Foundations of Biology Exam Preparation Guide
Course Introduction
Foundations of Biology provides an introduction to the essential concepts and principles governing living systems. Covering topics such as cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and biological diversity, this course emphasizes how life operates at molecular, cellular, organismal, and ecosystem levels. Through lectures, laboratory exercises, and interactive discussions, students will gain a strong understanding of scientific methods, biological processes, and the relevance of biology to everyday life and society. This foundational knowledge prepares students for more advanced study in biological sciences and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Biology A Guide to the Natural World 5th Edition by David Krogh
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Science As a Way of Learning: a Guide to the Natural World
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a theory?
A)There is molecular and biochemical evidence that all organisms are related.
B)Many people believe echinacea cures their colds.
C)A boy finds a chipped rock he believes is an arrowhead.
D)Many people claim that the Earth is only 6,000 years old.
Answer: A
Q2) What was the purpose in breaking off the dust trap or tilting the flask in Pasteur's experiment?
Answer: To provide a control to show that microbes need to enter the flask from the outside for there to be growth.
Q3) A hypothesis must be supported by evidence.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) The scientist who demonstrated that the Earth moves around the sun was
Answer: Copernicus
Q5) Which level of organization is the most inclusive? Which is the least inclusive?
Answer: The biosphere is the most inclusive because it includes all the other levels.The level of the atom is the least inclusive.
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Chapter 2: Fundamental Building Blocks:
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Q1) As the difference in the electronegativity between atoms forming a chemical bond increases,the:
A)less polar the molecule.
B)more polar the molecule.
C)more stable the molecule.
D)more symmetrical the molecule.
Answer: B
Q2) An atom will react with other atoms only until:
A)it has completely filled its outermost energy level.
B)it has less stability.
C)all of its inner orbitals have been filled.
D)it forms four covalent bonds
Answer: A
Q3) Water molecules are uncharged and ________.
Answer: polar
Q4) The electrons of an atom contribute significantly to the mass of an atom.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Lifes Components: Biological Molecules
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Sample Questions
Q1) Both men and women make testosterone.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Explain how a protein ends up with its final shape.
Answer: The amino acid sequence determines how the polypeptide folds into its secondary structure,the secondary structures come together to form the tertiary structure,and if there is more than one polypeptide involved,the protein will have quaternary structure.
Q3) Name the four most important groups of biological molecules necessary for life.List one polymer and one monomer of each.
Answer: Carbohydrates,lipids,proteins,and nucleic acids are the four groups.Examples for the polymers and monomers will vary,such as starch and glucose,fats and fatty acids,hemoglobin and amino acids,DNA and nucleotides.
Q4) Polypeptides differ in their ________ and ________ of amino acids. Answer: number; kinds
Q5) Ribosomes are made up of protein and ________. Answer: RNA
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Chapter 4: Lifes Home: the Cell
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Q1) Plasmodesmata and gap junctions are similar in that they:
A)provide structural support to cells.
B)are both involved in protein synthesis.
C)form a protective lining around cells.
D)allow cells to communicate with each other.
Q2) The 1992 film Lorenzo's Oil told the true story of Lorenzo Odone who suffered from the disease adrenoleukodystrophy.This disease affected an organelle in his cells called a peroxisome.The peroxisome lacked an enzyme that controls the breakdown of a long chain fatty acid that resulted in a buildup of the fatty acid in his brain and spinal cord.The function of peroxisomes must be similar to the function of what other organelle?
A)mitochondrion
B)smooth endoplasmic reticulum
C)lysosome
D)Golgi complex
E)chloroplast
Q3) Compare and contrast cilia and flagella.
Q4) Which structures are in a plant cell and not in an animal cell? Which organelle would you find in an animal cell but not a plant cell?
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Chapter 5: Lifes Border: the Plasma Membrane
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Q1) The most up-to-date explanation of the structure of the plasma membrane is called the fluid-mosaic model.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The type of transport shown is an example of:
A)simple diffusion.
B)active transport.
C)endocytosis.
D)exocytosis.
E)facilitated diffusion.
Q3) A ________ plasma membrane allows water but not solutes to pass through it.
Q4) Signals sent between cells reach a cell at receptor proteins.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Osmosis is an example of passive transport. A)True
B)False
Q6) Water moves freely through a semipermeable membrane.
