Foundations of Biology Exam Bank - 2596 Verified Questions

Page 1


Foundations of Biology Exam Bank

Course Introduction

Foundations of Biology introduces students to the fundamental principles that underpin the study of life, including cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of living organisms. Emphasizing the scientific method and experimental analysis, the course explores how living systems maintain homeostasis, interact with their environments, and evolve over time. By integrating laboratory experiences and real-world applications, students gain a comprehensive understanding of both molecular and ecological processes that shape the natural world.

Recommended Textbook

Biology The Essentials 1st Edition by Marille Hoefnagels

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30 Chapters

2596 Verified Questions

2596 Flashcards

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Page 2

Chapter 1: Scientific Study of Life

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68 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is FALSE about experiments?

A)The larger the sample size the more meaningful the results.

B)The smaller the sample size the more meaningful the results.

C)An experiment is not valid without the proper control.

D)It is important to standardize aspects of an experiment which might affect the outcome,other than the independent variable.

E)All answers are correct.

Answer: B

Q2) In an experiment designed to measure the distance a golf ball is hit by clubs made of different material,the dependent variable is

A)the distance the golf ball travels.

B)the type of material the club is made of.

C)the wind direction when the experiment takes place.

D)the type of material the golf ball is made of.

E)the speed of the golf club prior to hitting the golf ball.

Answer: A

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3

Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life

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Sample Questions

Q1) The four major groups of organic compounds are

A)fats,waxes,carbohydrates,and amino acids.

B)carbohydrates,lipids,steroids,and monosaccharides.

C)lipids,fats,waxes,and steroids.

D)carbohydrates,lipids,proteins,and nucleic acids.

E)carbohydrates,proteins,amino acids,and nucleic acids.

Answer: D

Q2) A peptide bond is a covalent bond formed between amino acids.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q3) How are the monomers in nucleic acids joined?

A)peptide bonds between carbohydrates

B)peptide bonds between amino acids

C)phosphodiester bonds between amino acids

D)peptide bonds between nucleotides

E)phosphodiester bonds between nucleotides

Answer: E

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4

Chapter 3: Cells

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Sample Questions

Q1) Penicillin halts bacterial infections

A)by stimulating a person's immune system.

B)by damaging the cell membrane.

C)by interfering with the construction of the cell wall.

D)by causing the DNA of a bacterium to mutate.

E)All answers are correct.

Answer: C

Q2) What type of membrane protein is involved in passing ions and polar molecules across membranes?

A)transport proteins

B)enzymes

C)recognition proteins

D)adhesion proteins

E)receptor proteins

Answer: A

Q3) All living things can be divided into one of three domains.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

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Page 5

Chapter 4: The Energy of Life

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Sample Questions

Q1) In the section "Investigating Life: Does Natural Selection Maintain Cystic Fibrosis?",what is the dependent variable in the figure?

A)the number of defective copies of the CFTR gene in mice

B)the number of defective copies of the CFTR gene in humans

C)the amount of fluid in the intestines

D)whether or not the subjects were exposed to cholera toxin

E)whether or not the subjects were exposed to Vibrio cholera bacteria

Q2) The wood in a match is made of cellulose,a polymer of glucose molecules.When you light the match heat and light are given off,indicating that a(n)________ reaction is occurring.

A)endergonic

B)kinetic energy

C)exergonic

D)potential energy

E)equilibrium

Q3) A reason that some antibiotics harm bacteria,but not humans,is because humans have many more cells than bacteria.

A)True

B)False

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Page 6

Chapter 5: Photosynthesis

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Sample Questions

Q1) When water is in short supply,plants _____ their stomata which _____ gas exchange.

A)close,decreases

B)open,decreases

C)close,increases

D)open,increases

Q2) In the section "Investigating Life: Solar-Powered Sea Slugs",chloroplast DNA encodes less than 10% of the proteins required for photosynthesis;the remaining proteins are encoded by DNA in plant nuclei.Elysia chlorotica sea slugs are able to photosynthesize with chloroplasts from the algae they consume.Which hypothesis was tested and supported in explanation of this observation?

