Foundations of Biology Exam Preparation Guide
Course Introduction
Foundations of Biology offers a comprehensive introduction to the principles and concepts underlying the study of living organisms. The course covers the structure and function of cells, genetics and inheritance, molecular biology, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of life. Students will explore how biological processes operate on both microscopic and macroscopic levels, gaining an understanding of how organisms interact with each other and their environments. Emphasis is placed on scientific inquiry, experimental design, and critical thinking skills necessary for further study in the biological sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Biology A Guide to the Natural World 5th Edition by David Krogh
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Science As a Way of Learning: a Guide to the Natural World
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Sample Questions
Q1) The experiments of Louis Pasteur to disprove spontaneous generation illustrate the process of the scientific method.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Which of the following is the correct order of complexity,going from least to most complex?
A)atom, molecule, organelle, cell, tissue, organ
B)organ, tissue, cell, organelle, atom, molecule
C)organ, tissue, cell, organelle, molecule, atom
D)molecule, atom, organ, tissue, cell, organelle
E)atom, molecule, organelle, cell, organ, tissue
Answer: A
Q3) Explain the difference between a theory and a hypothesis,and give an example of each.
Answer: A hypothesis is a statement of fact yet to be proven,whereas a theory is based on much work and compelling evidence.Student examples will vary.Theories could include the Big Bang,evolution,atomic theory,relativity,etc.
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Chapter 2: Fundamental Building Blocks: Chemistry,
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Sample Questions
Q1) Atoms with eight electrons in their outer shells tend to:
A)form covalent bonds.
B)form ionic bonds.
C)be chemically reactive.
D)be stable and unreactive.
Answer: D
Q2) As an acid mixes in water:
A)the number of hydroxide ions will increase.
B)the number of hydrogen ions will increase.
C)the pH remains at 7.
D)it becomes buffered.
Answer: B
Q3) Atoms are electrically neutral.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) A single covalent chemical bond represents a sharing of ________ electrons between two atoms.
Answer: two
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Chapter 3: Lifes Components: Biological Molecules
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Sample Questions
Q1) A functional group added to a hydrocarbon usually makes the hydrocarbon:
A)nonpolar.
B)hydrophobic.
C)polar.
D)acidic.
E)an isomer.
Answer: C
Q2) Glycogen is used to store ________ in the ________.
A)protein; muscle
B)protein; liver
C)nucleic acids; liver
D)glucose; spleen
E)glucose; liver
Answer: E
Q3) What do wax and testosterone have in common?
A)They are both hormones.
B)They are both proteins.
C)They are both steroids.
D)They are both lipids.
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Lifes Home: the Cell
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following describes the difference between the cytoplasm and the cytosol?
A)The cytoplasm is the region inside the plasma membrane but outside the nucleus, whereas the cytosol is the fluid medium inside the cell.
B)The cytoplasm is the region inside the plasma membrane that includes the nucleus, whereas the cytosol is the fluid medium inside the cell.
C)The cytoplasm is the fluid medium inside the cell, whereas the cytosol is the region outside the nucleus.
D)The cytoplasm is the region only outside the nucleus, and the cytosol is the region only inside the nucleus.
Q2) ________ are the fundamental units of life.
A)Organelles
B)Tissues
C)Cells
D)Organisms
Q3) Every form of life is either a single cell or is composed of cells.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Lifes Border: the Plasma Membrane
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Sample Questions
Q1) Yeast cells take up glucose (a sugar)to use as their primary source of energy.Typically,glucose concentrations outside yeast cells are far lower than glucose concentrations inside the cells.Therefore,for yeast to take up glucose,the cells must use:
A)facilitated diffusion to move glucose down its concentration gradient.
B)active transport to move glucose up its concentration gradient.
C)facilitated diffusion to move glucose up its concentration gradient.
D)active transport to move glucose down its concentration gradient.
E)osmosis to directly absorb glucose.
Q2) The huge array of capabilities of the plasma membrane are performed by its: A)carbohydrates.
B)proteins.
C)phospholipids.
