Foundations of Biology Exam Review
Course Introduction
Foundations of Biology provides an introduction to the key concepts and principles that underpin the study of living organisms. This course covers fundamental topics such as cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, biodiversity, ecology, and the molecular basis of life. Students will explore how biological systems operate, interact, and adapt, with a focus on the scientific processes and methods used to investigate biological questions. Through lectures, discussions, and laboratory work, this course establishes a solid grounding in biology, preparing students for more advanced study in the life sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Campbell Biology 2nd Canadian Edition by
Jane B. Reece
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56 Chapters
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction: Evolution and Themes of Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) All the organisms on your campus make up which of the following?
A)an ecosystem
B)a community
C)a population
D)an experimental group
E)a taxonomic domain
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following do humans and roses have in common?
A)Both are multicellular.
B)Both lack a membrane-bound nucleus inside their cells.
C)Both are prokaryotic.
D)Humans and roses have nothing in common.
Answer: A
Q3) How do we know that Figure A is an eukaryote?
A)It has no defined nucleus.
B)A membrane surrounds it completely.
C)Internal membrane-bound structures are visible.
D)It is larger than B.
E)It is not perfectly smooth.
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: The Chemical Context of Life
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Q1) In the term trace element,the modifier trace means that
A)the element is required in very small amounts.
B)the element can be used as a label to trace atoms through an organism's metabolism.
C)the element is very rare on Earth.
D)the element enhances health but is not essential for the organism's long-term survival.
E)the element passes rapidly through the organism.
Answer: A
Q2) An atom has 6 electrons in its outer shell.How many unpaired electrons does it have?
A)0
B)2
C)4
D)6
E)2 or 4
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Water and Life
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Q1) Based on your knowledge of the polarity of water molecules,the solute molecule depicted here is most likely
A)positively charged.
B)negatively charged.
C)without charge.
D)hydrophobic.
E)nonpolar.
Answer: A
Q2) What is the hydrogen ion [H ] concentration of a solution of pH 8?
A)8 M
B)8 x 10 M
C)0)01 M
D)10 M
E)10 M
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Carbon and the Molecular Diversity of Life
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Q1) The element present in all organic molecules is
A)hydrogen.
B)oxygen.
C)carbon.
D)nitrogen.
E)phosphorus.
Q2) Research indicates that ibuprofen,a drug used to relieve inflammation and pain,is a mixture of two enantiomers,that is,molecules that
A)have identical chemical formulas but differ in the branching of their carbon skeletons.
B)are mirror images of one another.
C)exist in either linear chain or ring forms.
D)differ in the location of their double bonds.
E)differ in the arrangement of atoms around their double bonds.
Q3) The complexity and variety of organic molecules is due to
A)the chemical versatility of carbon atoms.
B)the variety of rare elements in organic molecules.
C)the fact that they can be synthesized only in living organisms.
D)their interaction with water.
E)their tremendously large sizes.
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Page 6
Chapter 5: The Structure and Function of Large Biological
Molecules
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a DNA sample were composed of 10% thymine,what would be the percentage of guanine?
A)10
B)20
C)40
D)80
E)impossible to tell from the information given
Q2) The molecule shown in the figure above is a(n)
A)polysaccharide.
B)polypeptide.
C)saturated fatty acid.
D)triacylglycerol.
E)unsaturated fatty acid.
Q3) Which of the following statements is true for the class of biological molecules known as lipids?
A)They are insoluble in water.
B)They are made from glycerol, fatty acids, and phosphate.
C)They contain less energy than proteins and carbohydrates.
D)They are made by dehydration reactions.
E)They contain nitrogen.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: A Tour of the Cell
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which structure-function pair is mismatched?
A)nucleolus; production of ribosomal subunits
B)lysosome; intracellular digestion
C)ribosome; protein synthesis
D)Golgi; protein trafficking
E)microtubule; muscle contraction
Q2) All of the following serve an important role in determining or maintaining the structure of plant cells.Which of the following are distinct from the others in their composition?
A)microtubules
B)microfilaments
C)plant cell walls
D)intermediate filaments
E)nuclear lamina
Q3) The above image is a cross section of a
A)centriole.
B)basal body.
C)microfilament.
D)actin.
E)flagella.
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Chapter 7: Membrane Structure and Function
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Q1) Celery stalks that are immersed in fresh water for several hours become stiff and hard.Similar stalks left in a 0.15 M salt solution become limp and soft.From this we can deduce that the cells of the celery stalks are
A)hypotonic to both fresh water and the salt solution.
B)hypertonic to both fresh water and the salt solution.
C)hypertonic to fresh water but hypotonic to the salt solution.
D)hypotonic to fresh water but hypertonic to the salt solution.
E)isotonic with fresh water but hypotonic to the salt solution.
Q2) Mammalian blood contains the equivalent of 0.15 M NaCl.Seawater contains the equivalent of 0.45 M NaCl.What will happen if red blood cells are transferred to seawater?
A)Water will leave the cells, causing them to shrivel and collapse.
B)NaCl will be exported from the red blood cells by facilitated diffusion.
C)The blood cells will take up water, swell, and eventually burst.
D)NaCl will passively diffuse into the red blood cells.
E)The blood cells will expend ATP for active transport of NaCl into the cytoplasm.
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Chapter 8: An Introduction to Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Allosteric enzyme regulation is usually associated with A)lack of cooperativity.
B)feedback inhibition.
C)activating activity.
D)an enzyme with more than one subunit.