A)True
B)False
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Lifes Mainspring: an Introduction to Energy
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the energy currency of cells?
A)ATP
B)glucose
C)enzymes
D)ADP
E)vitamins
Q2) The regulation of an enzyme's activity by means of a molecule binding to a site on the enzyme other than its active site is called ________.
Q3) A ripped piece of paper will never spontaneously repair itself.Explain the law of thermodynamics that explains why this is so.
Q4) Explain why it takes energy to create starch from glucose,but it does not take energy to create glucose from starch.In your explanation,describe the law of thermodynamics that explains this,and describe how.
Q5) Explain how vitamins play a role in cellular metabolism.
Q6) It has been hypothesized that,if the sun disappeared,all life would end.Other than the obvious drop in temperature,why would humans probably die if the sun suddenly stopped shining?
Q7) A reaction that requires the input of energy to move forward is ________.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Vital Harvest: Deriving Energy From Food
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Q1) Which of the following are electron carriers produced by the Krebs cycle?
A)ATP and FADH
B)ATP and CO
C)NADH and ATP
D)NADH and FADH
Q2) Oxidation involves the ________ ,and reduction involves the
A)gain of oxygen; loss of oxygen
B)loss of oxygen; gain of oxygen
C)loss of electrons; gain of electrons
D)gain of electrons; loss of electrons
Q3) The three-carbon ________ combines with coenzyme A to form ________.
Q4) In order for a fat to be used for energy,it must first be broken down into:
A)amino acids.
B)glucose.
C)fatty acids and sugars.
D)fatty acids and glycerol.
Q5) The Krebs cycle must turn six times for each glucose molecule.
A)True
B)False
Q6) During aerobic respiration,the final electron acceptor is ________.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: The Green Worlds Gift: Photosynthesis
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Q1) In the cycling of energy and carbon through living things,plants and some other organisms use CO to make carbon-containing molecules,while other organisms break down those molecules and release CO .During this process,CO is produced during ________ and used during ________.
A)cellular respiration; photosynthesis
B)cellular respiration; photosynthesis and cellular respiration
C)photosynthesis; cellular respiration
D)photosynthesis; photosynthesis
E)cellular respiration; cellular respiration
Q2) Up until the 1930s it was assumed that the carbohydrates plants produced resulted from the combination of carbon atoms with water,and the oxygen released came from the splitting of the carbon dioxide molecule.You are a scientist testing this hypothesis.You have available to you water labeled with radioactive oxygen atoms and carbon dioxide labeled with radioactive oxygen atoms.Design an experiment to determine whether the oxygen produced during photosynthesis comes from the splitting of carbon dioxide or the splitting of water.
Q3) Plants perform only photosynthesis,not cellular respiration.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: The Links in Lifes Chain: Genetics and Cell
Division
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Q1) If a cell with two nuclei were discovered,which of the explanations below would be true?
A)Mitosis occurred without cytokinesis.
B)The cell remained in interphase continuously.
C)Meiosis and mitosis both occurred.
D)Cytokinesis occurred without mitosis.
Q2) A liver cell from a human male has:
A)22 pairs of autosomes, an X chromosome, and a Y chromosome.
B)22 pairs of autosomes and two X chromosomes.
C)46 pairs of autosomes, an X chromosome, and a Y chromosome.
D)23 pairs of autosomes and two X chromosomes.
Q3) During DNA replication,what acts as the template for synthesis of a new strand of DNA?
A)a single strand of DNA
B)a ribosome
C)a single strand of mRNA
D)a single strand of rRNA
Q4) Anaphase is characterized by the separation of sister chromatids.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Preparing for Sexual Reproduction: Meiosis
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Q1) What is the result of recombination (crossing over)during meiosis?
A)It ensures retention of genetic information and helps to preserve cell characteristics.
B)It binds homologous chromosomes tightly, so they do not accidentally separate.
C)It eliminates unused genes by removing them.
D)It allows the cell to complete DNA replication.
E)It creates chromosomes that are a new combination of paternal and maternal material.
Q2) What would the consequence be if spermatogonia were not stem cells?
A)Only a limited quantity of sperm could be produced by males, and then no more could be produced.
B)Sperm would be diploid rather than haploid.
C)Sperm would have to be produced by mitosis instead of meiosis.
D)Mature spermatids would make more sperm by meiosis.