D)cholesterol.
Q3) The chief component of the plasma membrane is the phospholipid bilayer.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Diffusion occurs because of random molecular movement.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Lifes Mainspring: an Introduction to Energy
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Sample Questions
Q1) It has been hypothesized that,if the sun disappeared,all life would end.Other than the obvious drop in temperature,why would humans probably die if the sun suddenly stopped shining?
Q2) Enzymes themselves are altered in the process of catalyzing chemical transformations.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In allosteric enzyme regulation,which of the following is false about the molecules that can inhibit enzyme activity?
A)They can cause the active site to have a poor shape for binding substrate.
B)They can increase substrate binding.
C)They cause a change in the enzyme's shape.
D)They can bind to a site other than the active site.
Q4) Energy present in a system that is not usable to do work relates to the system's:
A)thermodynamics.
B)equilibrium.
C)work.
D)entropy.
E)temperature.
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Chapter 7: Vital Harvest: Deriving Energy From Food
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following types of foods can be oxidized by aerobic respiration?
A)only glucose
B)only fats
C)only proteins
D)only glucose and fats
E)glucose, fats, and proteins
Q2) The three main products of glycolysis are:
A)ATP, NAD , and CO .
B)ATP, pyruvic acid, and CO .
C)ATP, NADH, and CO .
D)ATP. NADH, and pyruvic acid.
E)NAD , pyruvic acid, and CO .
Q3) In which of the following reactions is reduction taking place?
A)NAD NADH
B)FADH FAD
C)NADH NAD
Q4) The most important electron carrier in cellular respiration is ________.
Q5) ________ means "sugar splitting."
Q6) The three-carbon ________ combines with coenzyme A to form ________.
Q7) The electron transport chain occurs in the ________ of the mitochondria.
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Chapter 8: The Green Worlds Gift: Photosynthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The site of photosynthesis in a cell is the:
A)mitochondrion.
B)central vacuole.
C)stomata.
D)chloroplast.
Q2) If something is oxidized,it loses electrons.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Most plant leaves appear green because they absorb green light.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following types of plants would most likely be found in the Mojave Desert?
A)CAM
B)C
C)C
D)CAM, C , and C would all be equally likely in this environment.
Q5) Only plants can carry out photosynthesis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: The Links in Lifes Chain: Genetics and Cell Division
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is being separated during anaphase of mitosis?
A)plasma membranes
B)sister chromatids
C)nuclear membranes
D)cytoplasm
Q2) The study of physical inheritance among living things is:
A)proteomics.
B)genomics.
C)genetics.
D)reproduction.
Q3) The sequence of events from the birth of a cell to when it divides describes the
Q4) Which of the following structures is involved in forming a cleavage furrow?
A)sister chromatids
B)mitotic spindle
C)metaphase plate
D)contractile ring
Q5) During which phase of mitosis are the chromosomes aligned along the equator of the cell? Predict what would happen if a cell completed mitosis without first lining up all the chromosomes in the middle of the cell.
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Chapter 10: Preparing for Sexual Reproduction: Meiosis
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Q1) A gamete from a human male contains:
A)23 autosomes and an X chromosome.
B)22 autosomes, one X chromosome, and one Y chromosome.
C)23 autosomes and either an X or a Y chromosome.
D)23 autosomes and a Y chromosome.
E)22 autosomes and either an X or a Y chromosome.
Q2) In humans,which cells undergo meiosis?
A)polar bodies
B)oogonia and spermatogonia
C)zygotes
D)primary oocytes and spermatocytes
E)sperm and eggs
Q3) Bacteria (prokaryotes)divide by ________ reproduction,and eukaryotes reproduce by ________ reproduction.
