Foundations of Biology Exam Preparation Guide - 2312 Verified Questions
Chapter 9: Nucleic Acid Structure, DNA Replication, and
Chromosome Structure
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Q1) Bacteria are grown in <sup>15</sup>N (heavy)medium and then transferred to <sup>14</sup>N (light)medium and are allowed to replicate for 1 generation.The DNA is subsequently isolated and centrifuged in a CsCl<sub>2</sub> gradient to yield what type of gradient band(s)?
A)one heavy band
B)one light band
C)one half-heavy (intermediate to heavy and light)band
D)one heavy and one half-heavy band
E)one heavy and one light band
Q2) The function(s)of DNA polymerase includes
A)DNA synthesis
B)DNA proofreading
C)removes RNA primers and fills in the gaps
D)DNA synthesis and proofreading
E)DNA synthesis,DNA proofreading,and removes RNA primers and fills in the gaps
Q3) DNA helicase and topoisomerase are similar insofar as they promote the unwinding and uncoiling of DNA.
A)True
B)False
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Gene Expression at the Molecular Level
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Q1) If a DNA template strand has a sequence of 3' TACAATGTAGCC 5',then the RNA produced from it will be
A)3'TACAATGTAGCC5'
B)5'ATGTTACATCGG3'
C)5'AUGUUACAUCGG3'
D)3'AUGUUACAUCGG5'
E)3'ATGTTACATCGG5'
Q2) The amino acids of a growing polypeptide chain are held together by what kind of bond during the elongation stage of translation?
A)hydrogen
B)peptide
C)glycosidic
D)noncovalent
E)lactose
Q3) The transcription process in a eukaryotic gene directly produces A)rRNA.
B)pre-mRNA.
C)mRNA.
D)DNA.
E)protein.
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Chapter 11: Gene Regulation
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Q1) An activator is to an enhancer as a(n)_____ is to a silencer.
A)transcription factor
B)inducer
C)repressor
D)mediator
E)RNA polymerase II
Q2) Why would bacteria evolve so that the presence of tryptophan inhibits its own production?
A)Producing the enzymes that synthesize tryptophan is metabolically expensive,so it is wasteful to make them when tryptophan levels are high and its synthesis is not necessary.
B)Producing high levels of tryptophan inhibits the production of other amino acids,so inhibiting its production allows all amino acids to be synthesized at equal concentrations.
C)High levels of tryptophan causes cells to become unresponsive to external stimuli,so its production must be regulated.
D)High levels of tryptophan inhibit cellular respiration and the synthesis of ATP,so its production must be regulateD.
E)All of these choices are TRUE.
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Chapter 12: Mutation, DNA Repair, and Cancer
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Q1) Should a genetic abnormality arise,________ prevent a cell from progressing uncontrollably through the cell cycle.
A)mutagens
B)checkpoint proteins
C)UvrA-D proteins
D)growth factors
E)Ras proteins
Q2) Which of the following LEAST belongs with the others?
A)Ras protein
B)UvrA protein
C)UvrD protein
D)UvrC protein
E)DNA Polymerase
Q3) The movement of DNA polymerase continues unimpeded if a thymine dimer is present in the DNA double helix.
A)True
B)False
Q4) p53 is a tumor suppressor gene that acts as a sensor of DNA damage.
A)True
B)False
Page 14
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Chapter 13: The Eukaryotic Cell Cycle, Mitosis, and Meiosis
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Q1) How are sister chromatids connected to each other?
A)Through complementary base pairing of DNA at the centromere
B)Through centromere proteins that are attracted to each other by opposite charges
C)Through activated cyclin/CDK complexes
D)Through the centrioles
E)Through cohesin proteins
Q2) The formation of the bivalent during meiosis
A)is required for the pairing of nonhomologous chromosomes.
B)contributes to the genetic diversity of a species.
C)ensures that the resulting haploid cells will have the same combination of homologous chromosomes as the original diploid cell.
D)aids the alignment of sister chromatids in a single row along the metaphase plate.
E)occurs during meiosis I and meiosis II.