A)Some sea slug genes were present in chloroplast chromosomes.

B)Chloroplasts can function without some proteins involved in photosynthesis.

C)The sea slugs have to continuously consume chloroplasts to replace the older ones.

D)Some chloroplast genes were present in the sea slug chromosomes.

E)Only photosystem II is necessary for photosynthesis.

Q3) The carbon reactions of photosynthesis can occur in the day or night.

A)True

B)False

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Page 7

Chapter 6: How Cells Release Energy

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which energy pathway is used by all living organisms?

A)Aerobic respiration

B)Carbon reactions

C)Photosynthesis

D)Krebs cycle

E)Glycolysis

Q2) Which of the following molecules is the only molecule which will complete the full set of aerobic respiration stages?

A)Carbohydrates,including glucose,starch,and glycogen

B)Proteins

C)Amino acids

D)Fats

E)Nucleic acids

Q3) A variety of carbohydrates,proteins,and fats in a diet

A)provides many molecules which can enter aerobic respiration at different stages.

B)prevents production of ATP.

C)provides a mixture of molecules which slows ATP production.

D)creates an environment only conducive to fermentation.

E)All choices are correct.

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Page 8

Chapter 7: DNA Structure and Gene Function

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Sample Questions

Q1) In the section "Investigating Life: Clues to the Origin of Language",what did scientists discover was the primary cause for language disorder in the affected family?

A)The cause was one mutation in a single gene on one chromosome.

B)The disorder was not inherited but related to diet.

C)Affected family members were lacking vocal chords.

D)The cause was multiple mutations in multiple genes on one chromosome.

E)The cause was multiple mutations in multiple genes on many chromosomes.

Q2) Most viruses

A)infect only a few closely-related species.

B)infect only animal cells.

C)infect a wide variety of organisms.

D)cannot infect living cells.

E)infect only plant cells.

Q3) In prokaryotic cells,gene expression is regulated by preventing mRNA from exiting the nucleus.

A)True

B)False

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9

Chapter 8: DNA Replication and Cell Division

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Sample Questions

Q1) Before a cell divides,it must first duplicate its entire A)cytoplasmic contents.

B)cell membrane structure.

C)array of enzymes.

D)genome.

E)cell wall.

Q2) Any change in a cell's DNA sequence is a mutation.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Replication takes place during the G1 phase of interphase. A)True

B)False

Q4) Strands of DNA are joined by A)hydrogen bonds.

B)covalent bonds.

C)ionic bonds.

D)phosphodiester bonds.

Q5) A replicated chromosome consists of two sister chromatids. A)True

B)False

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Chapter 9: Sexual Reproduction and Meiosis

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Sample Questions

Q1) When a human egg ovulates,it arrests in metaphase II until it is fertilized by a sperm.How many chromosomes are present in the egg at metaphase II?

A)46

B)2 with sister chromatids still attached C)4

D)23 with sister chromatids still attached E)1

Q2) The human chromosomes that do not determine gender are A)not found in pairs.

B)the "X" and "Y" chromosomes.

C)autosomes.

D)called sex chromosomes.

E)None of the answers are correct.

Q3) In meiosis,homologous chromosomes align next to one another during A)interphase I.

B)metaphase II.

C)prophase I.

D)metaphase I.

E)prophase II.

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Page 11

Chapter 10: Patterns of Inheritance

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Sample Questions

Q1) If an individual is heterozygous for a particular trait

A)each parent contributed a different allele for that trait.

B)each parent contributed the same allele for that trait.

C)one parent contributed two different alleles for that trait.

D)one parent contributed two copies of the same allele for that trait.

E)a mutation must have occurred.

Q2) If you cross two pea plants,one with green peas and the other with yellow peas,and all of the offspring have yellow peas,you conclude

A)green is dominant over yellow.

B)yellow and green are codominant.

C)yellow is incompletely dominant over green.

D)yellow is dominant over green.