A)sexual; asexual
B)either asexual or sexual; either asexual or sexual
C)sexual; either asexual or sexual
D)asexual; both asexual and sexual
E)asexual; sexual
Q4) Once produced,a zygote will divide by ________ to develop into a whole organism.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: The First Geneticist: Mendel and His Discoveries
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Q1) In Mendel's pea plants,yellow seeds are dominant to green seeds.Purple flowers are dominant to white flowers.Use Y and y for the seed color alleles and P and p for the flower color alleles.Flower color and seed color assort independently.A plant of unknown genotype with yellow seeds and purple flowers is crossed to a plant with green seeds and white flowers.The offspring all have yellow seeds,but some have purple flowers,and some have white flowers.What is the genotype of the yellow-seeded,purple-flowered plant?
A)YyPp
B)YYPp
C)YyPP
D)YYPP
E)Yypp
Q2) If an individual has genotype AaBb,how many different gametes can he or she produce? What combinations of alleles are possible?
Q3) The phenotype of an organism can be influenced by:
A)its genotype.
B)its environment.
C)both its environment and its genotype.
D)neither its genotype nor its environment.
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Chapter 12: Units of Heredity: Chromosomes and Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person with an inherited disorder has children with a person who does not have the condition.Half the children have the disorder,both sons and daughters.How is this condition inherited?
A)autosomal dominant
B)autosomal recessive
C)X-linked dominant
D)X-linked recessive
E)aneuploidy
Q2) A trait such as albinism is seen with equal frequency in males and females.Two people who do not have the trait might have offspring who do have the trait,at a frequency of approximately one in four.What can you conclude about the inheritance of this trait?
A)recessive, X-linked
B)recessive, autosomal
C)recessive, caused by polyploidy
D)dominant, X-linked
E)dominant, autosomal
Q3) Polyploidy is better tolerated in plants than in animals.
A)True
B)False
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Passing on Lifes Information: Dna Structure and Replication
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which information was determined about DNA based on X-ray diffraction data?
A)Each gene encodes one enzyme.
B)There are four different bases on the nucleotides.
C)Point mutations change a single location in the genome.
D)DNA has a helical structure.
E)Chromosomes are made of DNA.
Q2) Which of the following would be considered an environmental mutagen?
A)free radicals
B)ultraviolet light
C)spontaneous events
D)the collision of water molecules with DNA
E)DNA replication errors
Q3) It was primarily the X-ray diffraction work on DNA done by ________ that allowed Watson and Crick to deduce the structure of DNA.
A)Louis Pasteur
B)Gregor Mendel
C)Rosalind Franklin
D)T)H. Morgan
Q4) A mutation involving a single base pair in the genome is called a ________.
Page 15
Q5) Describe what happens to the two parent strands of DNA during DNA replication.
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Chapter 14: How Proteins Are Made: Genetic Transcription, translation, and Regulation
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Q1) What are the different types of RNA that are found in a cell,and what are their functions?
Q2) tRNAs will move from the A site to the P site to the E site during protein synthesis.These sites are found in:
A)mRNA.
B)tRNA.
C)the large ribosomal subunit.
D)the small ribosomal subunit.
E)the nucleus.
Q3) If a codon is three nucleotides and there are four different nucleotides,how many different codons can be made?
A)3
B)12
C)28
D)64
E)120
Q4) In translation,when an incoming tRNA with the next amino acid comes into the ribosome,it enters the ________ site,while the tRNA with the growing polypeptide chain is located in the ________ site.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: The Future Isnt What It Used to Be: Biotechnology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Forensic DNA typing can prove the innocence of a crime suspect.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Tobacco plants have had a gene from fireflies inserted into them which makes them glow.These tobacco plants would be considered: A)mutants.
B)transgenic organisms.
C)clones.
D)vectors.
Q3) Through the process of ________,a cell will incorporate genetic material from outside itself.
Q4) More than one restriction enzyme can be used to cut a piece of DNA at a time.If you used the restriction enzyme BamHI,which recognizes the sequence GGATCC (shown in the figure),as well as another enzyme that recognizes the sequence AATT,how many DNA fragments would be produced from the DNA strand shown?