Q3) Homologous chromosomes pair up to form a structure called a:
A)sister chromatid.
B)tetrad.
C)homologue.
D)haploid.
Q4) ________ have both male and female reproductive parts.
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Chapter 11: The First Geneticist: Mendel and His Discoveries
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Q1) What is the basis of codominance?
A)There is only one allele for a gene.
B)One allele of a gene encodes a protein, and the other allele is nonfunctional.
C)One gene has many alleles.
D)Each allele of a gene produces a protein that functions to create a trait.
E)One allele can have many effects on a phenotype.
Q2) A particular quality of an organism is referred to as a ________,each variation of which is a particular ________.
Q3) A and a are dominant and recessive alleles,respectively,of the same gene.Which genotype(s)would result in an individual with the dominant phenotype?
A)AA and aa
B)Aa and aa
C)only AA
D)AA and Aa
E)only Aa
Q4) List two characteristics of the garden pea plant,Pisum sativum,that make it an ideal organism for genetic experiments.
Q5) In the Law of ________,Mendel stated that two genetic elements are separated in gamete formation.
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Chapter 12: Units of Heredity: Chromosomes and Inheritance
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Q1) A woman is missing one of her X chromosomes.With which of the following conditions would she be diagnosed?
A)Turner syndrome
B)polyploidy
C)a chromosomal deletion
D)Klinefelter syndrome
E)cancer
Q2) Down syndrome in humans is caused by:
A)an extra X chromosome.
B)an extra y chromosome.
C)three copies of chromosome 21.
D)three copies of chromosome 13.
E)a single copy of chromosome 21.
Q3) Which of the following is an autosomal recessive disorder?
A)hemophilia
B)Huntington disease
C)Down syndrome
D)sickle-cell anemia
E)Turner syndrome
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Q4) ________ is the condition when an individual has three copies of chromosome 21.
Chapter 13: Passing on Lifes Information: Dna Structure and Replication
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Q1) The DNA of a cell is analyzed and found to contain 28 percent thymine.What percent of the DNA would by cytosine?
A)22 percent
B)28 percent
C)50 percent
D)25 percent
Q2) How is the information that specifies a protein stored in DNA?
A)in the arrangement of the sugar-phosphate chain
B)in the types of chemical bonds holding bases together
C)in the sequence of bases
D)in the orientation of the double strands
Q3) The structure of DNA allows the molecule to store information.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A mutation involving a single base pair in the genome is called a ________.
Q5) The structure of DNA allows the molecule to replicate itself.
A)True
B)False
Q7) What mechanism can introduce new genetic information into a species? Page 15
Q6) Describe what happens to the two parent strands of DNA during DNA replication.
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Chapter 14: How Proteins Are Made: Genetic Transcription, translation,
and Regulation
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Q1) Which component of transcription or translation has the anticodon?
A)mRNA
B)RNA polymerase
C)tRNA
D)rRNA
E)ribosome
Q2) What is a codon?
A)three genes in a bacterium that are all regulated together
B)a segment of a chromosome that encodes an RNA
C)three amino acids in a row in a protein
D)a three-base sequence of mRNA that codes for a specific amino acid
E)a sequence in DNA that is the binding site for RNA polymerase
Q3) During translation,the tRNA binds to the mRNA using its ________.
Q4) The larger an organism is,the larger its genome must be.
A)True
B)False
Q5) How does the protein synthesis occur?
Q7) What signals the end of the translation of an mRNA? Page 17
Q6) During translation,a tRNA with its bound amino acids is in the P site.What processes happen once a new tRNA is in the A site?
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Chapter 15: The Future Isnt What It Used to Be: Biotechnology
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Q1) What distinguishes an embryonic stem cell from a somatic cell of an adult organism?
A)Embryonic stem cells can produce more of themselves as well as produce specialized cells, but somatic cells are already specialized.
B)Somatic cells can change into specialized cells, while stem cells can only produce more of themselves.
C)Somatic cells can produce more of themselves and produce stem cells.
D)Embryonic stem cells cannot be reprogrammed, but somatic cells can be reprogrammed.
Q2) "Bt cotton" refers to cotton that:
A)has been infested with insect pests.
B)is resistant to Bacillus thuringeniensis.
C)is resistant to herbicides.
D)is resistant to insect pests.