E)color is random in pea plants.

Q3) Mendel's monohybrid cross of tall parents with the genotype Tt resulted in a tall to short ratio of

A)1:1.

B)1:2.

C)2:1.

D)3:1.

E)1:3.

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Chapter 11: DNA Technology

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is used to replace faulty DNA by introducing alleles which do not result in a genetic disorder?

A)gene therapy

B)somatic cell nuclear transfer

C)genetic testing

D)preimplantation genetic diagnosis

E)All answers are correct.

Q2) Stem cell technology has the potential to

A)produce any type of cell in the body.

B)replace damaged cells after an injury.

C)replace absent or incorrect cells resulting from a genetic disease.

D)replace absent or incorrect cells resulting from a nongenetic disease.

E)All answers are correct.

Q3) Although ethically questionable,it is possible to correct a genetic disorder through gene therapy in germline cells which give rise to gametes.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 12: Forces of Evolutionary Change

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Sample Questions

Q1) The North American bison was hunted to near-extinction in the 1800s.It has since recovered,but with decreased genetic diversity.This is an example of

A)founder effect.

B)a bottleneck effect.

C)natural selection.

D)increased mutation rate.

E)artificial selection.

Q2) Evolution answers the question of how life began.

A)True

B)False

Q3) A male peacock has enormous tail feathers that it uses in mating displays to attract females.While the tail feathers are an advantage in mating,what is the potential disadvantage of these feathers to the male?

A)The feathers require a lot of energy to produce.

B)Bright feathers make males less susceptible to predation.

C)The feathers make the male more attractive to other males.

D)There are no disadvantages to having large tail feathers.

E)The large tail feathers would make it easier to fly.

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Chapter 13: Evidence of Evolution

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Sample Questions

Q1) Skeletal organization relating to limbs used for movement in vertebrates would be an example of analogous structures.

A)True

B)False

Q2) In a fruit fly embryo,the end that becomes the head contains high amounts of the protein bicoid.What may happen if you injected high levels of bicoid in the other end of the embryo?

A)It would fail to develop a head.

B)It would develop two heads.

C)Legs would grow out of its head.

D)It would not grow legs.

E)It would not have segments.

Q3) Which of the following is most likely to be preserved as a fossil?

A)a leaf or stem

B)a bone or shell

C)an organ like an eye or lung

D)a complete large organism

E)an organism that died on land

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15

Chapter 14: Speciation and Extinction

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Sample Questions

Q1) Scientists have a complete fossil record showing the evolution of horses over millions of years,with the legs becoming longer and the teeth larger,as ancestors of the modern horse adapted from living in forest to grasslands.This is an example of A)punctuated equilibrium.

B)extinction.

C)a postzygotic barrier to evolution.

D)gradualism.

E)a prezygotic barrier to evolution.

Q2) An evolutionary tree depicts species' relationships based on descent from shared ancestors.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Some flowers bloom in the spring while others bloom in the summer.This is an example of ____ reproductive isolation.

A)postzygotic

B)allopatric

C)sympatric

D)outgroup

E)prezygotic

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Page 16

Chapter 15: Evolution and Diversity of Microbial Life

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Sample Questions

Q1) Some protozoa move using false feet called A)flagellA.

B)pseudopodia.

C)cilia.

D)antennae.

E)spikes.

Q2) Chytridiomycetes produce enzymes that digest cellulose,chitin,and similar molecules.These fungi are contributing to the decline of amphibians world-wide through what mechanism?

A)by infecting their lungs

B)by digesting keratin in the frog's skin

C)by killing their eggs in the water

D)by digesting chitin in the cell wall of the frog's cells

E)by digesting cellulose in the cell wall of the frog's cells

Q3) In the ecosystems of the world,fungi act primarily as A)decomposers.

B)autotrophs.

C)primary consumers.

D)secondary consumers.

E)photosynthesizers.

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Chapter 16: Evolution and Diversity of Plants

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Sample Questions

Q1) In the section "Investigating Life: Genetic Messages from Ancient Ecosystems",which of the three plants in the figure requires water to allow sperm to swim to the egg?