E)the need for cofactors.
Q2) Which of the following represents the activation energy needed for the enzyme-catalyzed reverse reaction,C + D A + B,in the figure above?
A)a
B)b
C)c
D)d
E)e
Q3) Which of the following is the smallest closed system?
A)a cell
B)an organism
C)an ecosystem
D)Earth
E)the universe
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Cellular Respiration and Fermentation
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Q1) Which metabolic pathway is common to both cellular respiration and fermentation?
A)the oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA
B)the citric acid cycle
C)oxidative phosphorylation
D)glycolysis
E)chemiosmosis
Q2) Phosphofructokinase is an enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of fructose 6-phosphate to fructose 1,6-bisphosphate,an early step of glycolysis.In the presence of oxygen,an increase in the amount of ATP in a cell would be expected to
A)inhibit the enzyme and thus slow the rates of glycolysis and the citric acid cycle.
B)activate the enzyme and thus slow the rates of glycolysis and the citric acid cycle.
C)inhibit the enzyme and thus increase the rates of glycolysis and the citric acid cycle.
D)activate the enzyme and increase the rates of glycolysis and the citric acid cycle.
E)inhibit the enzyme and thus increase the rate of glycolysis and the concentration of citrate.
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11
Chapter 10: Photosynthesis
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Q1) It is a particularly hot,dry summer.The town has banned excessive water use and so you cannot water your lawn.After a few weeks the grass has gone brown,except a few patches where the grass seems to be doing fine.You notice that this grass has a broader leaf and is not the same species as most of your lawn.You conclude that this grass is a A)C plant.
B)C plant.
C)C plant.
D)CAM plant.
E)mutant.
Q2) Where are the molecules of the photosynthetic electron transport chain found in plant cells?
A)thylakoid membranes of chloroplasts
B)stroma of chloroplasts
C)outer membrane of mitochondria
D)matrix of mitochondria
E)cytoplasm
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Chapter 11: Cell Communication
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Q1) Of the following,a receptor protein in a membrane that recognizes a chemical signal is most similar to
A)the active site of an allosteric enzyme that binds to a specific substrate.
B)tRNA specifying which amino acids are in a polypeptide.
C)a metabolic pathway operating within a specific organelle.
D)an enzyme having an optimum pH and temperature for activity.
E)an antibody in the immune system.
Q2) In C.elegans,ced-9 prevents apoptosis in a normal cell in which of the following ways?
A)It prevents the caspase activity of ced-3 and ced-4.
B)Ced-9 remains inactive until it is signalled by ced-3 and other caspases.
C)Ced-9 cleaves to produce ced-3 and ced-4.
D)Ced-9 enters the nucleus and activates apoptotic genes.
E)Ced-9 prevents blebbing by its action on the cell membrane.
Q3) In the above diagram,the structure labelled B is a(n)
A)transcription factor.
B)activated relay molecule.
C)ligand.
D)plasma membrane receptor.
E)intracellular receptor.
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Chapter 12: The Cell Cycle
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Q1) The drug cytochalasin B blocks the function of actin.Which of the following aspects of the cell cycle would be most disrupted by cytochalasin B?
A)spindle formation
B)spindle attachment to kinetochores
C)DNA synthesis
D)cell elongation during anaphase
E)cleavage furrow formation and cytokinesis
Q2) The MPF protein complex turns itself off by
A)activating a process that destroys cyclin components.
B)activating an enzyme that stimulates cyclin.
C)binding to chromatin.
D)exiting the cell.
E)activating the anaphase-promoting complex.
Q3) In which group of eukaryotic organisms does the nuclear envelope remain intact during mitosis?
A)seedless plants
B)dinoflagellates
C)diatoms
D)dinoflagellates and diatoms only
E)seedless plants, dinoflagellates, and diatoms
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Chapter 13: Meiosis and Sexual Life Cycles
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Q1) Which of the following best describes a karyotype?
A)a pictorial representation of all the genes for a species
B)a display of each of the chromosomes of a single cell
C)the combination of all the maternal and paternal chromosomes of a species
D)the collection of all the chromosomes in an individual organism
E)a photograph of all the cells with missing or extra chromosomes
Q2) Which of the following can occur by the process of meiosis but not mitosis?
A)Haploid cells fuse to form diploid cells.
B)Haploid cells multiply into more haploid cells.
C)Diploid cells form haploid cells.
D)A diploid cell combines with a haploid cell.
E)Diploid cells multiple into more diploid cells.
Q3) A certain gene found in a diploid species is known to have 18 alleles (variants).Any given organism of that species can/must have which of the following?
A)2 alleles for that gene
B)up to 18 chromosomes with that gene
C)up to 18 genes for that trait
D)a haploid number of 9 chromosomes
E)up to, but not more than, 18 different traits
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Mendel and the Gene Idea
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Q1) Visitors at Algonquin Park in Northern Ontario may miss out on the brilliant red colouration of Acer sacchrum in autumn because
A)the timing is genetically programmed and the people didn't come at the right time.
B)these animals have already gone into hibernation by then.
C)these trees don't produce anthocyanin so far north.
D)anthocyanin production and chlorophyll loss are responses to environmental cues and it may have happened already.
E)Acer sacchrum doesn't live in the park.
Q2) Assuming independent assortment for all gene pairs,what is the probability that the following parents,AABbCc × AaBbCc,will produce an AaBbCc offspring?
A)1/2
B)1/16
C)1/8
D)3/4
E)1
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16
Chapter 15: The Chromosomal Basis of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is an adaptive advantage of recombination between linked genes?