A)two
B)three
C)four
D)five
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Chapter 16: An Introduction to Evolution: Charles Darwin, evolutionary Thought, and the Evidence for Evolution
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Q1) Scientists may compare similar genes in different species and determine what percentage of base pairs is identical.From this,it can be estimated how long ago the two species shared a common ancestor.The validity of this conclusion depends on an important assumption.This assumption is that:
A)mutations occur at a fairly constant rate in all evolutionary lines.
B)all living things use the same genetic code.
C)the gene codes for a functional protein.
D)both species belong to the same kingdom.
Q2) A population of deer was threatened with overpopulation until cheetahs were imported.After a couple of years,there were fewer deer,but the average running speed of the deer had increased.This is an example of:
A)natural selection.
B)mutation.
C)inheritance of acquired characteristics.
D)genetic drift.
Q3) The scientist in Darwin's time who championed the idea of the inheritance of acquired characteristics was ________.
Q4) The use of radioactive elements to date geological specimens is called ________.
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Q5) The length of time that Darwin's round-the-world voyage took was about ________.
Chapter 17: The Means of Evolution: Microevolution
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Q1) Disruptive selection operates whenever:
A)a phenotype is more successful because it is rare.
B)natural selection is disrupted by genetic drift.
C)the extremes in a distribution of phenotypes are more fit than the average.
D)only the largest individuals survive.
Q2) The mate-attracting elaborate plumage of the male peacock is a result of:
A)genetic drift.
B)adaptation to the environment.
C)sexual selection.
D)gene flow.
Q3) Two nearby populations in which there is some movement of individuals between the populations are an example of:
A)disruptive selection.
B)bottleneck effect.
C)genetic drift.
D)gene flow.
Q4) The original source of variation within a population comes from ________.
Q5) ________ characters are continuously variable.
Q6) List five mechanisms by which gene frequencies in a population can be altered.Describe each briefly.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: The Outcomes of Evolution: Macroevolution
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Q1) Speciation can never occur unless populations become separated by a geographic barrier.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which field of biology is concerned with the diversity and relatedness of organisms?
A)evolution
B)morphology
C)systematics
D)phylogeny
Q3) Which of these taxonomic categories is more inclusive than family and less inclusive than class?
A)genus
B)order
C)kingdom
D)domain
Q4) The taxonomic science that stresses the presence of shared derived characters in related organisms is called ________.
Q5) The wings of a bird and the wings of a butterfly are the result of ________ evolution.
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Chapter 19: A Slow Unfolding: the History of Life on Earth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which group of animals is the most recent to evolve?
A)invertebrates
B)amphibians
C)reptiles
D)mammals
Q2) Because there would not have been any significant soil before significant establishment of life-forms on land,the earliest eukaryotic life-forms on land most likely were:
A)animals.
B)fungi.
C)plant-fungi combinations.
D)plant-animal combinations.
Q3) During which of these eras were dinosaurs dominant?
A)Paleozoic
B)Precambrian
C)Mesozoic
D)Cenozoic
Q4) The first single-celled organisms appeared around 3.5 ________ years ago.
Q5) Compare and contrast the life-forms found in Domains Bacteria,Archaea,and Eukarya.
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Chapter 20: Arriving Late,traveling Far: the Evolution of Human Beings
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Q1) Hominins migrated from Africa,through Asia,all the way to Australia.
A)True
B)False
Q2) How long ago did Australopithecus afarensis live?
A)50,000-100,000 years ago
B)500,000 years ago
C)about 2.2 million years ago
D)about 3.2 million years ago
Q3) The closest living primate relative to humans is the gorilla.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Modern humans are classified as belonging to the species ________.
Q5) Which of the following is least important in deciding whether a fossil should be classified as a hominin?
A)bipedalism
B)slope of the face
C)brain size
D)tooth structure
Q7) The ability for a hominin to walk upright is referred to as ________. Page 22
Q6) The first wave of modern human migration out of Africa began about ________.
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Chapter
Diversity of Life 1
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Q1) The main decomposers on Earth are the:
A)viruses and protists.
B)plants and animals.
C)bacteria and fungi.
D)plants and fungi.
Q2) Cells such as those of golden algae that form stable associations but do not take on specialized roles are described as:
A)incomplete unicellular.
