Foundations of Biology Exam Review
Course Introduction
Foundations of Biology offers a comprehensive introduction to the fundamental principles that govern living systems. Covering essential topics such as cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the molecular basis of life, this course explores how organisms grow, reproduce, and interact with their environments. Emphasizing scientific inquiry and experimental approaches, students develop a strong basis for advanced biological study while gaining an appreciation for the diversity and complexity of life.
Recommended Textbook
Campbell Biology 11th Edition by Urry
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Chapter 1: Evolution, the Themes of Biology, and Scientific Inquiry
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Q1) Which of the following order is correct in terms of the hierarchy of the organization?
A) Ecosystem Biosphere Population Community Organism
B) Biosphere Ecosystem Population Community Organism
C) Ecosystem Community Biosphere Population Organism
D) Biosphere Ecosystem Community Population Organism
Answer: D
Q2) The temperature at which an alligator's egg is incubated will determine the sex of the offspring. The dependent and the independent variables in this experiment are
A) sex of the baby alligator and temperature respectively
B) temperature and sex of the baby alligator respectively
C) size of the incubator and size of the baby alligator respectively
D) number of offspring and temperature in the incubator respectively
Answer: A
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Chemical Context of Life
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Q1) Which statement is true of all atoms that are anions?
A) The atom has more electrons than protons.
B) The atom has more protons than electrons.
C) The atom has fewer protons than does a neutral atom of the same element.
D) The atom has more neutrons than protons.
Answer: A
Q2) What is the atomic number of the cation formed in the reaction in the illustration?
A) 8
B) 10
C) 11
D) 16
Answer: C
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Water and Life
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Q1) A beaker contains 100 milliliters (mL) of NaOH solution at pH = 13. A technician carefully pours into the beaker 10 mL of HCl at pH = 1. Which of the following statements correctly describes the result of this mixing?
A) The concentration of Na+ ions will rise.
B) The pH of the beaker's contents will increase.
C) The pH of the beaker's contents will be neutral.
D) The pH of the beaker's contents will decrease.
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following is a hydrophobic material?
A) paper
B) table salt
C) wax
D) sugar
Answer: C
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5
Chapter 4: Carbon and the Molecular Diversity of Life
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Q1) Miller's classic experiment demonstrated that a discharge of sparks through a mixture of gases could result in the formation of a large variety of organic compounds. Miller did not use ________ as one of the gases in his experiment.
A) methane
B) oxygen
C) water
D) ammonia
Q2) Which of the following statements is true?
A) ADP contains more energy than ATP.
B) Following hydrolysis, ATP can give off one phosphate, whereas ADP cannot.
C) ADP can have two positive charges.
D) ATP can have four negative charges.
Q3) Which of the following carbon molecules does not have the bond angle of 109.5°?
A) CH
B) C H
C) C H
D) C H
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Chapter 5: The Structure and Function of Large Biological
Molecules
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Q1) When nucleotides polymerize to form a nucleic acid, ________.
A) a covalent bond forms between the sugar of one nucleotide and the phosphate of a second
B) a hydrogen bond forms between the sugar of one nucleotide and the phosphate of a second
C) covalent bonds form between the bases of two nucleotides
D) hydrogen bonds form between the bases of two nucleotides
Q2) What is the major structural difference between starch and glycogen?
A) the types of monosaccharide subunits in the molecules
B) the type of glycosidic linkages in the molecule
C) whether glucose is in the or form
D) the amount of branching that occurs in the molecule
Q3) The label on a container of margarine lists "hydrogenated vegetable oil" as the major ingredient. Hydrogenated vegetable oil ________.
A) is solid at room temperature
B) has more "kinks" in the fatty acid chains
C) has fewer trans fatty acids
D) is less likely to clog arteries
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Chapter 6: A Tour of the Cell
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Q1) Which of the following is the most common pathway taken by a newly synthesized protein that will be secreted by a cell?
A) rough ER Golgi transport vesicle nucleus
B) Golgi rough ER lysosome transport vesicle plasma membrane
C) rough ER Golgi transport vesicle plasma membrane
D) rough ER lysosome transport vesicle plasma membrane
Q2) What is the function of the nuclear pore complex found in eukaryotes?
A) It regulates the movement of proteins and RNAs into and out of the nucleus.
B) It synthesizes the proteins required to copy DNA and make mRNA.
C) It synthesizes secreted proteins.
D) It assembles ribosomes from raw materials that are synthesized in the nucleus.
Q3) Cyanide binds with at least one molecule involved in producing ATP. If a cell is exposed to cyanide, most of the bound cyanide is likely to be localized within the ________.
A) mitochondria
B) peroxisomes
C) lysosomes
D) smooth endoplasmic reticulum
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Chapter 7: Membrane Structure and Function
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Q1) What would be observed by live-cell fluorescence microscopy immediately after HIV entry if HIV is endocytosed first, and then later fuses with the endocytotic vesicle membrane?
A) A spot of red fluorescence will be visible on the infected cell's plasma membrane, marking the site of membrane fusion and HIV entry.
B) The red fluorescent dye-labeled lipids will appear in the infected cell's interior.
C) A spot of red fluorescence will diffuse in the infected cell's cytoplasm.
D) A spot of red fluorescence will remain outside the cell after delivering the viral capsid.
Q2) The sodium-potassium pump is called an electrogenic pump because it
A) pumps equal quantities of Na and K across the membrane in opposite directions
B) is used to drive the transport of glucose against a concentration gradient
C) decreases the voltage difference across the membrane
D) generates voltage across the membrane
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Chapter 8: An Introduction to Metabolism
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Q1) What is the name of the thermodynamic barrier that must be overcome before products are formed in a spontaneous reaction?