A)Recombination is required for independent assortment.
B)Recombination must occur or genes will not assort independently.
C)New allele combinations are acted upon by natural selection.
D)The forces on the cell during meiosis II results in recombination.
E)Recombination ensures genes far away from each other are inherited together.
Q2) What is the reason that linked genes are inherited together?
A)They are located close together on the same chromosome.
B)The number of genes in a cell is greater than the number of chromosomes.
C)Chromosomes are unbreakable.
D)Alleles are paired together during meiosis.
E)Genes align that way during metaphase I of meiosis.
Q3) Which of the following is true of aneuploidies in general?
A)A monosomy is more frequent than a trisomy.
B)45 X is the only known human live-born monosomy.
C)Some human aneuploidies have selective advantage in some environments.
D)Of all human aneuploidies, only Down syndrome is associated with mental retardation.
E)An aneuploidy resulting in the deletion of a chromosome segment is less serious than a duplication.
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Chapter 16: The Molecular Basis of Inheritance
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Q1) In an experiment,DNA is allowed to replicate in an environment with all necessary enzymes,dATP,dCTP,dGTP,and radioactively labeled dTTP (³H thymidine)for several minutes and then switched to nonradioactive medium.It is then viewed by electron microscopy and autoradiography.The figure above represents the results.
Which of the following is the most likely interpretation?
A)There are two replication forks going in opposite directions.
B)Thymidine is only being added where the DNA strands are furthest apart.
C)Thymidine is only added at the very beginning of replication.
D)Replication proceeds in one direction only.
E)Thymidine is not being incorporated into the DNA, but is associating with the DNA due to hydrogen bonding.
Q2) Which image represents the chromatid?
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Chapter 17: From Gene to Protein
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Q1) If A,B,and C are all required for growth,a strain mutant for the gene-encoding enzyme
B would be capable of growing on which of the following media?
A)minimal medium
B)minimal medium supplemented with A only
C)minimal medium supplemented with B only
D)minimal medium supplemented with C only
E)minimal medium supplemented with nutrients A and B
Q2) Suppose that exposure to a chemical mutagen results in a change in the sequence that alters the 5' end of intron 1 (I ).What might occur?
A)loss of the gene product
B)loss of E
C)premature stop to the mRNA
D)inclusion of I in the mRNA
E)exclusion of E
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19
Chapter 18: Regulation of Gene Expression
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Q1) Absence of bicoid mRNA from a Drosophila egg leads to the absence of anterior larval body parts and mirror-image duplication of posterior parts.This is evidence that the product of the bicoid gene
A)is transcribed in the early embryo.
B)normally leads to formation of tail structures.
C)normally leads to formation of head structures.
D)is a protein present in all head structures.
E)leads to programmed cell death.
Q2) What causes an increase in CAP?
A)increase in glucose and increase in cAMP
B)decrease in glucose and increase in cAMP
C)increase in glucose and decrease in cAMP
D)decrease in glucose and increase in repressor
E)decrease in glucose and decrease in repressor
Q3) What is chemically different between A and B in the above image?
A)A is acetylated.
B)A is methylated.
C)B is acetylated.
D)B is methylated.
E)A has histones.
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Chapter 19: Viruses
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Q1) In the figure,at the arrow marked II,what enzyme(s)are being utilized?
A)reverse transcriptase
B)viral DNA polymerase
C)host cell DNA polymerase
D)host cell RNA polymerase
E)host cell DNA and RNA polymerases
Q2) Which of the following characteristics,structures,or processes is common to both bacteria and viruses?
A)metabolism
B)ribosomes
C)genetic material composed of nucleic acid
D)cell division
E)independent existence
Q3) Which of the following is true of viruses?
A)They manufacture their own ATP, proteins, and nucleic acids.
B)They use the host cell to copy themselves and make viral proteins.
C)They use the host cell to copy themselves and then viruses synthesize their own proteins.
D)They metabolize food and produce their own ATP.
E)They copy themselves but are unable to make proteins.
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Chapter 20: DNA Tools and Biotechnology
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Q1) Genetically engineered plants
A)are more difficult to engineer than animals.
B)include a transgenic rice plant that can grow in water three times as salty as seawater.
C)are being rapidly developed, but traditional plant breeding programs are still the only method used to develop new plants.
D)are able to fix nitrogen themselves.
E)are banned throughout the world.
Q2) A principal problem with inserting an unmodified mammalian gene into a plasmid,and then getting that gene expressed in bacteria,is that A)prokaryotes use a different genetic code from that of eukaryotes.
B)bacteria translate polycistronic messages only.
C)bacteria cannot remove eukaryotic introns.
D)bacterial RNA polymerase cannot make RNA complementary to mammalian DNA.
E)bacterial DNA is not found in a membrane-bounded nucleus and is therefore incompatible with mammalian DNA.
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Chapter 21: Genomes and Their Evolution
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Q1) How do transposable elements and short tandem repeats (STRs)differ?
A)STRs occur within exons; transposable elements occur within introns.
B)STRs occur within introns; transposable elements occur within exons.
C)The repeated unit in STRs is clustered one after another; transposable element repeats are scattered throughout the genome.
D)The repeated unit in STRs is much larger than the repeated unit of transposable elements.
E)STRs are found in eukaryotes; transposable elements are found in prokaryotes.
Q2) What is bioinformatics?