Q3) The karyotype of a normal human male would show a total of 23 pairs of homologous chromosomes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Patterns of Inheritance
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Q1) In the sweet pea crossing experiment by Bateson and Punnet,the F<sub>2</sub> generation had many more offspring with the phenotypes of purple flowers with long pollen (PL)and red flowers with round pollen (pl)than expected from independent assortment.This is because
A)in these sweet peas,there are always more PL gametes than there are pl gametes.
B)in sweet peas,the alleles for flower color and pollen shape are on the same chromosome.
C)In sweet peas,the alleles for flower color and pollen shape are next to each other on the same chromosome.
D)In sweet peas,the allele for flower color is in the nuclear genome and the allele for pollen shape is on the chloroplast genome.
E)All of these are correct.
Q2) Human males produce
A)sperm,half contain an X chromosome,half contain a Y chromosome.
B)sperm with neither an X nor a Y;gametes do not contain sex chromosomes.
C)gametes,all contain a Y chromosome.
D)sperm,all contain an X chromosome.
E)gametes,all contain both an X chromosome and a Y chromosomE.
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Chapter 15: Genetics of Viruses and Bacteria
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Q1) Bacterial plasmids
A)are essential for growth
B)can provide genes that allow the bacteria to grow and thrive in the presence of potential toxins
C)are essential for cellular respiration
D)are artificially created by humans and are present in bacteria only because humans put them there
E)are essential for chromosome replication and binary fission
Q2) Place the following events of bacterial conjugation in order from first to last.
1 - DNA replication
2 - an enzyme joins F factor DNA ends
3 - sex pilus shortens
4 - DNA transfer
5 - an enzyme cuts F factor DNA
A)1,2,3,4,5
B)3,5,4,2,1
C)5,1,3,4,2
D)3,5,1,4,2
E)3,5,1,2,4
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Chapter 16: Genetic Technology
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Q1) You analyze some DNA using an automated sequence reaction.The first peak you observe is labeled with a red fluorescent label.From this you can conclude that the most ____ base in the DNA is a _____ containing the red fluorescent label.
A)5',dideoxynucleotide
B)3',deoxynucleotide
C)5',deoxynucleotide
D)3',dideoxynucleotide
Q2) Shown below are steps in making a transgenic plant.
1)Expose plant cells to Agrobacterium tumefaciens
2)Place plant cells on selective medium
3)Transform the recombinant plasmid into Agrobacterium tumefaciens
4)Insert gene of interest into Ti plasmid
5)Place plant cells on growth medium with plant hormones
What is the correct order of these steps?
A)5 - 1 - 4 - 3 - 2
B)4 - 3 - 1 - 2 - 5
C)4 - 1 - 3 - 5 - 2
D)2 - 4 - 1 - 3 - 5
E)None of the choices shows the correct order
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Chapter 17: Genomes, Repetitive Sequences, and Bioinformatics
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Q1) How many genes are generally found for every million bases of prokaryotic DNA?
A)10
B)100
C)1,000
D)10,000
E)100,000
Q2) What must be provided to the BLAST program for identifying homologous sequences within the database?
A)nucleotide sequence
B)amino acid sequence
C)protein molecular weight
D)protein molecular weight or nucleotide sequence
E)nucleotide sequence or amino acid sequence
Q3) Genome databases have been created for all of the following model organisms except?
A)fruit fly
B)mouse
C)humans
D)Escherichia coli
E)American alligator
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Origin and History of Life
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Q1) When you arrive at your biology lab,you notice that your lab bench is set up with containers of clay,Mg<sup>2+</sup>,and nucleotides.What hypothesis do you think you will be testing during the lab,and what is the purpose of the Mg<sup>2+</sup>?
A)Formation of small organic molecules at deep sea vents;Mg2<sup>+</sup> reacts with hot H<sub>2</sub>S
B)Formation of complex organic polymers on the surface of clay;Mg<sup>2+</sup> catalyzes bond formation between nucleotides and clay
C)Formation of small organic molecules on the surface of clay;Mg<sup>2+</sup> catalyzes bond formation between nucleotides and clay
D)Formation of small organic molecules in a reducing atmosphere;Mg<sup>2+</sup> catalyzes redox reactions
Q2) The eukaryotic genome is comprised entirely of genes derived from Archean ancestors.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: An Introduction to Evolution and Population Genetics
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Q1) A gene pool is
A)the genes that are unique to a species.