B)selective multicellularity.
C)true multicellularity.
D)colonial multicellularity.
Q3) Organisms called plasmodial slime molds move by which process?
A)beating of cilia
B)cytoplasmic streaming
C)contractile cytoskeleton movements
D)growth in the direction of sunlight
Q4) Some protists have locomotor extensions called ________ and ________.
Q5) Bacteria are the smallest living things known.
A)True
B)False
Page 24
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Chapter 22: Fungi: the Diversity of Life 2
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Q1) Each nucleus is haploid in dikaryotic cells in certain fungi.What does this mean regarding the chromosomes in each nucleus?
Q2) Fungi obtain food by:
A)engulfing food through phagocytosis and then digesting it within fungal cells.
B)producing antibiotics that internally destroy bacteria.
C)photosynthesis.
D)absorbing predigested material.
Q3) Nearly all fungi reproduce using mushrooms as their reproductive structure. A)True
B)False
Q4) Fungi and plants have a long-term relationship in the history of life on Earth.Appraise the evidence in support of this concept.
Q5) The two most closely related groups of fungi are the:
A)zygomycetes and chytrids.
B)basidiomycetes and ascomycetes.
C)basidiomycetes and zygomycetes.
D)ascomycetes and zygomycetes.
Q6) Most of the "body" of a fungus consists of slender,tube-like filaments called
Page 25
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Chapter 23: Animals: the Diversity of Life 3
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Q1) The structure in cnidarians with both digestive and circulation functions is the ________.
Q2) Platyhelminthes is the first phylum to possess a coelom.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A characteristic that is common to cnidarians is:
A)an osculum.
B)a medusa stage in the life cycle.
C)that they create coral reefs.
D)stinging cells.
E)a complete digestive tract.
Q4) Nearly all echinoderms are found in which habitat?
A)lakes
B)rivers
C)beaches
D)ocean surface
E)ocean floor
Q5) Sponges acquire food by ________ as water passes through.
Q6) What are the benefits and challenges of an exoskeleton?
Q7) Animals that do not have a backbone are called ________.
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Chapter 24: Plants: the Diversity of Life 4
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Q1) Horsetails are a type of seedless vascular plant.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The reserve food in angiosperm seeds is stored in a special tissue called:
A)nectar.
B)the sporophyte.
C)endosperm.
D)the seed coat.
Q3) In some areas of the world where there are large numbers of pines,everything is covered in the spring with a yellow dust that turns out,upon examination,to be pine pollen.Why must conifers produce so much pollen,and why do we not see as much pollen produced by a field of flowers?
Q4) Endosperm is the nutritional tissue found within a seed.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In general,a seed is a:
A)protected plant embryo with a food supply.
B)reproductive structure that requires pollen to become active.
C)a large spore that grows into the gametophyte.
D)plant ovary.
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Chapter 25: The Angiosperms: Form and Function in Flowering Plants
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Q1) A ring of vascular bundles in a stem is characteristic of: A)monocots.
B)many dicots.
C)both monocots and dicots.
D)non-flowering seed plants.
Q2) The trap of a carnivorous plant such as the Venus flytrap is what plant structure?
A)stem
B)leaf
C)fruit
D)flower
Q3) The male gametophyte generation develops largely within pollen grains of angiosperms.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The force that moves water through xylem is provided by: A)gravity.
B)transpiration.
C)osmosis.
D)active transport.
28
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Chapter 26: Body Support and Movement: the
Integumentary, skeletal, and Muscular Systems
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Q1) Which human body system would be best described as playing roles in both waste disposal and conservation?
A)cardiovascular
B)nervous
C)urinary
D)lymphatic
E)respiratory
Q2) Structures of the skeletal system include all of the following except: A)bone.
B)cartilage.
C)nails.
D)ligaments.
Q3) Which of the following systems are involved in coordination and regulation?