A) entropy
B) activation energy
C) the equilibrium point
D) free energy
Q2) HIV is the virus that causes AIDS. In the mid-1990s, researchers discovered an enzyme in HIV called protease. Once the enzyme's structure was known, researchers began looking for drugs that would fit into the active site and block it. If this strategy for stopping HIV infections were successful, it would be an example of what phenomenon?
A) noncompetitive inhibition
B) denaturation
C) allosteric regulation
D) competitive inhibition
Q3) Which of the following molecules is most similar in structure to ATP?
A) a pentose sugar
B) a DNA nucleotide
C) an RNA nucleotide
D) an amino acid with three phosphate groups attached
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Chapter 9: Cellular Respiration and Fermentation
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Q1) Energy released by the electron transport chain is used to pump H ions into which location in eukaryotic cells?
A) cytoplasm adjacent to the mitochondrial outer membrane
B) mitochondrial inner membrane
C) mitochondrial intermembrane space
D) mitochondrial matrix
Q2) Which of the following sequences describes the path by which electrons travel downhill energetically in aerobic respiration?
A) glucose NADH electron transport chain oxygen
B) glucose pyruvate ATP oxygen
C) glucose pyruvate electron transport chain NADH ATP
D) food glycolysis citric acid cycle NADH ATP
Q3) Most CO from catabolism is released during
A) glycolysis.
B) the citric acid cycle.
C) lactate fermentation.
D) electron transport.
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Chapter 10: Photosynthesis
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Q1) What is the relationship between the wavelength of light and the quantity of energy per photon?
A) They have a direct, linear relationship.
B) They are inversely related.
C) They are logarithmically related.
D) They are separate phenomena.
Q2) In the initial step in carbon fixation, a molecule of CO is attached to RuBP to produce a six-carbon molecule, which is immediately split to produce two molecules of 3-phosphoglycerate. After phosphorylation and reduction produces glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (G3P), what more needs to occur to complete the Calvin cycle?
A) addition of a pair of electrons from NADPH
B) regeneration of ATP from ADP
C) regeneration of RuBP
D) regeneration of NADP
Q3) Which molecule is the final electron acceptor for electrons from photosystem I?
A) oxygen
B) chlorophyll in photosystem II
C) carbon dioxide
D) NADP
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Chapter 11: Cell Communication
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true of steroid receptors?
A) The receptor molecules are themselves lipids or glycolipids.
B) The receptor may be inside the nucleus of a target cell.
C) The unbound steroid receptors are quickly recycled by lysosomes.
D) Steroid receptors are typically bound to the external surface of the nuclear membrane.
Q2) Which of the following is the most plausible explanation for why an animal cell would be unable to reduce the Ca² concentration in its cytosol compared with the extracellular fluid?
A) inactivation of calcium-gated ion channels in the cell membrane
B) excessive transport of calcium from the cytosol into the endoplasmic reticulum
C) insufficient ATP levels in the cytosol
D) insufficient levels of protein kinase in the cell
Q3) What role do phosphatases play in signal transduction pathways?
A) They transfer a phosphate group from one protein in the pathway to the next molecule in the series.
B) They activate protein kinases by phosphorylation.
C) They amplify the second messenger cAMP.
D) They inactivate protein kinases to turn off signal transduction.
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Chapter 12: The Cell Cycle
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Q1) Movement of the chromosomes during anaphase would be most affected by a drug that prevents which of the following events in mitosis and cell division?
A) nuclear envelope breakdown
B) elongation of microtubules
C) shortening of microtubules
D) formation of a cleavage furrow
Q2) Which of the following molecules triggers the cell's passage past the G checkpoint into mitosis?
A) PDGF
B) MPF
C) cyclin
D) Cdk
Q3) Motor proteins require which of the following structures or molecules to function in the movement of chromosomes toward the poles of the mitotic spindle?
A) intact centromeres
B) a microtubule-organizing center
C) ATP as an energy source
D) intact cohesin
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Chapter 13: Meiosis and Sexual Life Cycles
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Q1) When chiasmata can first be seen in cells using a microscope, which of the following processes has most likely occurred?
A) meiosis II
B) anaphase II
C) prophase I
D) the separation of homologs
Q2) During which of the following phases of meiosis do centromeres split and sister chromatids migrate to opposite poles of the cell?
A) anaphase I
B) telophase I
C) anaphase II
D) telophase II
Q3) Which of the life cycles is typical for plants and some algae?
A) I only
B) II only
C) III only
D) I and III
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Chapter 14: Mendel and the Gene Idea
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Q1) The pattern of inheritance can be predicted from data if one is given the parent or offspring genotypes or phenotypes. Two organisms, with genotypes BbDD and BBDd, are mated. Assuming independent assortment of the B/b and D/d genes, determine the genotypic ratios in offspring that would occur.
A) 1/2 BBDD, 1/2 bbdd
B) 1/4 BBDD, 1/4 BbDD, 1/4 BBDd, 1/4 BbDd
C) 9/16 BBDD, 3/16 BbDD, 3/16 BBDd, 1/16 bbdd
D) 1/4 BBDD, 1/2 BbDd, 1/4 bbdd
Q2) Hydrangea plants of the same genotype are planted in a large flower garden. Some of the plants produce blue flowers and others pink flowers. This can be best explained by which of the following?
A) the knowledge that multiple alleles are involved
B) the allele for blue hydrangea is completely dominant over the allele for pink hydrangea
C) the alleles are codominant
D) environmental factors such as soil pH affect the phenotype
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Chapter 15: The Chromosomal Basis of Inheritance
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Q1) Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency (G6PD) is inherited as an X-linked recessive allele in humans. A woman whose father suffered from G6PD marries a normal man. What proportion of their sons is expected to be G6PD?