Q3) What is the purpose of introducing recombinant DNA plasmids into bacterial cells?
Q4) Write an explanation for why a bacteriophage,a virus that infects bacterial cells,would be a good cloning vector.
Q5) How might stem cells be used to treat disease?
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Chapter 16: An Introduction to Evolution: Charles Darwin, evolutionary Thought, and the Evidence for Evolution
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Q1) Animals use auricular muscles to swivel their ears to home in on sounds.Humans have auricular muscles but we can't turn our ears.So why do humans have auricular muscles?
A)People who can wiggle their ears due to auricular muscles have a reproductive advantage.
B)They are still needed to help us swallow and retract our tongue.
C)They are vestigial structures we inherited from mammalian ancestors
D)They are needed in the development of the human embryo but not in the adult.
Q2) The scientist in Darwin's time who championed the idea of the inheritance of acquired characteristics was ________.
Q3) The length of time that Darwin's round-the-world voyage took was about
Q4) For natural selection to occur,there must be competition for resources,competition for survival,or different reproductive success.Why is this so?
A)The struggle of competition makes individuals stronger.
B)Populations evolve to preserve the species and don't change unless they must.
C)Without competition, there is no pressure to mutate.
D)Natural selection acts on the different abilities of individuals to survive and pass on their genes to the next generation.
Page 20
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Chapter 17: The Means of Evolution: Microevolution
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Q1) The formation of new species over many generations is an example of:
A)microevolution.
B)macroevolution.
C)gene pools.
D)allelic variants.
Q2) Cheetahs are not a healthy species.Several million years ago they were widespread in Africa and Asia,but their numbers fell drastically during the last ice age and again when they were hunted to near extinction in the nineteenth century.Now,they suffer from low survivorship (a large number of animals dying),poor sperm quality,and greater susceptibility to disease.Normally,an animal will reject tissue transplanted from another animal,but cheetahs will not reject tissue grafted on to them from another cheetah.What happened to the cheetah? How did their genetic variation change? Where does genetic variation ultimately come from? What mechanism can maintain and increase genetic variation in natural populations?
Q3) When a population decreases in number until a small remnant of the original population remains,a ________ has occurred.
Q4) In ________ selection,individuals with an intermediate phenotype are favored over other individuals in the population.
Q5) The original source of variation within a population comes from ________.
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Chapter 18: The Outcomes of Evolution: Macroevolution
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Q1) Temporal and behavioral isolation are examples of premating isolating mechanisms.Mechanical isolation,gametic isolation,and hybrid inviability are examples of postmating isolating mechanisms.Premating isolating mechanisms are considered much more important in keeping closely related species genetically separate than are postmating isolating mechanisms.Do you agree? Why or why not?
Q2) Which of these is a correct order of taxonomic categories from most inclusive to least inclusive?
A)kingdom, domain, phylum, order, class, family, genus
B)domain, phylum, kingdom, order, class, family, genus
C)domain, kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus
D)domain, kingdom, class, phylum, order, family, genus
Q3) Which reproductive isolating mechanism is mostly restricted to animals?
A)ecological
B)hybrid infertility
C)temporal
D)behavioral
E)geographic
Q4) The wings of a bird and the wings of a butterfly are the result of ________ evolution.
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Chapter 19: A Slow Unfolding: the History of Life on Earth
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Q1) Lobe-finned fish gave rise to tetrapods that successfully moved onto land.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The amniotic egg was important in the colonization of the land because it:
A)was deposited in water.
B)could hold multiple embryos.
C)had a hard shell and membranes to prevent drying out.
D)was easy to produce.
Q3) Because there would not have been any significant soil before significant establishment of life-forms on land,the earliest eukaryotic life-forms on land most likely were:
A)animals.
B)fungi.
C)plant-fungi combinations.
D)plant-animal combinations.
Q4) The first vertebrates to develop jaws were the: A)fish.
B)amphibians.
C)mammals.
D)reptiles.
23
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Chapter 20: Arriving Late,traveling Far: the Evolution of Human Beings
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Q1) The cranial capacity for the species Australopithecus afarensis was close to:
A)450 cubic centimeters.
B)900 cubic centimeters.
C)1,400 cubic centimeters.
D)2,000 cubic centimeters.