A)a technique using 3-D images of genes in order to predict how and when they will be expressed
B)a method that uses very large national and international databases to access and work with sequence information
C)a software program available from NIH to design genes
D)a series of search programs that allow a student to identify who in the world is trying to sequence a given species
E)a procedure that uses software to order DNA sequences in a variety of comparable ways
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Descent with Modification: A Darwinian View of Life
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Q1) DNA sequences in many human genes are very similar to the sequences of corresponding genes in chimpanzees.The most likely explanation for this result is that
A)humans and chimpanzees share a relatively recent common ancestor.
B)humans evolved from chimpanzees.
C)chimpanzees evolved from humans.
D)convergent evolution led to the DNA similarities.
E)humans and chimpanzees are not closely related.
Q2) Which pair of structures best represents convergent evolution?
A)the fusiform shape of a shark and a dolphin
B)the bones in the forelimb of a horse and wing of a bat
C)the bones in a human arm and flipper of a seal
D)the tailbone of a human and the tail of a monkey
E)the wing of a penguin and the wing of an eagle
Q3) Which of the following statements best describes theories?
A)They are nearly the same things as hypotheses.
B)They are supported by, and make sense of, many observations.
C)They cannot be tested because the described events occurred only once.
D)They are predictions of future events.
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Chapter 23: The Evolution of Populations
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Q1) If the nucleotide variability of a locus equals 0%,what is the gene variability and number of alleles at that locus?
A)gene variability = 0%; number of alleles = 0
B)gene variability = 0%; number of alleles = 1
C)gene variability = 0%; number of alleles = 2
D)gene variability > 0%; number of alleles = 2
E)Without more information, gene variability and number of alleles cannot be determined.
Q2) If one assumes that Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium applies to the population of colonists on this planet,about how many people will have attached earlobes when the planet's population reaches 10000?
A)100
B)400
C)800
D)1000
E)10 000
Q3) What is the estimated frequency of allele A in the gene pool?
A)0)25
B)0)50
C)0)75
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Chapter 24: The Origin of Species
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Q1) Polyploidy can be best described as
A)a form of speciation that commonly occurs in plants and animals.
B)an error in mitosis.
C)a condition that could lead to speciation as a result of duplication of chromosomes.
D)a condition that requires geographic isolation.
E)a condition that enhances gene flow.
Q2) According to the punctuated equilibria model
A)natural selection is unimportant as a mechanism of evolution.
B)given enough time, most existing species will branch gradually into new species.
C)most new species accumulate their unique features relatively rapidly as they come into existence, then change little for the rest of their duration as a species.
D)most evolution occurs in sympatric populations.
E)speciation is usually due to a single mutation.
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Chapter 25: The History of Life on Earth
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Q1) The synthesis of new DNA requires the prior existence of oligonucleotides to serve as primers.On Earth,these primers are small RNA molecules.This latter observation is evidence in support of the hypothesized existence of A)a snowball Earth.
B)earlier genetic systems than those based on DNA.
C)the abiotic synthesis of organic monomers.
D)the delivery of organic matter to Earth by meteors and comets.
E)the endosymbiotic origin of mitochondria and chloroplasts.
Q2) Which listing of geological periods is in the correct order,from oldest to most recent?
A)Cambrian, Devonian, Permian, Cretaceous
B)Devonian, Cambrian, Permian, Cretaceous
C)Cambrian, Permian, Devonian, Cretaceous
D)Permian, Cambrian, Cretaceous, Devonian
Q3) Anatomically,what was true of Lystrosaurus?
A)Its jaw would have been hinged the same way as the jaws of the early reptiles were hinged.
B)It was a tetrapod.
C)It had skin without scales, typical of modern amphibians.
D)It would have had no temporal fenestra in its skull.
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Phylogeny and the Tree of Life
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Q1) From the above figure,what is true of Dryopithecus and Ouranopithecus?
1)They were great apes.
2)They shared a common ancestor more recently with the orangutans than with the other great apes.
3)They appear to be part of a polytomy.
4)Their closest common ancestor with all of the extant great apes is the one they share with the orangutans.
5)They were about as different from each other genetically as humans are different from chimps.
A)1, 2, and 4
B)1, 3, and 4
C)2, 4, and 5
D)1, 2, 3, and 4
E)2, 3, 4, and 5
Q2) Which of the following pairs are the best examples of homologous structures?
A)bones in the bat wing and bones in the human forelimb
B)owl wing and hornet wing
C)bat wing and bird wing
D)eyelessness in the Australian mole and eyelessness in the North American mole
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Bacteria and Archaea
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Q1) Prokaryotes' essential genetic information is located in the A)nucleolus.
B)nucleoid.
C)nucleosome.
D)plasmids.
E)exospore.
Q2) The typical prokaryotic flagellum features
A)an internal 9 + 2 pattern of microtubules.
B)an external covering provided by the plasma membrane.
C)a complex "motor" embedded in the cell wall and plasma membrane.
D)a basal body that is similar in structure to the cell's centrioles.
E)a membrane-enclosed organelle with motor proteins.
Q3) How many of these species probably have a cell wall that partly consists of an outer membrane of lipopolysaccharide?
A)only one species
B)two species
C)three species
D)four species
E)all five species
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Chapter 28: Protists
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Q1) Test tube 4 contains ________.
A)Paramecium.
B)Karenia (dinoflagellate).
C)Entamoeba.
D)Plasmodium.