B)all the genes in a population.
C)all the similar genes in a gene family.
D)a group of species that look alike but are not located in the same area at the same time.
Q2) What phenomena tends to increase genetic variation in a population?
A)Gene flow
B)Population bottleneck
C)Assortative mating
D)Genetic drift
E)Founder effect
Q3) Microevolution involves
A)changes to the number of individuals in a population.
B)changes in a population's gene pool.
C)a change in the ratio of males to females in a population.
D)the fixation of an allele over a long period of time.
Q4) A population undergoing microevolution would show Hardy-Weinberg disequilibrium.
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A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Origin of Species and Macroevolution
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Q1) Under the ___________ ,species are identified based on their unique habitat requirements.
A)phylogenetic species concept
B)biological species concept
C)evolutionary species concept
D)ecological species concept
E)general lineage concept
Q2) Dandelions,Taraxacum officinale,are plants that asexually produce fruitlike propagules.Sexual reproduction is very rare in this organism.Which species concept would be least useful in defining dandelions as a species?
A)Evolutionary lineage concept.
B)Biological species concept.
C)Ecological species concept.
D)General lineage concept.
E)All of these species concepts would be equally useful.
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Chapter 21: Taxonomy and Systematics
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Q1) Linnaeus began naming organisms that were alike using Latin names.He gave each organism two names;for example,the pigmy rattlesnake is called Sistrurus miliarius by scientists.What type of naming system is this and what group does "miliarius" designate?
A)Binomial nomenclature;genus.
B)Binomial nomenclature;species.
C)Polynomial nomenclature;genus.
D)Polynomial nomenclature;species.
Q2) Molecular clocks are based primarily on rates of A)neutral mutations.
B)favorable mutations.
C)detrimental mutations.
D)natural selection.
E)horizontal gene transfer.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a domain?
A)EukaryA.
B)Archaea.
C)Protista.
D)Bacteria.
E)Both Bacteria and Protista.
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Chapter 22: Microorganisms: The Archaea, Bacteria, and Protists
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Q1) Protists are organisms that are generally microscopic,live in moist environments,and cannot be classified in the animal,plant,or fungal kingdoms.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Archaea have very diverse environmental requirements and tolerances.From what you have learned about them,which among the following conditions or substances do ALL archaeans require for survival and reproduction?
A)oxygen
B)carbon
C)moderate pH
D)moderate temperature
E)moderate salinity
Q3) Which of the following is NOT true of horizontal gene transfer?
A)It occurs when genes are transferred from parent to progeny.
B)It increases genetic diversity for a species.
C)It has important implications for inferring phylogeny.
D)It can occur through endosymbiosis.
E)It occurs commonly in bacteria.
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Chapter 23: Plants
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Q1) Sporopollenin is
A)a tough protective covering on spores
B)pollen that is produced in a sporophyte
C)the conversion of pollen to spores
D)a capsule housing pollen
E)food stored in pollen for the growing embryo
Q2) Stamens and carpels are,in fact,modified sporangia-bearing leaves.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A prolonged period without rain is causing a major drought in the American Midwestern states.How would you expect crops to respond initially to the stress caused by the drought?
A)They will take in more carbon dioxide.
B)They will take in less carbon dioxide.
C)They will release more oxygen.
D)They will increase rates of photosynthesis.
E)They produce fewer secondary metabolites.
Q4) Flowers,fruits,and endosperm are defining characteristics of the angiosperms.
A)True
B)False
25
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Chapter 24: Fungi
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Q1) You are tutoring another student on the fungi.Fungal taxonomy is something that is very confusing to your pupil.Summarize the current standing of fungal taxonomy so your pupil has an overview of where fungal taxonomy currently stands.
A)Although it is a complicated framework,fungal taxonomy is complete and well agreed on.
B)Fungal taxonomy is incomplete,but the true fungi,nonopisthokont protists are monophyletic.
C)Fungal taxonomy is relatively simple and represents a monophyletic grouping of organisms.
D)Major fungal groups have yet to be formally nameD.
Q2) The cell walls of most fungi are composed of A)chitin.
B)cellulose.