A) 100%
B) 1/4
C) 1/2
D) zero
Q2) Which of the following statements correctly describes what happens to a chromosome after a nonreciprocal translocation occurs?
A) A deletion of part of the chromosome occurs.
B) A duplication of part of the chromosome occurs.
C) Nondisjunction of pairs of homologous occurs.
D) A chromosome transfers a fragment but receives none in return.
Q3) What does a recombination frequency of 50% indicate?
A) The two genes are likely to be located on different chromosomes.
B) All of the offspring have combinations of traits that match one of the two parents.
C) The genes are located on sex chromosomes.
D) Abnormal meiosis has occurred.
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Chapter 16: The Molecular Basis of Inheritance
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Q1) If a cell were unable to produce histone proteins, which of the following results would be a likely effect on the cell?
A) There would be an increase in the amount of DNA produced during replication.
B) The cell's DNA could not be packed into its nucleus.
C) Spindle fibers would not form during prophase.
D) Amplification of other genes would compensate for the lack of histones.
Q2) Telomere shortening puts a limit on the number of times a cell can divide. Research has shown that telomerase can extend the life span of cultured human cells. How might adding telomerase affect cellular aging?
A) Telomerase will speed up the rate of cell proliferation.
B) Telomerase eliminates telomere shortening and retards aging.
C) Telomerase shortens telomeres, which delays cellular aging.
D) Telomerase would have no effect on cellular aging.
Q3) Which of the following statements describes the process of transformation in bacteria?
A) A strand of DNA is created from an RNA molecule.
B) A strand of RNA is created from a DNA molecule.
C) Bacterial cells are infected by a phage DNA molecule.
D) External DNA is taken into a cell, becoming part of the cell's genome.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Gene Expression: From Gene to Protein
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Q1) A single base substitution mutation is likely to have a less deleterious effect when the base change exhibits which of the following results?
A) a stop codon
B) a codon that specifies the same amino acid as the original codon
C) an amino acid substitution that alters the tertiary structure of the protein
D) an amino acid substitution at the active site of an enzyme
Q2) Post-translational modifications of proteins may include which of the following processes?
A) removal of introns
B) addition of a 5 cap
C) addition of a poly-A tail
D) addition of carbohydrates to form a glycoprotein
Q3) The anticodon of a particular tRNA molecule is
A) complementary to the corresponding mRNA codon.
B) complementary to the corresponding triplet in rRNA.
C) the part of tRNA that bonds to a specific amino acid.
D) catalytic, making the tRNA a ribozyme.
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19
Chapter 18: Regulation of Gene Expression
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Q1) Why are BRCA1 and BRCA2 considered to be tumor-suppressor genes?
A) Their normal products participate in repair of DNA damage.
B) The mutant forms of either one of these prevent breast cancer.
C) The normal genes make estrogen receptors.
D) They block penetration of breast cells by chemical carcinogens.
Q2) How does extracellular glucose inhibit transcription of the lac operon?
A) by strengthening the binding of the repressor to the operator
B) by weakening the binding of the repressor to the operator
C) by inhibiting RNA polymerase from opening the strands of DNA to initiate transcription
D) by reducing the levels of intracellular cAMP
Q3) In positive control of several sugar metabolism-related operons, the cAMP receptor protein (CRP) binds to DNA to stimulate transcription. Which of the following environmental conditions causes an increase in CRP activity in stimulating transcription?
A) an increase in glucose and an increase in cAMP
B) a decrease in glucose and an increase in cAMP
C) an increase in glucose and a decrease in cAMP
D) a decrease in glucose and a decrease in the repressor
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Viruses
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Q1) In many ways, the regulation of the genes of a particular group of viruses will be similar to the regulation of the host genes. Therefore, which of the following regulation mechanisms would you expect of the genes of a bacteriophage?
A) regulation via acetylation of histones
B) positive control mechanisms rather than negative
C) control of more than one gene in an operon
D) reliance on transcription activators
Q2) Why do scientists consider HIV to be an emerging virus?
A) HIV infected humans long before the 1980s, but it has now mutated to a deadlier form.
B) HIV mutates rapidly, making the virus very different from HIV in the early 1980s.
C) HIV suddenly became apparent and widespread in the 1980s.
D) HIV is now starting to cause diseases other than AIDS, such as rare types of cancers and pneumonias.
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Chapter 20: DNA Tools and Biotechnology
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Q1) What information is critical to the success of polymerase chain reaction (PCR) itself?
A) The DNA sequence of the ends of the DNA to be amplified must be known.
B) The complete DNA sequence of the DNA to be amplified must be known.
C) The sequence of restriction-enzyme recognition sites in the DNA to be amplified must be known.
D) The sequence of restriction-enzyme recognition sites in the DNA to be amplified and in the plasmid where the amplified DNA fragment will be cloned must be known.
Q2) How can a gene that contains introns be made shorter (but remain functional) for genetic engineering purposes?
A) using a restriction enzyme (endonuclease) to cut the gene into shorter pieces
B) using reverse transcriptase to reconstruct the gene from its mRNA
C) using DNA polymerase to reconstruct the gene from its polypeptide product
D) using DNA ligase to put together fragments of the DNA that code for a particular polypeptide
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22
Chapter 21: Genomes and Their Evolution
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Q1) How do transposons and retrotransposons differ in how they move around in a genome?
A) Transposons move by viruses and retrotransposons move by plasmids.
B) Transposons move by means of a DNA intermediate and retrotransposons move by means of an RNA intermediate.
C) Transposons move by means of a RNA intermediate and retrotransposons move by means of an DNA intermediate.
D) Transposons move by viruses and retrotransposons move by bacteria.