Q2) Diplomonads,such as Giardia,contain two haploid nuclei per trophozoite.Thus,during the G phase of the cell cycle,there should be a total of how many unreplicated chromosomes per trophozoite,and during the G phase,how many replicated chromosomes per trophozoite?
A)5; 5
B)5; 10
C)10; 10
D)10; 20
E)20; 20
Q3) Ciliates do not
A)reproduce sexually by conjugation.
B)reproduce asexually by binary fission.
C)contain two types of nuclei, micro- and macronuclei.
D)contain genes in the macronucleus that control the functions of the cell.
E)utilize cilia to move and feed.
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Chapter 29: Plant Diversity I: How Plants Colonized Land
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Sample Questions
Q1) Increasing the number of stomata per unit surface area of a leaf when atmospheric CO levels decline is most analogous to a human
A)breathing faster as atmospheric CO levels increase.
B)putting more red blood corpuscles (RBCs)into circulation when atmospheric O levels decline.
C)removing RBCs from circulation when atmospheric O levels increase.
D)breathing more slowly as atmospheric O levels increase.
Q2) Which of the following is not evidence that charophytes are the closest algal relatives of plants?
A)similar sperm structure
B)the presence of chloroplasts
C)similarities in cell wall formation during cell division
D)genetic similarities in chloroplasts
E)similarities in proteins that synthesize cellulose
Q3) What is true about the genus Sphagnum?
A)It is an economically important liverwort.
B)It grows in extensive mats in grassland areas.
C)It accumulates to form coal and is burned as a fuel.
D)It is an important carbon sink, reducing atmospheric carbon dioxide.
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Page 31
Chapter 30: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants
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Sample Questions
Q1) To help ensure a prosperous future for the largest number of people,developed countries should
A)help underdeveloped countries to more effectively exploit and market their natural resources.
B)apply sanctions on developing countries that fail to curtail their rates of growth and development.
C)conserve at home and exploit resources abroad.
D)reuse, recycle, and reduce at home, while encouraging the same abroad.
E)work for the removal of indigenous peoples from endangered habitats, so as to better preserve limited resources in those habitats.
Q2) Which group is noted for the independence of gametophyte and sporophyte generations from each other?
A)ferns
B)mosses, hornworts, and liverworts
C)charophytes
D)angiosperms
E)gymnosperms
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Chapter 31: Fungi
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following cells or structures are associated with asexual reproduction in fungi?
A)ascospores
B)basidiospores
C)zygosporangia
D)conidiophores
E)ascocarps
Q2) Lichens are found in a wide variety of habitats,including rocks,soil,tree bark,buildings,etc.Aging of lichens has shown that some are thousands of years old; how is this possible when you see that some of these lichens are very small?
A)When resources such as water is not available, the lichens enter a potentially long dormant phase, and thus grow very slowly.
B)It is not possible, and is likely an error in the dating technique.
C)It is not possible because small organisms are not long-lived.
D)They can die off if air pollution is bad and then revive and continue growing.
E)They can live long if they are in a city and protected from extreme cold and wind.
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Chapter 32: An Overview of Animal Diversity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would you classify as something other than an animal?
A)sponges
B)coral
C)jellyfish
D)choanoflagellates
Q2) Whatever its ultimate cause(s),the Cambrian explosion is a prime example of
A)mass extinction.
B)evolutionary stasis.
C)adaptive radiation.
D)All three of the responses are correct.
E)Only two of the responses are correct.
Q3) Which phylogeny has been created by emphasizing a protein found in placozoans?
A)I
B)II
C)III
Q4) An organism that exhibits cephalization probably also ________.
A)is bilaterally symmetrical
B)has a coelom
C)is segmented
D)is diploblastic
Page 34
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Chapter 33: An Introduction to Invertebrates
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Q1) Which of the following are entirely,or partly,composed of calcium carbonate?
A)spicules of siliceous sponges
B)coral animals' exoskeletons
C)molluscs' mantles
D)insects' cuticles
E)nematodes' cuticles
Q2) The parapodia of polychaetes have a function most similar to that of A)rhinophores.
B)dorsal plummules.
C)cerata.
D)more than one of these.
Q3) Most cnidarians are known to produce toxins.In fact,it has been claimed that one particular species produces the most deadly of all toxins on the planet.What feature of this group most likely evolved simultaneously with the evolution of these toxins?
A)the medusa body form
B)asexual reproduction
C)a slow-moving or sessile lifestyle in the adult
D)diploblastic design
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Chapter 34: The Origin and Evolution of Vertebrates
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Q1) Which feature of some carinates has the same effect on weight as the presence of air sacs?
A)presence of a large, heavily keratinized beak
B)absence of a urinary bladder
C)presence of a carina (keel)
D)number of chambers in the heart
E)presence of large pectoral muscles
Q2) Which hypothesis of feather evolution do your observations lend support to?
A)Feathers were initially used for courtship display.
B)Feathers were initially used for insulation.
C)Feathers were initially used for camouflage.
D)Feathers replace scales.
E)Two of the responses are correct.
Q3) Regarding its position in the water column,the same thing that happens to a shark when it stops swimming also happens to a
A)physostomus fish when it gulps air.
B)physoclistus fish when it moves gas from the blood into the water.
C)physoclistus fish when it moves gas from the swim bladder into the blood.
D)physoclistus fish when it moves gas from the blood into the swim bladder.
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Plant Structure,Growth,and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Secondary growth is best described as A)consisting mostly of mesophyll layers.
B)a growth in thickness caused by lateral meristems.
C)a growth in height caused by apical meristems.