C)dentine.
D)peptides.
E)glycerol.
Q3) Conidia are sexual spores produced by mushrooms.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: Animal Diversity: Invertebrates
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Q1) If you conducted an experiment in which you took a complete animal that had no germ layers and strained it through a fine-mesh cloth so that all its cells separated,then you placed all the cells together and they reunited to form a new animal,to which phylum would that animal likely belong? (This was an actual experiment. )
A)Platyhelminthes
B)Porifera
C)Ctenophora
D)Nematoda
E)Arthropoda
Q2) You are examining a new animal species.You find that you can pass a line through any longitudinal plane and find equal halves.Evaluate the symmetry of this animal.
A)spherical
B)radial
C)bilateral
Q3) The diversification of insects is related to the diversification of food sources in the environment.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: Animal Diversity: Vertebrates
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Q1) The fins of lobe-finned fish are supported by extensions of the skeleton and are moved by muscles within the fin whereas the fins of ray-finned fish are supported by flexible,nonskeletal elements and are moved by muscles from within the fish's body.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which is an incorrect match of taxonomic category and common name?
A)Dipnoi/lungfish
B)Actinopterygii/ray-finned fish
C)Actinistian/coelacanth
D)Sarcopterygii/sharks and rays
Q3) An organism has inherited a mutation that causes a loss of epidermal outgrowths.What do you predict would be the effect in this individual?
A)The organism would lack feathers or hair.
B)The organism would lack the lateral line system.
C)The organism would lack mesoderm.
D)The organism would lack skin glands.
Q4) Hagfish are classified as vertebrates,but they do not have a vertebral column.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: An Introduction to Flowering Plant Form and Function
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Q1) What do eudicots have that is not present in monocots?
A)parallel venation
B)leaf blade
C)netted venation
D)nodes
E)internodes
Q2) Where would one find the leaf axillary bud?
A)in the internode of the stem
B)near the terminal bud
C)between the leaf petiole and the stem
D)between the leaf petiole and the leaf blade
E)between leaflets on a compound leaf
Q3) The mesophyll of the leaf
A)is located between the leaf veins.
B)is exposed to direct sunlight.
C)is mostly along the edges of the leaf.
D)is sometimes found in roots or stems.
E)is made up of palisade and spongy parenchyma cells.
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Chapter 28: Flowering Plants: Plant Behavior
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Q1) You leave for winter vacation and forget to water your plants for two whole weeks! You also turned down the heat and closed the blinds.What hormone is most likely to be produced in response to these conditions?
A)Gibberellins
B)Abscisic acid
C)Cytokinins
D)Auxins
Q2) Which sequence of events is true about phtyochrome?
A)Red light activates phytochrome,converting it to P<sub>fr</sub>,activated P<sub>fr</sub> moves to the nucleus,then P<sub>r </sub>is a receptor for red light in the cytosol.
B)P<sub>r</sub> is a receptor for red light in the cytosol,red light activates phytochrome,converting it to P<sub>fr</sub>,then activated P<sub>fr</sub> moves to the nucleus.
C)P<sub>r</sub> is a receptor for red light in the cytosol,activated P<sub>fr</sub> moves to the nucleus,then red light activates phytochrome,converting it to P<sub>fr</sub>.
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Chapter 29: Flowering Plants: Nutrition and Transport
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Q1) A plant's ability to absorb carbon dioxide is reduced when:
A)water is plentiful.
B)temperatures are cold.
C)stomata are closed.
D)the epidermis is lacking.
E)mesophyll cells lack air spaces.
Q2) Sunlight can actually be so intense that photosynthesis can be stopped.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In tobacco plants,a H<sup>+</sup>/sugar cotransporter called NtSUT1 is required for sucrose loading into phloem.Levels of NtSUT1 are likely to be highest in what plant tissue?
A)Roots
B)Flowers
C)Leaves
D)Seeds
Q4) The plant cell can move substances into cells using proton pumps that work against a gradient.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: Flowering Plants: Reproduction
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Q1) A basic difference between self-pollination and cross-pollination is:
A)the method of pollen delivery.
B)whether insects are involved in pollination.
C)where the pollen came from.
D)whether the pollen germinateD.