Q2) Why is sequencing of eukaryotic genomes more difficult than sequencing genomes of bacteria or archaea?
A) It is due to the large size of eukaryotic proteins.
B) Eukaryotic genomes contain sequences for hard-to-find proteins.
C) There is a high proportion of G-C base pairs in eukaryotic DNA, which makes sequencing difficult to complete.
D) The large size of eukaryotic genomes and the large amount of eukaryotic repetitive DNA make sequencing difficult.
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Chapter 22: Descent with Modification: A Darwinian View of Life
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Q1) Scientific theories ________.
A) are nearly the same things as hypotheses
B) are supported by, and make sense of, many observations
C) cannot be tested because the described events occurred only once D) are predictions of future events
Q2) Which of the following statements describe evolution?
A) Individuals evolve in response to their environment.
B) The match between organism and their environment decreases.
C) Natural selection chooses the most popular trait.
D) Quick changes occur in an individual's phenotype.
Q3) Which of the following factors could cause a surge in population size?
A) a decrease in available food
B) an increase in the number of predators
C) better eyesight evolves in the population
D) decreased camouflage evolves in the population
Q4) What must be true of any organ described as vestigial?
A) It must be analogous to some feature in an ancestor.
B) It must be homologous to some feature in an ancestor.
C) It must be both homologous and analogous to some feature in an ancestor.
D) It need be neither homologous nor analogous to some feature in an ancestor.
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Chapter 23: The Evolution of Populations
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Q1) The Dunkers are a religious group that moved from Germany to Pennsylvania in the mid-1700s. They do not marry with members outside their own immediate community. Today, the Dunkers are genetically unique and differ in gene frequencies, at many loci, from all other populations including those in their original homeland.
Which of the following mechanisms likely explains the genetic uniqueness of this population?
A) population bottleneck and Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium
B) heterozygote advantage and stabilizing selection
C) mutation and natural selection
D) founder effect and genetic drift
Q2) A biologist doing a long-term study on a wild spider population observes increased variation in silk thickness.
Which of the following could the spider population be experiencing?
A) directional selection
B) stabilizing selection
C) disruptive selection
D) genetic drift
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Chapter 24: The Origin of Species
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Q1) Two species of tree frogs that live sympatrically in the northeastern United States differ in ploidy: Hyla chrysoscelis is diploid, and Hyla versicolor is tetraploid. The frogs are identical in appearance, but their mating calls, which females use to find mates, differ. Which difference most likely evolved first?
A) polyploidy
B) difference in mating calls
C) habitat differentiation
D) Polyploidy and different mating calls must have evolved at the same time.
Q2) Which postzygotic barriers prevent formation of hybrids beyond the first generations?
A) increased hybrid vulnerability
B) increased hybrid fertility
C) hybrid breakdown
D) hybrid gamete isolation
Q3) How is length of time for speciation estimated?
A) genetic evidence indicates that species originate
B) time that elapses when populations of a newly formed species diverge
C) time it takes for speciation to be complete
D) speciation precedes divergence
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Page 26
Chapter 25: The History of Life on Earth
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Q1) How did the Cretaceous and Permian extinctions affect the numbers of prey organisms?
A) After the Permian extinction, the numbers or prey organisms increased then leveled off.
B) After the Cretaceous extinction, the number of predators continuously increased.
C) The Permian predators removed all Cretaceous predators.
D) Predators and prey decreased in numbers.
Q2) Which of the following is a limit of evolution that results in exaptations?
A) Natural selection and sexual selection can work at cross purposes to each other.
B) Evolution is limited by historical constraints.
C) Adaptations are often compromises.
D) Chance events affect the evolutionary history of populations in environments that can change unpredictably.
Q3) Which of the following would be least likely to appear in the fossil record?
A) burrowing species
B) marine-dwelling species
C) marsh-dwelling species
D) desert-dwelling species
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Chapter 26: Phylogeny and the Tree of Life
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Q1) The reason that paralogous genes can diverge from each other within the same gene pool, whereas orthologous genes diverge only after gene pools are isolated from each other, is that ________.
A) having multiple copies of genes is essential for the occurrence of sympatric speciation in the wild
B) paralogous genes can occur only in diploid species, thus they are absent from most prokaryotes
C) polyploidy is a necessary precondition for the occurrence of sympatric speciation in the wild
D) having an extra copy of a gene permits modifications to the copy without loss of the original gene product
Q2) Which statement represents the best explanation for the observation that the nuclear DNA of wolves and domestic dogs has a very high degree of sequence homology? Dogs and wolves ________.
A) have very similar morphologies
B) belong to the same order
C) are both members of the order Carnivora
D) share a very recent common ancestor
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Chapter 27: Bacteria and Archaea
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Q1) Mitochondria are thought to be the descendants of certain alpha proteobacteria. They are, however, no longer able to lead independent lives because most genes originally present on their chromosomes have moved to the nuclear genome. Which phenomenon accounts for the movement of these genes?
A) plasmolysis
B) conjugation
C) translation
D) horizontal gene transfer
Q2) Which of the following is least associated with the others?
A) horizontal gene transfer
B) conjugation
C) transformation
D) binary fission
Q3) Which of the following describe all existing bacteria?
A) pathogenic, omnipresent, morphologically diverse
B) extremophiles, tiny, abundant
C) tiny, ubiquitous, metabolically diverse
D) morphologically diverse, metabolically diverse, extremophiles
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Chapter 28: Protists
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Q1) When a mosquito infected with Plasmodium first bites a human, the Plasmodium
A) gametes fuse, forming an oocyst
B) cells infect the human liver cells
C) cells cause lysing of the human red blood cells
D) oocyst undergoes meiosis
Q2) You are given an unknown organism to identify. It is unicellular and heterotrophic. It is motile, using many short extensions of the cytoplasm, each featuring the 9 + 2 filament pattern. It has well-developed organelles and two nuclei, one large and one small. This organism is most likely to be a ________.