D)structural, photosynthetic, protective.
E)dependent on water- and sugar-conducting cells.
Q2) Which of the following was a challenge to the survival of the first land plants?
A)too much sunlight
B)a shortage of carbon dioxide
C)desiccation
D)animal predation
Q3) Heartwood and sapwood consist of A)bark.
B)periderm.
C)secondary xylem.
D)secondary phloem. E)cork.
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Chapter 36: Resource Acquisition and Transport in Vascular Plants
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Sample Questions
Q1) An open beaker of pure water has a water potential ( )of [ ]
A)-0.23 MPa.
B)+0.23 MPa.
C)+0.07 MPa.
D)-0.0000001 MPa.
E)0)0 (zero).
Q2) What is the main force by which most of the water within xylem vessels moves toward the top of a tree?
A)active transport of ions into the stele
B)atmospheric pressure on roots
C)evaporation of water through stoma
D)the force of root pressure
E)osmosis in the root
Q3) Which of the following statements about xylem is incorrect?
A)It conducts material from root tips to leaves.
B)The conducting cells are part of the apoplast.
C)It transports mainly sugars and amino acids.
D)It typically has a lower water potential than is found in soil.
E)No energy input is required for transport.
Page 38
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Chapter 37: Soil and Plant Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is not true about mycorrhizae?
A)Ectomycorrhizae form a dense sheet over the plant root, commonly observed in woody species.
B)Arbuscular mycorrhizae penetrate cell walls of the root cortex, forming structures called "little trees."
C)Roots can form a mycorrhizal symbiotic relationship with all species of fungi.
D)Fungi and bacteria can interact in ways that help plants respond to stressful conditions, such as contaminated soil.
E)Treating seeds with mycorrhizal fungi can improve crop yield.
Q2) Which of the following best describes the general role of micronutrients in plants?
A)They are cofactors in enzymatic reactions.
B)They are necessary for essential regulatory functions.
C)They prevent chlorosis.
D)They are components of nucleic acids.
E)They are necessary for the formation of cell walls.
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Chapter 38: Angiosperm Reproduction and Biotechnology
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following strategies are being pursued with the goal of preventing transgene escape from genetically modified crops except
A)the engineering of male sterility into plants.
B)the genetic engineering of apomixis into transgenic crops.
C)the genetic engineering of trangenes into the chloroplast DNA.
D)the genetic engineering of flowers that develop normally, but fail to open.
E)hybridization of transgenic crop genes with related wild weeds.
Q2) Which of the following statements regarding flowering plants is false?
A)The sporophyte is the dominant generation.
B)Female gametophytes develop from megaspores within the anthers.
C)Pollination is the placing of pollen on the stigma of a carpel.
D)The food-storing endosperm is derived from the cell that contains two polar nuclei and one sperm nucleus.
E)Flowers produce fruits within the ovules.
Q3) Which of these is a major trend in land plant evolution?
A)the trend toward smaller size
B)the trend toward a gametophyte-dominated life cycle
C)the trend toward a sporophyte-dominated life cycle
D)the trend toward larger gametophytes
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Page 40
Chapter 39: Plant Responses to Internal and External
Signals
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Sample Questions
Q1) The heavy line in the above figure illustrates the relationship between auxin concentration and cell growth in stem tissues.If the same range of concentrations were applied to lateral buds,what curve(s)would probably be produced?
A)I
B)II
C)III
D)II or III
E)I or III
Q2) Which event during the evolution of land plants favored the synthesis of secondary compounds?
A)the greenhouse effect throughout the Devonian period
B)the reverse-greenhouse effect during the Carboniferous period
C)the association of the roots of land plants and fungi
D)the rise of herbivory
Q3) Plant hormones
A)in plant cells naturally exist in very large amounts.
B)change their shape in response to stimulus.
C)are unable to move from one cell to another.
D)affect only cells with the appropriate receptor.
Page 41
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Chapter 40: Basic Principles of Animal Form and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements pertaining to the relationship between body size and metabolic rate are true?
A)Large ectotherms have a lower metabolic rate than small ectotherms.
B)There is a positive relationship between metabolic rate and body size.
C)Large endotherms have a higher metabolic rate than smaller endotherms.
D)Small ectotherms have a higher metabolic rate than small endotherms.
E)The BMR of a 200 gram ectotherm is higher than the BMR of a 200 gram endotherm.
Q2) The specialized function shared by the cells that line the lungs and those that line the lumen of the gut is that both types of cells
A)receive their oxygen directly from inhaled air and ingested foods.
B)provide abundant exchange surface.
C)have exceptionally high numbers of cellular organelles in the cytoplasm.
D)offer greater protection due to increased membrane thickness.
E)have a lowered basal metabolic rate due to cooperative exchange between cells.
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Chapter 41: Animal Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the pancreas involved in the digestion of?
I.protein
II.fat
III.nucleic acids
IV.carbohydrates
A)I and III
B)II and III
C)I, II, and IV
D)II, III, and IV
E)I, II, III, and IV
Q2) Hypoglycemia,or low levels of glucose in the blood of a healthy human,is "corrected" by a(n)
A)increase in the secretion of insulin.
B)increase in the secretion of glucagon.
C)increase in the secretion of both insulin and glucagon.
D)decrease in the secretion of both insulin and glucagon.
E)increase in the secretion of thyroid hormones.
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Page 43
Chapter 42: Circulation and Gas Exchange
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a healthy human,the typical life span of a red blood cell is A)24 hours.