Q2) Australopithecus afarensis represents a hominin with both ape-like and human-like characteristics.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Most of hominin evolution occurred in Africa,but there is fossil evidence that members of the genus Homo first migrated out of Africa at least ________ years ago.
A)1)8 million
B)3 million
C)5 million
D)10 million
Q4) The hominid group of primates has existed on Earth for approximately 6-7 million years.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter
Diversity of Life 1
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Q1) Nearly half the antibiotics used in the United States go into animal feed as growth stimulants.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When a virus takes over the machinery of a cell,it forces the cell to manufacture more viral particles.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The missing label indicated by a "1" corresponds to the: A)receptor.
B)capsid.
C)RNA.
D)envelope.
Q4) Which of the following would support the hypothesis that bacteria have mutually beneficial relationships with us?
A)Bacteria derive benefit from waste materials in our intestines.
B)Mice that were made "germ free" did not absorb and metabolize nutrients as well.
C)Bacteria can metabolize food using alternate pathways.
D)Most intestinal bacteria cannot live outside the body.
25
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Chapter 22: Fungi: the Diversity of Life 2
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Q1) An organism that obtains its nutrition from dead organic matter is a:
A)parasite.
B)saprophyte.
C)neophyte.
D)phytoplankton.
Q2) Some fungi are photosynthetic.
A)True
B)False
Q3) As part of your independent study of pond water samples,you notice one of the flagellated organisms latch on to a pollen grain and eventually release spores.You initially thought you were looking at a group exclusively made of protists,but upon further observation,you realize the organism you have been observing is classified with the fungi.In which group would you place this organism?
A)basidiomycetes
B)ascomycetes
C)zygomycetes
D)chytrids
Q4) Fungi and plants have a long-term relationship in the history of life on Earth.Appraise the evidence in support of this concept.
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Chapter 23: Animals: the Diversity of Life 3
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Q1) The typical "jellyfish" demonstrates which stage of the cnidarian life cycle?
A)blastula
B)polyp
C)medusa
D)serpentine
E)sessile
Q2) Which of the following is a group of parasitic flatworms?
A)annelids
B)flukes
C)nematodes
D)leeches
E)sea anemones
Q3) Extra protective behaviors toward young may have evolved from a common ancestor in evolutionary lines leading to the:
A)mammals, turtles, and snakes.
B)crocodiles, dinosaurs, and birds.
C)turtles, snakes, and lizards.
D)amphibians, lizards, and fish.
E)dinosaurs, turtles, and lizards.
Q4) Animals that do not have a backbone are called ________.
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Chapter 24: Plants: the Diversity of Life 4
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Q1) Diminished rewards of photosynthesis in winter along with the negatives of water loss and leaf damage cause many trees to exhibit:
A)photoperiodism.
B)dormancy.
C)thigmotropism.
D)phototropism.
Q2) Long-night plants that only flower when they encounter a certain minimum number of hours of darkness are an example of: A)geotropism.
B)thigmotropism.
C)phototropism.
D)photoperiodism.
Q3) You see a plant stem wrapped around a telephone pole,spiraling upward.This plant is demonstrating: A)geotropism.
B)thigmotropism. C)phototropism.
D)photoperiodism.
Q4) Ginkgo biloba belongs in the plant group ________.
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Chapter 25: The Angiosperms: Form and Function in Flowering Plants
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Q1) The trap of a carnivorous plant such as the Venus flytrap is what plant structure?
A)stem
B)leaf
C)fruit
D)flower
Q2) The major advantage provided to plants by root hairs is:
A)needle-like points for drilling through hard or rocky soil.
B)ability to produce new taproots.
C)underground asexual reproduction.
D)greatly increasing absorptive surface area.
Q3) After pollination,sperm cells travel through the carpel in a structure called the ________.
Q4) The cotyledons of an embryo represent the first leaves of the plant.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Stomata allow carbon dioxide into a leaf and water vapor out.
A)True
B)False
Q6) ________ provides the force that moves water up xylem.
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Chapter
Integumentary, skeletal, and Muscular Systems
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Q1) Bone,cartilage,adipose tissue,and blood are all examples of:
A)epithelial tissue.
B)connective tissue.
C)muscle tissue.
D)nervous tissue.
E)small organ systems.
Q2) A stimulus producing a response that reduces the stimulus describes:
A)all stimulus-response chains.
B)positive feedback.