A) foraminiferan
B) radiolarian
C) ciliate
D) kinetoplastid
Q3) Prokaryotic and eukaryotic flagella ________.
A) have the same evolutionary origin
B) have different structures
C) require different sources of energy
D) contain their own DNA
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Page 30
Chapter 29: Plant Diversity I: How Plants Colonized Land
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Q1) If animals had alternation of generations like plants, ________.
A) they would have twice as rapid a population growth rate as compared to their current rates
B) the products of mitosis would undergo meiosis
C) the products of meiosis would immediately fuse to form a zygote and then undergo mitosis
D) the products of meiosis would undergo mitosis and become multicellular
Q2) The haploid gametophytes of bryophytes are ________.
A) multicellular, just like the haploid stages of animal species
B) multicellular and produce zygotes
C) usually composed of single cells, just like the gametes of mammals
D) usually multicellular, but one cell thick
Q3) Apical meristems ________.
A) occur only in shoots of plants
B) occur only in roots of plants
C) occur in both roots and shoots of plants
D) allow plants to move from one place to another
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Chapter 30: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants
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Q1) Use the information to answer the following question. Oviparous (egg-laying) animals have internal fertilization (sperm cells encounter eggs within the female's body). Yolk and/or albumen is (are) provided to the embryo, and a shell is then deposited around the embryo and its food source. Eggs are subsequently deposited in an environment that promotes their further development, or are incubated by one or both parents.
The shell of a fertilized animal egg has what type of analog in angiosperms?
A) endosperm
B) carpels
C) fruit
D) seed coat
Q2) In seed plants, which of the following is part of a pollen grain and has a function most like that of the seed coat?
A) sporophyll
B) sporopollenin
C) stigma
D) sporangium
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32
Chapter 31: Fungi
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Q1) At which stage of a basidiomycete's life cycle would reproduction be halted if an enzyme that prevented the fusion of hyphae was introduced?
A) fertilization
B) karyogamy
C) plasmogamy
D) germination
Q2) The most important adaptive advantage associated with the filamentous nature of fungal mycelia is
A) the ability to form haustoria and parasitize other organisms.
B) the potential to inhabit almost all terrestrial habitats.
C) the increased chance of contact between mating types.
D) an extensive surface area well suited for invasive growth and absorptive nutrition.
Q3) Arrange the following in order from largest to smallest, assuming that they all come from the same fungus.
A) mycelium, gill, basidiocarp, basidium, basidiospore
B) gill, basidiocarp, mycelium, basidium, basidiospore
C) gill, basidiocarp, basidiospore, basidium, mycelium
D) mycelium, basidiocarp, gill, basidium, basidiospore
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Chapter 32: An Overview of Animal Diversity
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Q1) Which of the following would you classify as something other than an animal?
A) sponge
B) coral
C) jellyfish
D) choanoflagellate
Q2) You find a new species of worm and want to classify it. Which of the following lines of evidence would allow you to classify the worm as a nematode and not an annelid?
A) It is segmented.
B) It is triploblastic.
C) It has a coelom.
D) It sheds its external skeleton to grow.
Q3) Evidence of which structure or characteristic would be most surprising to find among fossils of the Ediacaran fauna?
A) true tissues
B) hard parts
C) bilateral symmetry
D) embryos
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34
Chapter 33: An Introduction to Invertebrates
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Q1) The increase in plant species diversity allowed which of the following events?
A) the evolution of complete metamorphosis in insects
B) the evolution of flight in insects
C) invasion of marine habitats by insects
D) a massive increase in species diversity of insects
Q2) Use the following information to answer the question. The phylum Cycliophora was discovered in 1995. They are tiny organisms that live in large numbers on the outsides of the mouthparts and appendages of lobsters. The feeding stage permanently attaches to the lobster via an adhesive disk and collects scraps of food from its host's feeding by capturing the scraps in a current created by a ring of cilia. The body is saclike and has a U-shaped intestine that brings the anus close to the mouth. Cycliophorans are coelomates, do not molt (though their host does), and their embryos undergo spiral cleavage.
Which of these, if discovered among cycliophorans, would cause the most confusion concerning our current understanding of cycliophoran taxonomy?
A) if the ciliated feeding ring is a lophophore
B) if embryos are diploblastic
C) if the body cavity is actually a pseudocoelom
D) if the organisms show little apparent cephalization
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Chapter 34: The Origin and Evolution of Vertebrates
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Q1) To reproduce, many plants produce seeds-structures containing embryonic offspring along with nutrients inside a tough coat. These offspring develop after being released by the parent plant. To which animal reproductive "strategy" is seed production most comparable?
A) oviparous reproduction
B) ovoviviparous reproduction
C) viviparous reproduction
D) internal development and ballistic dispersal
Q2) Which of the following characteristics allowed early gnathostomes to become successful predators?
A) fins stiffened with bone that increased maneuverability and improved gas exchange through the skin
B) fins stiffened with bone that increased maneuverability and improved gas exchange in the gills
C) lobe fins that allowed temporary access to land and improved gas exchange through the skin
D) lobe fins that allowed temporary access to land and improved gas exchange in the gills
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Chapter 35: Vascular Plant Structure, Growth, and Development
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Q1) The polarity of a plant is established when ________.
A) cotyledons form at the shoot end of the embryo
B) the shoot-root axis is established in the embryo
C) the primary root breaks through the seed coat
D) the shoot first breaks through the soil into the light as the seed germinates
Q2) What is present in a shoot apical meristem region?