B)one week.
C)one month.
D)four months.
E)80 years or more.
Q2) Which of the following statements are true?
A)The culprit had a very low platelet and high leukocyte counts.
B)The culprit had misshapen erythrocytes and low monocyte counts.
C)The culprit had low platelet and leukocyte counts.
D)The culprit had high platelet and leukocyte counts.
E)The culprit had high platelet and low leukocyte counts.
Q3) Hydrogen ions produced within human red blood cells are prevented from significantly lowering plasma pH because they bind to A)hemoglobin.
B)plasma proteins.
C)carbon dioxide.
D)carbonic acid.
E)plasma buffers.
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44
Chapter 43: The Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antibodies of the different classes IgM,IgG,IgA,IgD,and IgE differ from each other
A)in the way they are produced.
B)in their heavy-chain structure.
C)in the type of cell that produces them.
D)by the antigenic determinants that they recognize.
E)by the number of carbohydrate subunits they have.
Q2) Vaccination increases the number of
A)different receptors that recognize a pathogen.
B)lymphocytes with receptors that can bind to the pathogen.
C)epitopes that the immune system can recognize.
D)macrophages specific for a pathogen.
E)MHC molecules that can present an antigen.
Q3) The cells involved in innate immunity,whose absence increases the chances of developing malignant tumours,are
A)cytotoxic T cells.
B)natural killer cells.
C)helper T cells.
D)macrophages.
E)B cells.
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Page 45
Chapter 44: Osmoregulation and Excretion
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Sample Questions
Q1) A primary reason that the kidneys have one of the highest metabolic rates of all body organs is that
A)it stores the body's excess fats.
B)it has membranes of varying permeability to water.
C)it operates an extensive set of active-transport ion pumps.
D)it is the body's only means of shedding excess nutrients.
E)it has an abundance of myogenic smooth muscle.
Q2) The primary nitrogenous waste excreted by birds is A)ammonia.
B)nitrate.
C)nitrite.
D)urea.
E)uric acid.
Q3) Which process in the nephron is least selective?
A)filtration
B)reabsorption
C)active transport
D)secretion
E)salt pumping by the loop of Henle
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Page 46
Chapter 45: Hormones and the Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the anticipated effect of a drug that increases adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)synthesis?
A)increase in glucocorticoid production
B)increase in release of corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)
C)decrease in cortisol release
D)decrease in release of corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)
E)increase in epinephrine
Q2) DES is called an "endocrine disrupting chemical" because it structurally resembles,and interferes with,the endocrine secretions of the
A)pancreatic islet cells.
B)thyroid gland.
C)adrenal medulla.
D)ovaries.
E)hypothalamus.
Q3) Nitric oxide and norepinephrine
A)both function as neurotransmitters.
B)both function as steroid hormones.
C)are both involved in the "fight-or-flight" response.
D)bind the same receptors.
E)both cause a reduction in the blood levels of glucose.
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Chapter 46: Animal Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Asexual reproduction results in greater reproductive success than does sexual reproduction when
A)pathogens are rapidly diversifying.
B)a species has accumulated numerous deleterious mutations.
C)there is some potential for rapid overpopulation.
D)a species is expanding into diverse geographic settings.
E)a species is in stable and favourable environments.
Q2) Testosterone is synthesized primarily by the A)sperm cells.
B)hypothalamus.
C)Leydig cells.
D)anterior pituitary gland.
E)seminiferous tubules.
Q3) For water fleas of the genus Daphnia,switching from a pattern of asexual reproduction to sexual reproduction coincides with A)environmental conditions becoming more favourable for offspring.
B)greater abundance of food resources for offspring.
C)periods of temperature or food stresses on adults.
D)completion of puberty.
E)exhaustion of an individual's supply of eggs.
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Chapter 47: Animal Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) To meet a zygote's metabolic and developmental requirements
A)maternal RNA and maternal proteins must be present.
B)paternal RNA and maternal proteins must be present.
C)the haploid DNA in the nucleus must be transcribed.
D)the nucleus must have hundreds of copies of every gene, allowing a high rate of gene expression.
E)the zygote must continuously undergo endocytosis of proteins to take them from its environment.
Q2) Uterine implantation due to enzymatic digestion of the endometrium is initiated by the
A)inner cell mass.
B)endoderm.
C)chorion.
D)mesoderm.
E)trophoblast.
Q3) Which of the following is a correct description of an anatomical relationship?
A)The mesoderm gives rise to the notochord.
B)The endoderm gives rise to the hair follicles.
C)The ectoderm gives rise to the liver.
D)The mesoderm gives rise to the lungs.
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Chapter 48: Neurons,Synapses,and Signalling
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Sample Questions
Q1) The minimum graded depolarization needed to operate the voltage-gated sodium and potassium channels is indicated by the label
A)A)
B)B)
C)C)
D)D)
E)E)
Q2) An amino acid that operates at inhibitory synapses in the brain is A)acetylcholine.
B)epinephrine.
C)endorphin.
D)nitric oxide.
E)GABA.
Q3) The nucleus and most of the organelles in a neuron are located in the A)dendritic region.
B)axon hillock.
C)axon.
D)cell body.
E)axon terminals.
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Page 50
Chapter 49: Nervous Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cerebral cortex plays a major role in all of the following except
A)short-term memory.
B)long-term memory.
C)circadian rhythm.
D)foot-tapping rhythm.
E)breath holding.
Q2) If an individual did not possess the NMDA or AMPA receptors,this would inhibit
A)dreaming during sleep.