C)negative feedback.
D)breakdown of homeostasis.
Q3) The missing label indicated with a "1" corresponds to which tissue type?
A)epithelial
B)connective
C)muscle
D)nervous
Q4) The brain is in the ________ cavity,which is part of the larger ________ cavity.
Q5) What is the evolutionary significance of tissues,organs,and organ systems in animals?
Q6) Bone and cartilage are examples of ________ tissues. Page 30
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Chapter 27: Communication and Control 1: the Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The parts of the central nervous system are the:
A)afferent and efferent.
B)nerves and receptors.
C)brain and spinal cord.
D)autonomic and somatic.
Q2) The value of the three small bones of the middle ear is that they:
A)translate vibration into nerve impulses.
B)translate solid vibration into internal liquid vibration.
C)amplify vibrations by concentrating them into a smaller area.
D)connect the eardrum to the nerves of hearing.
Q3) Voluntary movement of the legs is controlled by the somatic nervous system. A)True
B)False
Q4) Why are sensory receptors often called transducers?
Q5) Damage to the medulla oblongata in the brain could interfere with breathing. A)True
B)False
Q6) Different parts of the tongue are responsive to different tastes.
A)True
B)False Page 32
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Chapter 28: Communication and Control 2: the Endocrine System
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Q1) What would be the logical consequences of hormones traveling via the circulatory system as compared to the action-potential-based stimuli of the nervous system? Are these consequences necessarily a disadvantage?
Q2) Follicle-stimulating hormone stimulates thyroid gland follicles to produce T .
A)True
B)False
Q3) The hormone that stimulates mammary gland development and milk production is ________.
Q4) A bunch of hormone molecules travel by one cell and have no effect but quickly stimulate the next cell.What did the second cell have that the first did not?
A)greater need for the hormone
B)a homeostatic response
C)receptors for the hormone
D)dendrites
E)larger size
Q5) Human growth hormone is composed of 191 amino acids.This would place it in which class of hormone?
Q6) Where are the parathyroid glands located?
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Q7) What gland and hormone control the release of cortisol from the adrenal cortex?
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Chapter 29: Defending the Body: the Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) B cell receptors are specific to only one antigen.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Cytokines are molecules that cut holes in bacterial membranes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What do many of the different kinds of allergies have in common?
A)They cause histamine release.
B)They result in high blood pressure.
C)They contribute to autoimmune disorders.
D)All allergens are living things.
Q4) Lymphocytes that become part of antibody-mediated immunity arm of the adaptive immune response develop in the:
A)bone marrow.
B)thymus.
C)intestine.
D)lymph nodes.
E)spleen.
Q5) What is a phagocyte?
Q6) The inflammatory response is caused by the chemical ________.
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Chapter 30: Transport and Exchange 1: Blood and Breath
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Sample Questions
Q1) Capillaries are essentially water-tight vessels,so nutrients and gases diffuse in and out,but water stays put.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the relationship of bone marrow to the cardiovascular system?
A)Bone marrow produces red blood cells.
B)Bone marrow helps keep the blood moving through the body.
C)Bone marrow produces chemicals that help carry carbon dioxide in the blood.
D)Bone marrow breaks down old blood cells.
Q3) When the thoracic cavity gets smaller,the pressure inside the lungs increases.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following may be found in blood plasma?
A)water, proteins, nutrients, and ions
B)water, proteins, and ions
C)water and proteins
D)water
Q5) What technique is used to separate blood into plasma and formed elements?
Q6) Which blood vessels carry blood away from the heart?
Q7) Which drawing,A,B,or C,depicts a formed element important in clotting?
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Chapter 31: Transport and Exchange 2: Digestion, nutrition, and Elimination
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Q1) What are the two main chemicals secreted by the gastric pits in the stomach?
Q2) About 99 percent of the fluid the kidney processes is recycled back into the body.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Why are large amounts of red meat and butter not healthy choices in the diet?
A)They contain too much protein.
B)They contain a lot of saturated fat.
C)Most people cannot digest them.
D)They contain excessive amounts of fiber.
Q4) Which of the following is a trace mineral?
A)sodium
B)sulfur
C)phosphorus
D)iodine
Q5) Which layer of the digestive tract is actually in contact with the food?