E)how often pollination occurs.
Q2) You have learned that flowering plants have a dominant sporophyte and mosses have a dominant gametophyte.Having two unequal life cycle stages is called heteromorphy.Certain algae have a homomorphous relationship between their two life cycle stages.Homomorphy likely means:
A)the two life cycle stages are equal.
B)the organism is always a sporophyte.
C)the organism is always a gametophyte.
D)the organism does not undergo alternation of generations.
Q3) The primary role of the two sperm in the pollen is to:
A)release proteins for germination.
B)produce the pollen tube.
C)ensure that there will be fertilization of the egg and the central cell.
D)prevent embryo production.
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Chapter 31: Animal Bodies and Homeostasis
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Q1) Newborn humans face thermoregulatory challenges as do small mammals.One mechanism they use to generate heat is
A)shivering thermogenesis in "brown fat."
B)nonshivering thermogenesis in "brown fat."
C)convection in "brown fat."
D)evaporation in "brown fat."
E)radiation in "brown fat."
Q2) Salmon are able to live in both fresh water and salt water.Salmon are therefore: A)conformers.
B)regulators.
C)conditioned.
D)effectors.
Q3) The barrier between the intracellular and extracellular fluid compartments in an animal or plant is the: A)plasma membrane.
B)walls of capillaries.
C)nuclear membrane.
D)membrane of the endoplasmic reticulum.
E)membrane of the Golgi apparatus.
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Chapter 32: Neuroscience I: Structure, Function, and
Evolution of Nervous Systems
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Q1) An excitatory neurotransmitter will produce an ______ that will ____ the postsynaptic neuron.
A)EPSP,depolarize
B)EPSP,hyperpolarize
C)IPSP,depolarize
D)IPSP,hyperpolarize
E)IPSP,not affect
Q2) Ionotropic receptors act by activating G proteins in target cells.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Identify the key feature of the action potential that ensures it will travel only one direction.
A)the activation state of the voltage-gated Na<sup>+</sup> channel
B)the inactivation state of the voltage-gated Na<sup>+</sup> channel
C)the activation state of the voltage-gated K<sup>+</sup> channel
D)the inactivation state of the voltage-gated K<sup>+</sup> channel
E)the temporary cessation in activity of the Na<sup>+</sup>/K<sup>+</sup> pump
Q4) Cranial nerves are connected directly to the brain.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 34: Muscular-Skeletal Systems
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Q1) Muscle cells are stimulated by acetylcholine released from the terminals of A)transverse tubules.
B)motor neuron axons.
C)sensory cell axons.
D)motor neuron dendrites.
E)sensory cell dendrites.
Q2) Release of cross-bridges depends most directly on
A)calcium ions.
B)potassium ions.
C)adenosine diphosphate.
D)adenosine triphosphate.
E)creatine phosphatE.
Q3) What is the role of calcium in muscle contractions?
A)to break the cross-bridges as a cofactor in the hydrolysis of ATP
B)to bind with troponin,changing its shape so that binding sites on the actin filament are exposed
C)to transmit the action potential across the neuromuscular junction
D)to spread the action potential through the T-tubules
E)to re-establish the polarization of the plasma's membrane following an action potential
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Chapter 35: Digestive Systems and Nutrition
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Q1) Triglycerides do not need to be chemically altered or broken down to cross the intestinal epithelium.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Identify a monosaccharide that is absorbed from the digestive tract.
A)glycogen
B)starch
C)cellulose
D)glucose
E)lipoprotein
Q3) Animals have the ability to generate glucose from proteins during prolonged postabsorptive states.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Cats cannot synthesize the amino acid taurine.This means that in cats,taurine
A)is not a required nutrient.
B)is an essential amino acid.
C)must be stored in cellular compartments.
D)is not present in their normal diet.
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Chapter 36: Circulatory Systems
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Q1) As you are analyzing the blood sample of a human patient,you note an abnormally high number of erythrocytes.Predict the effects of this situation.
A)Less oxygen would reach the tissues.
B)More nutrients would reach cells.
C)Immune function would improve.
D)The ease of flow for the blood could decrease.
Q2) These are the only vertebrates in which blood flows directly from respiratory organs to body tissues without first returning to the heart.