I. the region of cell division
II. immature buds and leaves
III. cells that will give rise to the protoderm, ground meristem, and procambium
A) only I
B) only II
C) only III
D) I, II, and III
Q3) Which of the following is correctly paired with its structure and function?
A) sclerenchyma-supporting cells with thick secondary walls
B) ground meristem-protective coat of woody stems and roots
C) guard cells-waterproof ring of cells surrounding the central stele in roots
D) periderm-parenchyma cells functioning in photosynthesis in leaves
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Chapter 36: Resource Acquisition and Transport in Vascular Plants
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Q1) Which one of the following statements about transport of nutrients in phloem is correct?
A) Solute particles are actively transported from phloem at the source.
B) Companion cells control the rate and direction of movement of phloem sap.
C) Differences in osmotic concentration at the source and sink cause a hydrostatic pressure gradient to be formed.
D) A sink is the part of a plant where a particular solute is produced.
Q2) Which of the following are important components of the long-distance transport process in plants?
I.the cohesion of water molecules
II.a negative water potential
III.the root parenchyma
IV.the active transport of solutes
V.bulk flow from source to sink
A) II, III, IV, and V
B) I, III, IV, and V
C) I, II, IV, and V
D) I, II, III, and V
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Chapter 37: Soil and Plant Nutrition
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Q1) Synthesis of which of the following compounds in a mature leaf would be least impacted by a temporary soil nitrogen deficiency?
A) DNA
B) RNA
C) amino acids
D) cellulose
Q2) Two groups of tomatoes were grown under laboratory conditions, one with humus added to the soil and one a control without humus. The leaves of the plants grown without humus were yellowish (less green) compared with those of the plants grown in humus-enriched soil. The best explanation is that
A) the healthy plants used the food in the decomposing leaves of the humus for energy to make chlorophyll.
B) the humus made the soil more loosely packed, so water penetrated more easily to the roots.
C) the humus contained minerals such as magnesium and iron needed for the synthesis of chlorophyll.
D) the heat released by the decomposing leaves of the humus caused more rapid growth and chlorophyll synthesis.
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Chapter 38: Angiosperm Reproduction and Biotechnology
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Q1) Use the following information to answer the question. The Brazil nut tree, Bertholletia excels (n = 17), is native to tropical rain forests of South America. It is a hardwood tree that can grow to over 50 meters tall, is a source of high-quality lumber, and is a favorite nesting site for harpy eagles. As the rainy season ends, tough-walled fruits, each containing 8-25 seeds (Brazil nuts), fall to the forest floor. Brazil nuts are composed primarily of endosperm. About $50 million worth of nuts are harvested each year. Scientists have discovered that the pale yellow flowers of Brazil nut trees cannot fertilize themselves and admit only female orchid bees as pollinators. The agouti (Dasyprocta spp.), a cat-sized rodent, is the only animal with teeth strong enough to crack the hard wall of Brazil nut fruits. It typically eats some of the seeds, buries others, and leaves still others inside the fruit, which moisture can now enter. The uneaten seeds may subsequently germinate.
Orchid bees are to Brazil nut trees as ________ are to pine trees.
A) breezes
B) rain droplets
C) seed-eating birds
D) squirrels
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Chapter 39: Plant Responses to Internal and External Signals
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Q1) Plant hormones ________.
A) in plant cells naturally exist in very large amounts
B) change their shape in response to stimulus
C) are unable to move from one cell to another D) affect only cells with the appropriate receptor
Q2) A population of plants experiences several years of severe drought. Much of the population dies due to lack of water, but a few individuals survive. You set out to discover the physiological basis for their adaptation to such an extreme environmental change. You hypothesize that the survivors have the ability to synthesize higher levels of ________ than their siblings do.
A) auxin
B) gibberellin
C) cytokinin
D) abscisic acid
Q3) Experiments on the positive phototropic response of plants indicate that ________.
A) light destroys auxin
B) auxin moves down the plant apoplastically
C) auxin is synthesized in the area where the stem bends
D) auxin can move to the shady side of the stem
Page 41
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Chapter 40: Basic Principles of Animal Form and Function
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Q1) Compared with a smaller cell, a larger cell of the same shape has ________.
A) less surface area
B) less surface area per unit of volume
C) a smaller average distance between its mitochondria and the external source of oxygen
D) a smaller cytoplasm-to-nucleus ratio
Q2) The metabolic breakdown of specialized brown fat deposits in certain animals is substantially increased during ________.
A) acclimatization
B) torpor
C) nonshivering thermogenesis
D) shivering thermogenesis
Q3) An elephant and a mouse are running in full sunlight, and both overheat by the same amount above their normal body temperatures. When they move into the shade and rest, which animal will cool down faster?
A) The elephant will because it has the higher surface-area-to-volume ratio.
B) The elephant will because it has the lower surface-area-to-volume ratio.
C) The mouse will because it has the higher surface-area-to-volume ratio.
D) They will cool at the same rate because they overheated by the same amount.
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Page 42
Chapter 41: Animal Nutrition
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Q1) Feelings of hunger can be stimulated by the hormone ________, but suppressed by the hormone ________.
A) insulin; glucagon
B) secretin; gastrin
C) pepsin; trypsin
D) ghrelin; PYY
Q2) If you found a vertebrate skull in the woods and the teeth were sharp and scissor-like, what type of food would you expect this animal to eat?
A) grass
B) flesh of another animal
C) nectar
D) blood
Q3) The digestion of ________ begins in the stomach.
A) protein
B) fat
C) nucleic acids
D) carbohydrates
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Page 43
Chapter 42: Circulation and Gas Exchange
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Q1) What would be the consequence if we were to reverse the direction of water flow over the gills of a fish, moving water inward past the operculum, past the gills, then out the mouth? This reversal of water flow would ________.