B)short-term memory.
C)long-term potentiation.
D)motor capacity.
E)short-term potentiation.
Q3) Which brain region would be involved in information retention if you were to take a nap after studying?
A)diencephalon
B)cerebrum
C)midbrain
D)cerebellum
E)medulla oblongata
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Page 51
Chapter 50: Sensory and Motor Mechanisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) The structure pictured in the figure is found in A)skeletal muscles and smooth muscles.
B)cardiac muscles and skeletal muscles.
C)smooth muscles and cardiac muscles.
D)smooth muscles, skeletal muscles, and cardiac muscles.
E)smooth muscles.
Q2) During muscle contraction,
I.actin filaments cross the M line.
II.the Z lines move closer together.
III.myosin forms cross bridges with actin.
IV.actin and myosin coil around each other.
A)I, II, and IV
B)I, II, and III
C)I and II
D)II only
E)I only
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Chapter 51: Animal Behaviour
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following does not have a coefficient of relatedness of 0.5?
A)a father to his daughter
B)a mother to her son
C)an uncle to his nephew
D)a brother to his brother
E)a sister to her brother
Q2) What is the fitness benefit of polygamy in birds that rear precocious young?
A)Females will copulate with many males to ensure that all of their eggs are fertilized.
B)Females don't have to decide on one mate, and can copulate with as many males as each female deems worthy to share her genes with in reproduction.
C)Fit males don't have to help feed and rear young and can spend this time seeking and mating with many females.
D)Females don't have to spend time rearing young and can mate and rear additional broods during a breeding season.
E)Both males and females spend little time with courtship and brood-rearing, and don't tax their own physiology so they can breed again in subsequent breeding seasons.
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53
Chapter 52: An Introduction to Ecology and the Biosphere
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true with respect to oligotrophic lakes and eutrophic lakes?
A)Oligotrophic lakes are more subject to oxygen depletion.
B)Rates of photosynthesis are lower in eutrophic lakes.
C)Eutrophic lake water contains lower concentrations of nutrients.
D)Eutrophic lakes are richer in nutrients.
E)Sediments in oligotrophic lakes contain larger amounts of decomposable organic matter.
Q2) Which of the following areas of study focuses on the exchange of energy,organisms,and materials between ecosystems?
A)population ecology
B)organismal ecology
C)landscape ecology
D)ecosystem ecology
E)community ecology
Q3) Which of the following is an important feature of temperate broadleaf forests?
A)annual average rainfall in excess of 200 centimeters annually
B)are found only in the northern hemisphere
C)summers are cool and dry
D)vegetation shows vertical layering
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Page 54
Chapter 53: Population Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following pairs of reproductive strategies is consistent with energetic trade-off and reproductive success?
A)Pioneer species of plants produce many very small, highly airborne seeds, whereas large elephants that are very good parents produce many offspring.
B)Female rabbits that suffer high predation rates may produce several litters per breeding season, and coconuts produce few fruits, but most survive when they encounter proper growing conditions.
C)Species that have to broadcast to distant habitats tend to produce seeds with heavy protective seed coats, and animals that are caring parents produce fewer offspring with lower infant mortality.
D)Free-living insects lay thousands of eggs and provide no parental care, whereas flowers take good care of their seeds until they are ready to germinate.
E)Some mammals will not reproduce when environmental resources are low so they can survive until conditions get better, and plants that produce many small seeds are likely found in stable environments.
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Chapter 54: Community Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why do moderate levels of disturbance result in an increase in community diversity?
A)Habitats are opened up for less competitive species.
B)Competitively dominant species infrequently exclude less competitive species after a moderate disturbance.
C)The environmental conditions become optimal.
D)The resulting uniform habitat supports stability, which in turn supports diversity.
E)Less-competitive species evolve strategies to compete with dominant species.
Q2) What percentage of all species on Earth are parasites?
A)1%
B)5%
C)25%
D)33 1/3%
E)50%
Q3) Keystone predators can maintain species diversity in a community if they
A)are the fastest predators.
B)prey on the community's dominant species.
C)maintain exponential growth.
D)avoid consuming omnivores.
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Chapter 55: Ecosystems and Restoration Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does phosphorus normally enter ecosystems?
A)cellular respiration
B)photosynthesis
C)rock weathering
D)vulcanism
E)atmospheric phosphorous gas
Q2) Decomposers obtain energy from
A)live organic material
B)detritus
C)fungi
D)other heterotrophs
E)bacteria
Q3) What are two key factors controlling primary productivity in lakes and oceans?
A)light and nutrients
B)nutrients and temperature
C)light and temperature
D)light and phytoplankton
E)nutrients and wind
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Chapter 56: Conservation Biology and Global Change
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
90 Verified Questions
90 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19812
Sample Questions
Q1) According to most conservation biologists,the single greatest threat to global biodiversity is
A)chemical pollution of water and air.
B)stratospheric ozone depletion.
C)overexploitation of certain species.
D)alteration or destruction of the physical habitat.
E)global climate change resulting from a variety of human activities.
Q2) Which of the following is a type of research in which a conservation biologist would be involved?
A)reestablishing whooping cranes in their former breeding grounds in North Dakota
B)studying species diversity and interaction in the Florida Everglades, past and present
C)studying population ecology of grizzly bears in Yellowstone National Park
D)determining the effects of hunting white-tailed deer in Vermont
E)determining the effect of protection programs on the recovery of the North Atlantic cod fishery
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