A)nervous and endocrine
B)digestive and cardiovascular
C)urinary and cardiovascular
D)lymphatic and respiratory
Q4) The abdominopelvic cavity is part of the larger ventral body cavity.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: Communication and Control 1: the Nervous System
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Q1) Which of the following best describes the structural aspect of the cerebral cortex?
A)a thin band of gray matter making the outer layer of the cerebrum
B)a thick band of white matter making the outer layer of the cerebrum
C)a core of fast, myelinated axons in the interior of the brain
D)a cap of white matter over the spinal cord, made mostly of the thalamus
Q2) Which part of the human eye detects colored light?
A)enzymes in ganglion cells
B)rhodopsin molecules
C)aqueous humor
D)cones
E)cornea
Q3) A person is diagnosed with a brain tumor that is treated with radiation.The treatment is successful,but the doctor believes some brain damage occurred.The patient is constantly complaining of being thirsty,even though she has had plenty of water to drink.Which part of the brain is damaged in this patient and why?
Q4) Different parts of the tongue are responsive to different tastes.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which part of the brain is probably most involved with dreaming?
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Chapter 28: Communication and Control 2: the Endocrine System
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Q1) The hormone that stimulates mammary gland development and milk production is
Q2) Which of the following is a steroid hormone?
A)glucagon
B)T4 from the thyroid
C)adrenaline
D)melatonin
E)estrogen
Q3) Steroid hormones generally work by:
A)attaching to membrane receptors and triggering chemical reactions.
B)passing into the cell and attaching to receptors inside.
C)triggering an action potential in the cell.
D)triggering an influx of potassium ions.
E)stimulating endocytosis of hormones and receptors.
Q4) Long ago,the pituitary gland was nicknamed the "master gland" of the endocrine system.Based on what you have learned from this section,provide an argument for why this nickname is undeserved or at least less deserved.
Q5) Follicle-stimulating hormone stimulates thyroid gland follicles to produce T .
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 29: Defending the Body: the Immune System
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Q1) Which of the following is an autoimmune disease?
A)AIDS
B)type 1 diabetes
C)allergies
D)anaphylactic shock
Q2) Histamine causes which of the following?
A)TLR production
B)increased permeability and dilation of blood vessels
C)antibody production
D)complement protein production
E)the anti-inflammatory response
Q3) Immune therapy research with potential to work in alleviating both organ rejection and autoimmune disease involves:
A)antibodies.
B)regulatory T cells.
C)vaccines.
D)cytotoxic T cell action.
Q4) Cowpox inoculation worked as a somewhat effective vaccine against smallpox because its viral particles were similar enough in ________ to smallpox viral particles.
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Chapter 30: Transport and Exchange 1: Blood and Breath
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Q1) An athletic friend of yours recently had a blood test,asked for a copy of the report,and looked up numbers for his "total cholesterol," or combined LDL/HDL numbers.An online source lists his total as slightly high.He says,"My doctor's a quack! He told me my cholesterol was fine!" You press your friend for more details and come to understand that his LDL levels are within the healthy range,but his HDL levels are higher than average.What do you say to your friend to help him understand his doctor's comments?
Q2) Veins always carry blood:
A)toward the heart.
B)toward the capillaries.
C)away from the lungs.
D)away from the heart.
Q3) Arteries always carry blood that is oxygen rich.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Veins are smaller blood vessels than capillaries.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which drawing,A,B,or C,depicts a formed element involved in gas exchange?
Page 33
Q6) Which blood vessels carry blood away from the heart?
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Chapter 31: Transport and Exchange 2: Digestion, nutrition, and Elimination
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Q1) In what way are the essential amino acids different from nonessential amino acids?
A)Nonessential amino acids are not necessary for any proteins we make.
B)Nonessential amino acids are not absorbed by the digestive tract.
C)Essential amino acids cannot be made and must be obtained from food.
D)Essential amino acids are the ones exclusively used to make enzymes.
Q2) Which of the following is an accessory organ in the digestive system?
A)the skin
B)the lungs
C)the pancreas
D)the kidneys
Q3) Which of the following is a complex carbohydrate that cannot be digested?