A) reduce efficiency of gas exchange
B) change the exchange of gases in the body from carbon dioxide out and oxygen in to carbon dioxide in and oxygen out
C) increase the efficiency of gas exchange
Q2) Large proteins such as albumin remain in capillaries rather than diffusing out, resulting in the ________.
A) loss of osmotic pressure in the capillaries
B) development of an osmotic pressure difference across capillary walls
C) loss of fluid from capillaries
D) increased diffusion of hemoglobin
Q3) Atrial systole ________.
A) occurs at the same time as ventricular diastole
B) pumps blood to the aorta
C) refers to the relaxation of the cardiac muscle
D) only occurs in the left heart chambers
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Chapter 43: The Immune System
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Q1) What major advantage is conveyed by having a system of adaptive immunity?
A) It enables a rapid defense against an antigen that has been previously encountered.
B) It enables an animal to counter most pathogens almost instantly the first time they are encountered.
C) It results in effector cells with specificity for a large number of antigens.
D) It allows for the destruction of antibodies.
Q2) Which of the following would help a virus avoid triggering an effective adaptive immune response?
I.having frequent mutations in genes for surface proteins
II.building the viral shell from host proteins
III.producing proteins very similar to those of other viruses
IV.infecting and killing helper T cells
A) only I and III
B) only I, II, and IV
C) only I, II, and III
D) only II, III, and IV
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Chapter 44: Osmoregulation and Excretion
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Q1) Unlike an earthworm's metanephridia, a mammalian nephron
A) is intimately associated with a capillary network.
B) functions in both osmoregulation and excretion.
C) receives filtrate from blood instead of coelomic fluid.
D) has a transport epithelium.
Q2) Among the following choices, the most concentrated urine is excreted by
A) frogs
B) kangaroo rats
C) humans
D) freshwater bass
Q3) Which of the following animals generally has the lowest volume of urine production?
A) vampire bat
B) salmon in fresh water
C) marine bony fish
D) freshwater flatworm
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Chapter 45: Hormones and the Endocrine System
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Q1) If a biochemist discovers a new molecule, which of the following pieces of data would allow her to draw the conclusion that the molecule is a steroid hormone?
I.The molecule is lipid soluble.
II.The molecule is derived from a series of steps beginning with cholesterol.
III.The molecule acts at a target tissue some distance from where it is produced.
IV.The molecule uses a transport protein when in an aqueous solution such as blood.
A) only I and III
B) only II and IV
C) only I, III, and IV
D) I, II, III, and IV
Q2) Analysis of a blood sample from a fasting individual who had not eaten for 24 hours would be expected to reveal high levels of ________.
A) insulin
B) glucagon
C) gastrin
D) glucose
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Chapter 46: Animal Reproduction
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Q1) In male mammals, excretory and reproductive systems share
A) the vas deferens.
B) the urethra.
C) the seminal vesicle.
D) the prostate.
Q2) Mature human sperm and ova are similar in that they ________.
A) both have the same number of chromosomes
B) are approximately the same size
C) each have a flagellum that provides motility
D) are produced from puberty until death
Q3) Once uterine contractions have begun, the female body releases several hormones that act in a positive feedback loop. The purpose of this feedback loop is ________.
A) to promote the development of a new follicle
B) to ensure continued contractions until labor is complete
C) inhibit the release of prostaglandins
D) decrease the number of oxytocin receptors in the uterus
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Chapter 47: Animal Development
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Q1) The first cavity formed during frog development is the ________.
A) blastopore
B) mouth
C) blastocoel
D) anus
Q2) At the moment of sperm penetration, human eggs ________.
A) have used flagellar propulsion to move from the ovary to the oviduct
B) are still located within the ovary
C) have a paper-thin cell of calcium carbonate that prevents desiccation
D) are still surrounded by follicular cells
Q3) Contact of a sea urchin egg with signal molecules on sperm causes the egg to undergo a brief ________.
A) mitosis
B) membrane depolarization
C) vitellogenesis
D) acrosomal reaction
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Chapter 48: Neurons, Synapses, and Signaling
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Q1) Suppose a particular neurotransmitter causes an IPSP in postsynaptic cell X and an EPSP in postsynaptic cell Y. A likely explanation is that
A) the threshold value in the postsynaptic membrane is different for cell X and cell Y.
B) the axon of cell X is myelinated, but that of cell Y is not.
C) only cell Y produces an enzyme that terminates the activity of the neurotransmitter.
D) cells X and Y express different receptor molecules for this particular neurotransmitter.
Q2) Neurotransmitters are released from axon terminals via ________.
A) osmosis
B) active transport
C) diffusion
D) exocytosis
Q3) The "undershoot" phase of hyperpolarization is due to ________.
A) slow opening of voltage-gated sodium channels
B) sustained opening of voltage-gated potassium channels
C) rapid opening of voltage-gated calcium channels
D) slow restorative actions of the sodium-potassium ATPase
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Chapter 49: Nervous Systems
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Q1) Stem cell transplants may someday be used to treat Parkinson's disease. Researchers are hopeful that these cells would alleviate the symptoms of Parkinson's disease by ________.
A) preventing temporal lobe seizures
B) repairing sites of traumatic brain injury
C) replenishing missing ion channels
D) secreting the neurotransmitter dopamine
Q2) Increases and decreases of the heart rate result from changes in the activity of the ________.
A) medulla oblongata
B) thalamus
C) pituitary
D) cerebellum
Q3) For long-term potentiation to occur in the hippocampus, ________.