A)Amphibians
B)Birds
C)Fishes
D)Mammals
E)Reptiles
Q3) In cardiovascular disease,"M.I" refers to A)a stroke.
B)a heart attack.
C)narrowed arteries.
D)high blood cholesterol.
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Chapter 37: Respiratory Systems
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Q1) Which vertebrates exhibit a "flow through" respiratory system?
A)mammals
B)birds
C)amphibians
D)fishes
E)birds and fishes
Q2) The main phenomenon that increases the efficiency of gas exchange in fish gills is the
A)countercurrent exchange mechanism.
B)co-current exchange mechanism.
C)high degree of oxygen saturation of water.
D)back-and-forth movement of water that maximizes oxygen uptake.
E)very high blood pressure found in the circulatory system of fishes.
Q3) Smaller mammals typically have higher ventilation rates than large mammals.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Temperature influences the solubility of gases in water.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 38: Excretory Systems and the Homeostasis of Internal Fluids
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Q1) What can be said about the transfer of fluid from the glomerulus to Bowman's capsule?
A)It results from active transport.
B)It transfers large molecules (e.g. ,proteins)as easily as small ones.
C)It is very selective as to which small molecules are transferred.
D)It is mainly a consequence of blood pressure force-filtering the fluiD.
E)It usually includes the transfer of red blood cells to the nephron tubulE.
Q2) The three main forms of nitrogenous wastes found in animals are
A)ammonia,urea,and uric acid.
B)ammonia,urea,and uracil.
C)ammonia,urea,and amino acids.
D)uracil,urea,and uric aciD.
E)amino acids,uracil,and uric acid.
Q3) The osmoregulatory and ionoregulatory problems facing a saltwater fish are
A)loss of water and loss of ions.
B)loss of water and gain of ions.
C)gain of water and loss of ions.
D)gain of water and gain of ions.
E)buildup of urea in tissues.
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Chapter 39: Endocrine Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Often it is important for health reasons to induce labor (i.e. ,smooth muscle contractions)in pregnant women.The drugs used for this purpose would most closely resemble
A)arginine vasotocin.
B)oxytocin.
C)antidiuretic hormone.
D)prolactin.
E)cortisol.
Q2) What can be said about peptide hormones?
A)They are generally water-soluble.
B)They bind membrane receptors to elicit a response on target cells.
C)They bind intracellular receptors to elicit a response on target cells.
D)They are water-soluble and bind membrane receptors to elicit a response on target cells.
E)They are lipid solublE.
Q3) The nervous system integrates with the endocrine system to control hormone secretion.
A)True
B)False
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Page 41
Chapter 40: Animal Reproduction and Development
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Q1) What allows fetal hemoglobin to remove oxygen from maternal hemoglobin?
A)Fetal hemoglobin has an extra heme group.
B)Oxygen is more soluble in fetal blood than maternal blood.
C)Fetal hemoglobin has a higher affinity for oxygen than does maternal hemoglobin.
D)Fetal blood contains twice as many hemoglobin molecules than maternal blooD.
E)Fetal hemoglobin molecules are much larger than maternal hemoglobin molecules.
Q2) The specific process by which a caterpillar becomes a butterfly is called A)epigenesis.
B)cellular differentiation.
C)gastrulation.
D)involution.
E)metamorphosis.
Q3) Damage to the seminal vesicles would prevent sperm from becoming motile. A)True
B)False
Q4) The cortical reaction prevents multiple sperm from contributing their chromosomes to the egg.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 41: Immune Systems
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Q1) What is part of the body's initial line of defense against pathogens?
A)Phagocytes
B)Mucous membranes
C)B cells
D)Memory T cells
E)Cytokines
Q2) Plasma cells
A)produce antibodies.
B)kill infected cells.
C)mature in the thymus.
D)remain present in the body at low levels after an infection.
E)secrete cytokines.
Q3) Helper T cells activate both B cells and cytotoxic T cells.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Most bacteria damage the body by infecting cells and multiplying within them.
A)True
B)False
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Page 43
Chapter 42: Animal Behavior
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Q1) Why do many animals do most of their calling at dawn and dusk?
A)Most predators are not active at those time.