A)herbs (grasses)

B)mosses

C)shrubs

Q2) A cotyledon is

A)the first leaf structure to arise in the embryo of an angiosperm.

B)a spore-like structure used for reproduction in plants.

C)the fruit produced by flowers of angiosperms.

D)a tissue fragment of tissue used for reproduction in bryophytes.

E)the zygote formed in ferns from the union of two gametes.

Q3) A plant embryo (young sporophyte)packaged with a food supply in a tough outer coat is a

A)flower.

B)pollen grain.

C)seed.

D)sperm.

E)fruit.

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Chapter 17: Evolution and Diversity of Animals

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following were the first vertebrates to appear on land?

A)amphibians

B)non-avian reptiles

C)birds

D)mammals

E)fish

Q2) An animal that maintains its body temperature by using heat generated from its own metabolism is a(an)

A)endotherm.

B)ectotherm.

C)thermophile.

D)mesophile.

E)amniotE.

Q3) Arthropods have jointed legs.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Mollusks that have two-part hinged shells are called bivalves.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 18: Population Ecology

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is NOT within the study of ecology?

A)spread of disease

B)predator-prey relationships

C)invasive plant species

D)bonds of DNA

E)land management

Q2) In a survivorship curve,a type II species,like a song bird,is a species that

A)has an equal probability of dying at any age.

B)has a strong possibility of becoming extinct in a relatively short period of time.

C)has the highest probability of dying as it reaches its maximum life span.

D)has an extremely short life span.

E)has the highest probability of dying at a very young agE.

Q3) A human population with a large percentage of post-reproductive individuals

A)is common in less-developed countries and will most likely increase in size.

B)is common in more-developed countries and will most likely increase in size.

C)is common in more-developed countries and will most likely decrease in size.

D)is common in less-developed countries and will most likely decrease in size.

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Page 20

Chapter 19: Communities and Ecosystems

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Sample Questions

Q1) The ______ cycle begins with the weathering of rock.

A)phosphorus

B)nitrogen

C)water

D)energy

E)carbon

Q2) Most of Earth's fresh water is found in lakes,ponds,and streams.

A)True

B)False

Q3) On Earth,solar energy is most intense at

A)the South Pole.

B)the North Pole.

C)60 degrees North latitude.

D)the equator.

E)60 degrees South latitudE.

Q4) Raw sewage within a water ecosystem can cause fish kills because respiration by the microbes in the sewage reduces the concentration of oxygen within the water.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 20: Preserving Biodiversity

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Sample Questions

Q1) Since the 1950s,only 1% of the ocean's large predatory fish have disappeared.

A)True

B)False

Q2) A 2004 study in the journal Nature concluded: "Many plant and animal species are unlikely to survive climate change.New analyses suggest that 15-37% of a sample of 1,103 land plants and animals would eventually become extinct as a result of climate changes expected by 2050.For some of these species there will no longer be anywhere suitable to live." What is the best explanation for this conclusion?

A)Carbon dioxide is toxic to plants.

B)No plants can survive at high temperatures.

C)Greenhouse gases will block the amount of light available for photosynthesis.

D)Temperatures will change faster than plants can adapt.

E)If animals go extinct the plants that depend on them will go extinct as well.

Q3) One important conservation tool used to restore native populations is to set aside an area and protect it from overexploitation,invasive species,and habitat destruction.

A)True

B)False

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Page 22

Chapter 21: Plant Form and Function

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Sample Questions

Q1) The type of plant cell that provides support without interfering with growth and is familiar as the "strings in celery" is a A)sieve tube cell.

B)collenchyma cell.

C)parenchyma cell.

D)sclerenchyma cell.

E)guard cell.

Q2) "K" is the chemical symbol for A)phosphorus.

B)potassium.

C)nickel.

D)krypton.

E)copper.

Q3) Nitrogen is needed in plants to manufacture A)amino acids.