A)muscularis externa
B)submucosa
C)serosa
D)mucosa
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Chapter 32: An Amazingly Detailed Script: Animal Development
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Q1) What are the three phases of early embryonic development in animals,and what key events occur during each phase?
Q2) What are the three germ layers produced during gastrulation?
Q3) Even small concentrations of bicoid protein will cause the anterior portion of an organism to form there.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the significance of the homeobox sequence studied in animal species?
A)Certain genetic instructions for development have changed very little over time.
B)Certain genetic instructions for development have changed a great deal over time.
C)Certain genetic instructions vary based on structural differences.
D)Certain genetic instructions vary based on phyla.
Q5) The morula stage is part of which phase of embryonic development?
Q6) Homeobox sequences vary widely from one species to another.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Programmed cell death is also known as ________.
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Q8) During gastrulation in sea urchins,which forms first,the mouth or the anus?
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Chapter 33: How the Baby Came to Be: Human Reproduction
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Q1) Enzymes are carried in the ________ of a sperm.
Q2) Which is the only trimester to include both the embryo and fetal stages?
Q3) Which of the following statements concerning sperm and fertilization is correct?
A)The first sperm that approaches the egg is the one to fertilize the egg.
B)Many sperm release their enzymes before one can get through.
C)The first capacitated sperm fertilizes the egg.
D)Several sperm must contribute their DNA to the egg for fertilization to occur.
Q4) Implantation occurs in the:
A)ovary.
B)vagina.
C)uterine tube.
D)uterus.
Q5) From which structure does the corpus luteum develop?
A)oocyte
B)tertiary follicle
C)primary follicle
D)secondary follicle
Q6) Women produce oocytes from stem cells from puberty all throughout life.
A)True
B)False Page 39
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Chapter 34: An Interactive Living World 1: Populations in Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the total fertility rate number associated with zero population growth,and why?
Q2) What would be the "r" value or intrinsic rate of growth of a population that had 50 births and 40 deaths per year out of 1000?
Q3) Which of the following is true of exponential growth?
A)Exponential growth occurs when there are many environmental limits to reproduction.
B)Exponential growth resembles an S-shaped curve when plotted on a graph.
C)Exponential growth is growth that continues accelerating with time.
D)Exponential growth resembles a straight line when plotted on a graph.
Q4) Life tables are used to predict how many individuals will be born in any specific year.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which of the following might an ecologist study?
A)general nature of digestive enzymes of deer
B)genetics of mosquitoes
C)effects of increasing carbon dioxide on forest growth
D)function of the immune system in human populations
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Q6) An "S" shaped curve would be indicative of ________ growth.
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Chapter 35: An Interactive Living World 2: Communities in Ecology
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Q1) G.F.Gause's experiments with interaction of Paramecium caudatum and P.aurelia resulted in his describing the principle of ________.
Q2) Explain the differences between a primary succession and a secondary succession.Give an example of each type of succession.
Q3) An accidental spill of a pesticide locally wiped out the most abundant species of butterfly in coastal California.Most of the bird species in the area had fed on this butterfly,but they switched prey to moths,and thus the birds showed only a small decrease in population size.The butterflies were a/an:
A)keystone species, and thus they were driven to extinction very easily.
B)endangered species.
C)ecological dominant, but they were not a keystone species.
D)pioneer species.
Q4) Low genetic diversity,narrow geographic distribution of species,and few different species in an area would be correlated with low ________.
Q5) Batesian mimicry involves several harmful species evolving the same kind of characteristics.
A)True
B)False
Page 42
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Chapter 36: An Interactive Living World 3: Ecosystems and Biomes
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true?
A)The temperate deciduous forest is composed of a high diversity of deciduous trees that lose their leaves in the fall because of low soil fertility.
B)Agriculture is often not very successful in a tropical forest because of the poor soils.
C)The high species diversity of a tropical rain forest is supported by a high diversity of soil organisms, high soil fertility, and high rainfall.
D)Agriculture is often not very successful in grasslands because of the poor soils.
Q2) The Venus flytrap is a photosynthetic plant that can trap and eat small insects.The Venus flytrap is a:
A)secondary consumer.
B)producer.
C)tertiary consumer.
D)both a producer and secondary consumer.
E)both a producer and tertiary consumer.
Q3) The ozone layer is found in which layer of the atmosphere?
Q4) The tropical savannahs of Africa are a type of tropical ________.
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