A) a presynaptic neuron must release more acetylcholine neurotransmitter into the synapse
B) NMDA receptors must be unblocked so that they can respond to glutamate
C) the postsynaptic cell responds to glutamate by opening AMPA receptors
D) the presynaptic cell must grow more axon terminals to synapse with the dendrites of the postsynaptic cell.
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Chapter 50: Sensory and Motor Mechanisms
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Q1) The venom of cobras contains a mixture of substances that have a variety of physiological effects. One substance in the venom works by preventing acetylcholine from binding to muscle receptors. How does the venom affect the prey of the cobra?
A) Action potentials would be continuously generated, causing convulsive muscle contractions.
B) Muscle contractions would be prevented, causing paralysis.
C) Muscle contractions could still occur, but relaxation of the muscle would be impaired.
D) Action potentials would be continuously generated, causing convulsive muscle contractions; muscle contractions would then be prevented, causing paralysis.
Q2) Sensory transduction of light in the vertebrate retina is accomplished by ________.
A) ganglion cells
B) amacrine cells
C) bipolar cells
D) rods and cones
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Chapter 51: Animal Behavior
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Q1) A male stickleback fish will attack other male sticklebacks that invade its nesting territory. It will only attack male fish, which display the red belly characteristic of the species. Why has natural selection favored this behavior?
A) The behavior reduces competition between species, which gives the male stickleback access to more food.
B) The behavior allows the male stickleback to attract females with its aggressive display.
C) The behavior allows the male to establish a defined space for breeding with female sticklebacks.
D) The behavior is a mechanism to reduce predation and resource competition.
Q2) A stickleback fish will attack a fish model as long as the model has red coloring. What animal behavior idea is manifested by this observation?
A) sign stimulus
B) cognition
C) imprinting
D) classical conditioning
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Chapter 52: An Introduction to Ecology and the Biosphere
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Q1) Which aquatic biome listed here is one of the most productive on Earth, and why?
A) deep-sea vent, warm water temperatures
B) coral reef, diversity of organisms
C) wetlands, nutrient rich high-moisture soils
D) oligotrophic lake, clear water for light penetration
Q2) Wetlands are standing bodies of freshwater, just like lakes and ponds. However, wetlands are different from lakes and ponds because wetlands have ________.
A) emergent vegetation
B) oxygen-poor water
C) shallow water and emergent vegetation
D) emergent vegetation and oxygen-poor water
Q3) Turnover of water in temperate lakes during the spring and fall is caused by which of the following?
A) warm, less dense water layered at the top
B) cold, more dense water layered at the bottom
C) a distinct thermocline between less dense, warm water and cold, dense water
D) the changes in the density of water as seasonal temperatures change
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Chapter 53: Population Ecology
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Q1) Population ecologists follow the fate of same-age cohorts to A) determine a population's carrying capacity.
B) determine the birth rate and death rate of each group in a population.
C) determine if a population is regulated by density-dependent processes.
D) determine the factors that affect the size of a population.
Q2) Based on current growth rates, Earth's human population in 2019 will be closest to A) 2.5 million.
B) 4.5 billion.
C) 7.5 billion.
D) 10.5 billion.
Q3) Starting from a single individual, what is the size of a population of bacteria at the end of a 2-hour time period if they reproduce by binary fission every 20 minutes? (Assume unlimited resources and no mortality.)
A) 16
B) 32
C) 64
D) 128
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Chapter 54: Community Ecology
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Q1) Which of the following studies would a community ecologist undertake to learn about competitive interactions?
I.selectivity of nest sites among cavity-nesting songbirds
II. the grass species preferred by grazing pronghorn antelope and bison
III.stomach analysis of brown trout and brook trout in streams where they coexist
A) only I and II
B) only I and III
C) only II and III
D) I, II, and III
Q2) Which of the following could qualify as a top-down control on a grassland community?
A) limitation of plant biomass by rainfall amount
B) influence of temperature on competition among plants
C) influence of soil nutrients on the abundance of grasses versus wildflowers
D) effect of grazing intensity by bison on plant species diversity
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Chapter 55: Ecosystems and Restoration Ecology
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Q1) Which of the following organisms is incorrectly paired with its trophic level?
A) cyanobacterium-primary producer
B) grasshopper-primary consumer
C) zooplankton-primary producer
D) fungus-detritivore
Q2) Which of the following is primarily responsible for limiting the number of trophic levels in most ecosystems?
A) Many primary and higher-order consumers are opportunistic feeders.
B) Decomposers compete with higher-order consumers for nutrients and energy.
C) Nutrient cycling rates tend to be limited by decomposition.
D) Energy transfer between trophic levels is usually less than 20 percent efficient.
Q3) If the flow of energy in an arctic ecosystem goes through a simple food chain, perhaps involving humans, starting from phytoplankton to zooplankton to fish to seals to polar bears, then which of the following could be accurate?
A) Polar bears can provide more food for humans than seals can.
B) The total biomass of the fish is lower than that of the seals.
C) Seal populations are larger than fish populations.
D) Fish can potentially provide more food for humans than seal meat.
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Chapter 56: Conservation Biology and Global Change
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Q1) Which of the following criteria have to be met for a species to qualify as invasive?
A) endemic to the area, spreads rapidly, and displaces foreign species
B) introduced to a new area, spreads rapidly, and displaces native species
C) introduced to a new area, spreads rapidly, and displaces other invasive species
D) endemic to the area, spreads slowly, and displaces native species
Q2) Which of the following statements about protected areas that have been established to preserve biodiversity is correct?
A) About 25 percent of Earth's land area is now protected.
B) Developing nations have a larger ecological footprint than developed nations, thus protected areas should be primarily established in developing nations.
C) Management of a protected area should be coordinated with management of the land surrounding the area.
D) It is only important to protect land within biodiversity hot spots.
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