and limbic system.
Q2) Which of the following structures or regions is incorrectly paired with its function?
A)limbic system-motor control of speech
B)medulla oblongata-homeostatic control
C)cerebellum-coordination of movement and balance
D)corpus callosum-communication between the left and right cerebral cortices
E)hypothalamus-regulation of temperature, hunger, and thirst
Q3) Which of the following regulates body temperature?
A)cerebrum
B)cerebellum
C)thalamus
D)hypothalamus
E)medulla oblongata
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Chapter 50: Sensory and Motor Mechanisms
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Q1) What is the structure diagrammed in Figure 50.1?
A)a neuromast
B)a statocyst
C)a taste bud
D)an ommatidium
E)an olfactory bulb
Q2) Which of the major senses responds by means of a very large gene family?
A)taste
B)smell
C)vision
D)hearing
E)equilibrium
Q3) What do hearing, touch, and a full stomach have in common?
A)The transducers are all proprioceptors.
B)The sensory information from all three is sent to the thalamus.
C)The sensory receptors are all hair cells.
D)Electrical energy is transduced to form an action potential.
E)Only A and B are correct.
Q4) Which section consists of both actin and myosin filaments?
Q5) Which section consists only of myosin filaments?
Page 52
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Chapter 51: Animal Behavior
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Q1) Which of the following is True about imprinting?
A)It may be triggered by visual or chemical stimuli.
B)It happens to many adult animals, but not to their young.
C)It is a type of learning that does not involve innate behavior.
D)It occurs only in birds.
E)It causes behaviors that last for only a short time (the sensitive period).
Q2) Which scientist suggested that human social behavior may have a genetic basis?
A)E. O. Wilson
B)Jane Goodall
C)J. B. S. Haldane
D)Niko Tinbergen
E)William Hamilton
Q3) A stickleback fish will attack a fish model as long as the model has red coloring. What term best applies to this behavior?
A)sign stimulus
B)habituation
C)imprinting
D)classical conditioning
E)operant conditioning
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Page 53
Chapter 52: An Introduction to Ecology and the Biosphere
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Q1) In which of the following terrestrial biome pairs are both dependent upon periodic burning?
A)tundra and coniferous forest
B)chaparral and savanna
C)desert and savanna
D)tropical forest and temperate broadleaf forest
E)grassland and tundra
Q2) "How does the foraging of animals on tree seeds affect the distribution and abundance of the trees? " This question
A)would require an elaborate experimental design to answer.
B)is difficult to answer because a large experimental area would be required.
C)is difficult to answer because a long-term experiment would be required.
D)is a question that a present-day ecologist would be likely to ask.
E)A, B, C and D are correct.
Q3) Deserts typically occur in a band at 30 degrees north and south latitude because
A)descending air masses tend to be cool and dry.
B)trade winds have a little moisture.
C)water is heavier than air and is not carried far over land.
D)ascending air tends to be moist.
E)these locations get the most intense solar radiation of any location on Earth
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Chapter 53: Population Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements about human population in industrialized countries is incorrect?
A)Average family size is relatively small.
B)The population has undergone the demographic transition.
C)Life history is r-selected.
D)The survivorship curve is Type I.
E)Age distribution is relatively uniform.
Q2) Pacific salmon or annual plants illustrate which of the following?
A)cohort
B)dispersion
C)Allee effect
D)iteroparous
E)semelparous
Q3) Which curve best describes survivorship in marine mollusks?
Q4) In order to construct a reproductive table for a sexual species, you need to A)assess sperm viability.
B)keep track of all of the offspring of a cohort.
C)keep track of the females in a cohort.
D)keep track of all of the offspring of the females in a cohort.
E)keep track of the ratio of deaths to births in a cohort.
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Chapter 54: Community Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following describes the relationship between ants and acacia trees?
A)parasitism
B)mutualism
C)inhibition
D)facilitation
E)commensalism
Q2) Biomanipulation can best be described as
A)removing many of the next higher trophic level organisms so that the struggling trophic level below can recover.
B)a means of reversing the effects of pollution by applying antidote chemicals that have a neutralizing effect on the community.
C)an example of how one would use bottom-up model for ecosystem restoration.
D)adjusting the population numbers of each of the trophic levels back to the numbers that they were before man started disturbing ecosystems.
E)monitoring and adjusting the nutrient and energy flow through a community with new technologies.
Q3) Which island would likely exhibit the most impoverished species diversity?
Q4) Which island would likely have the greatest species diversity?
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Chapter 55: Ecosystems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following has the smallest biomass?
A)hawk
B)snake
C)shrew
D)grasshopper
E)grass
Q2) Which of the following ecosystems would likely have a larger net primary productivity/hectare?
A)open ocean because of the total biomass of photosynthetic autotrophs
B)grassland because of the small standing crop biomass that results from consumption by herbivores and rapid decomposition
C)tropical rainforest because of the massive standing crop biomass and species diversity.
D)cave due to the lack of photosynthetic autotrophs
E)tundra because of the incredibly rapid period of growth during the summer season.
Q3) Which species is autotrophic?
Q4) Which species is most likely an omnivore?
Q5) A toxic pollutant would probably reach its highest concentration in which species?
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Chapter 56: Conservation Biology and Restoration Ecology
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65 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) After a disturbance, natural recovery of a biological community is most strongly influenced by
A)whether the disturbance has been caused by humans or by a natural agent.
B)the spatial scale of the disturbance.
C)whether the site is in a temperate or tropical area.
D)the availability of water nearby.
E)the season in which the disturbance occurred.
Q2) Which of the following would be considered an example of bioremediation?
A)adding nitrogen-fixing microorganisms to a degraded ecosystem to increase nitrogen availability
B)using a bulldozer to regrade a strip mine
C)identifying a new biodiversity hot spot
D)reconfiguring the channel of a river
E)adding seeds of a chromium-accumulating plant to soil contaminated by chromium
Q3) The term "biotic boundary" refers to the
A)area that an animal defends as its territory.
B)area needed to sustain a population.
C)home range of an animal.
D)distribution of an organism.
E)range where a species used to live, but no longer does.
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