A)disaccharides
B)starches
C)high fructose corn syrup
D)fibers
Q4) Minerals are always chemical elements,not compounds.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which nutrient has the highest caloric content?
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Chapter 32: An Amazingly Detailed Script: Animal Development
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Q1) During cleavage,the vegetal pole of a frog egg contains larger cells than the animal pole.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Even small concentrations of bicoid protein will cause the anterior portion of an organism to form there.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In chickens,the wings develop from a zone of polarizing activity (ZPA).
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which characteristic is typical of the vegetal pole of an embryo?
A)The vegetal pole is composed of a single, large cell.
B)The vegetal pole is always hollow.
C)The vegetal pole contains relatively less yolk.
D)The vegetal pole has a relatively greater proportion of yolk.
E)The vegetal pole is the site of the development of the mouth.
Q5) A zygote with animal and vegetal poles demonstrates what characteristic of some animal zygotes?
Q6) During gastrulation in sea urchins,which forms first,the mouth or the anus? Page 35
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Chapter 33: How the Baby Came to Be: Human Reproduction
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Q1) Corpus luteum translates as "yellow body."
A)True
B)False
Q2) Normally,anywhere from one to four sperm fertilize the egg.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Fallopian tube is another name for the uterine tube.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Propose reasons to explain why the female reproductive system evolved a menstrual cycle,but the male system does not adhere to any kind of true cycle.
Q5) A man has been experiencing reduced urine flow problems.After examination by his doctor,the diagnosis is an enlarged prostate gland.What is the connection between prostate enlargement and reduced urine flow?
A)The prostate is located where the ureters enter the bladder.
B)The prostate surrounds the urethra, the tube that transmits sperm and urine.
C)An enlarged prostate is a sign of cancer that affects the kidneys.
D)An enlarged prostate is a sign of cancer that affects the bladder.
Q6) Which item,A,B,C,D,or E,is a secondary spermatocyte?
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Chapter 34: An Interactive Living World 1: Populations in Ecology
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Q1) If a population's death rate is 5 percent and birth rate is 10 percent,its r value would be:
A)15 percent.
B)5 percent.
C)50 percent.
D)essentially zero.
Q2) What is the total fertility rate number associated with zero population growth,and why?
Q3) The carrying capacity of an environment can cause a population initially growing very quickly to level off,resulting in an S-shaped curve.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Most K-selected species have short generation times.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Define the term biosphere.
Q6) Why are K-selected species also known as equilibrium species?
Page 38
Q7) The intrinsic rate of increase of a population is usually referred to as "r."
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 35: An Interactive Living World 2: Communities in Ecology
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Q1) Keystone species are:
A)always at the top of the food chain.
B)always the most numerous.
C)never at the top of the food chain.
D)might be of any number, anywhere on the food chain.
Q2) Ecological dominants are always the most abundant members of a community.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An interaction between species in which one benefits and the other is essentially unaffected is ________.
Q4) A community is a more inclusive category than a population.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The graph indicated by a "1" demonstrates which principle of community ecology?
A)biodiversity
B)ecological dominants
C)facilitation
D)resource partitioning
E)competitive exclusion
Page 40
Q6) What is the relationship between a biodiversity and geographic diversity?
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Chapter 36: An Interactive Living World 3: Ecosystems and Biomes
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Q1) Why are nitrogen and the nitrogen cycle important to living things?
A)Nitrogen is an essential part of all organic molecules.
B)Nitrogen is an essential part of proteins, RNA, and DNA.
C)Nitrogen is an important biotic component of ecosystems.
D)The release of nitrogen from fossil fuels counteracts global warming.
E)The release of nitrogen during cellular respiration contributes to global warming.
Q2) A dung beetle is an example of a:
A)producer.
B)primary consumer.
C)secondary consumer.
D)tertiary consumer.
E)detritivore.
Q3) Which of the following was historically considered to be the biggest limiting factor in worldwide food production up until the last century?
A)nitrogen
B)carbon
C)seed availability
D)land
Q4) The ozone layer is found in which layer of the atmosphere?
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