B)Air is less turbulent and carries sound better.
C)Pheromones are released at dawn and dusk.
D)Animals preferentially mate at night.
E)Imprinting behaviors are better received at those timE.
Q2) A study on barn swallows showed a significant relationship between tail length in males and resistance to a parasitic mite.What concept was the study likely investigating?
A)Kin selection
B)Intersexual selection
C)Eusociality
D)Game theory
E)Intrasexual selection
Q3) Digger wasps orient using
A)pheromones.
B)sight.
C)magnetic fields.
D)smell.
E)sound waves.
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Chapter 43: Ecology and the Physical Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) All rain forests are tropical.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Temperature tends to decline with longitude.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What factor would you expect to show the largest difference between the coral reef and intertidal biomes?
A)Animal species diversity
B)Plant species diversity
C)Temperature variation
D)Water pH
E)Salinity
Q4) What is most likely to be a common adaptation of coastal plants that grow on sand dunes?
A)deep roots to extract moisture.
B)broad leaves for enhanced photosynthesis.
C)ability to use blue-green light for photosynthesis.
D)increased transpiration of water.
E)elevated growth rates.
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Chapter 44: Population Ecology
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Sample
Questions
Q1) In a survey of Dall mountain sheep in Denali National Park in Alaska,researchers found that wolves preyed primarily on the most vulnerable members of the population,the young (pre-reproductive)and the old (post-reproductive).What conclusion is best supported by this fact?
A)A program should be established to cull the sheep population.
B)Wolf predation is not dramatically reducing the sheep population.
C)The wolf population is at its carrying capacity,so it is no threat to the sheep population.
D)A program should be established to cull the wolf population.
E)Wolf predation is dramatically reducing the sheep population.
Q2) A good sampling method for quantifying the density of birds or bats is the use of A)line transects.
B)quadrats.
C)pitfall traps.
D)baited live traps.
E)mist nets.
Q3) Parasitic relationships are typically loose associations between two species.
A)True
B)False
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Page 46
Chapter 45: Community Ecology
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Q1) What is considered to be the primary method of succession in the marine intertidal zone?
A)facilitation.
B)mutualism.
C)equilibrium.
D)tolerance.
E)inhibition.
Q2) How are species-area relationships traditionally plotted?
A)on a log-linear plot
B)on a bar graph.
C)on a log-log plot
D)on a linear plot
E)as a function of distance
Q3) The moraines left when glaciers retreat are characterized by A)year-round ice.
B)low nitrogen content and little organic matter.
C)rich,fertile soil.
D)high levels of nitrogen,phosphate and carbon.
E)dense thickets of alders.
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Page 47
Chapter 46: Ecosystem Ecology
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Q1) Biogeochemical cycles involve
A)the movement of chemicals through ecosystems.
B)just those nutrients that are limiting for organisms.
C)the nutrients used solely by primary producers
D)all chemical elements plus light energy.
E)None of these choices are correct.
Q2) In aquatic ecosystems,zooplankton are consumed by phytoplankton.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Lead is known to biomagnify and accumulates in the bones of organisms.What do you think is the fate of lead in the body of a tiger that has died of natural causes?
Assume the tiger occupies the highest trophic level of its ecosystem.
A)The lead will be eliminated from the food chain because no species prey upon the tiger.
B)The lead will re-enter the food chain via decomposers breaking down the tiger's bone tissue.
C)The lead will be broken down to a non-toxic form by decomposers.
D)The lead will re-enter the food chain via evaporation and precipitation.
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Chapter 47: Biodiversity and Conservation Biology
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Q1) Which of these is the best example of an umbrella species?
A)northern spotted owl.
B)Burmese python
C)American beaver.
D)giant panda.
E)cogongrass.
Q2) The propagation of animals and plants outside their natural habitat is called
A)captive breeding.
B)reintroduction.
C)cloning.
D)rehabilitation.
E)replacement.
Q3) In the context of biodiversity,genetic diversity consists of
A)all the alleles and transcription factors within a species
B)the amount of genetic variation that occurs within and between populations
C)the amount of genetic variation that occurs in an individual
D)the amount of genetic variation that occurs between species
E)the amount of genetic variation that occurs within and between species
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