B)proteins.

C)nucleic acids.

D)chlorophyll.

E)All answers are correct.

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Page 23

Chapter 22: Reproduction and Development of Flowering Plants

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Sample Questions

Q1) Pollination is the transfer of pollen from a(n)_______________ to a receptive

A)ovary;stigma

B)stigma;ovary

C)stigma;anther

D)anther;stigma

E)None of the answers are correct.

Q2) The portion of a flower that receives the pollen is the A)style. B)anther.

C)ovary. D)stigma. E)sepal.

Q3) The main pollinators of red flowers are A)beetles. B)bees. C)birds. D)moths. E)bats.

Page 24

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Chapter 23: Animal Tissues and Organ Systems

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Sample Questions

Q1) Patients with muscular dystrophy have decreased voluntary motion,while involuntary motions remain normal.Which tissues are affected by muscular dystrophy?

A)both skeletal and cardiac muscle

B)cardiac muscle only

C)skeletal muscle only

D)both cardiac and smooth muscle

E)smooth muscle only

Q2) The tissue that makes up the spinal cord and brain consists of A)neurons only.

B)platelets and neuroglia.

C)platelets only.

D)neurons and platelets.

E)neurons and neuroglia.

Q3) Unicellular organisms,such as a single-celled protist,lack tissues.

A)True

B)False

Q4) An organ is defined as consisting of two or more interacting tissues.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 24: Nervous System and the Senses

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Sample Questions

Q1) In humans,which of the following is used primarily to detect heat?

A)photoreceptor

B)pain receptor

C)thermoreceptor

D)mechanoreceptor

E)chemoreceptor

Q2) In humans,which of the following type of receptor is primarily used to detect airborne or dissolved molecules?

A)photoreceptor

B)chemoreceptor

C)thermoreceptor

D)pain receptor

E)mechanoreceptor

Q3) The layered membranes that jacket the central nervous system are the A)grey matter.

B)meninges.

C)white matter.

D)epidermis.

E)myelin sheaths.

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Chapter 25: The Endocrine System

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Sample Questions

Q1) If a person requires insulin injections they most likely suffer from

A)type 1 diabetes and hypoglycemiA.

B)type 1 diabetes and hyperglycemia.

C)type 1 diabetes only.

D)hypoglycemia only.

E)hyperglycemia only.

Q2) The hormone that stimulates glycogen to be broken down to glucose is

A)insulin.

B)calcitonin.

C)aldosterone.

D)glucagon.

E)melatonin.

Q3) Why don't patients with Graves' disease also have enlarged kidneys or livers?

A)These organs do not have the same neurons that stimulate the thyroid.

B)These organs do not have TSH receptors on their cells.

C)The blood flow to these organs is not the same as the flow to the thyroid.

D)These organs are too far from the thyroiD.

E)They cannot produce TSH.

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Chapter 26: The Skeletal and Muscular Systems

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Sample Questions

Q1) A sprain is a stretched or torn

A)ligament.

B)tendon.

C)muscle.

D)neuron.

E)vein.

Q2) The process by which an arthropod sheds its exoskeleton in order to grow is called molting.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Fermentation does not require oxygen to generate ATP and is almost as efficient as aerobic respiration in generating ATP in muscle cells.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Ligaments connect bone to bone.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Bones regulate calcium homeostasis.

A)True

B)False

28

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Chapter 27: The Circulatory and Respiratory Systems

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Sample Questions

Q1) The sinoatrial node sets the tempo of the heart beat.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The human circulatory system transports blood in a one-directional circuit throughout the body.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Birds and mammals are endotherms,meaning they spend enormous amounts of energy maintaining a constant body temperature.To meet these energy needs,birds and mammals independently evolved four-chambered hearts,completing the separation of oxygen-rich from oxygen-depleted blood.How would this maximize the amount of oxygen reaching tissues?

A)Diffusion of oxygen from oxygenated blood into tissues would be increased.

B)Diffusion of oxygen from oxygenated blood into tissues would be decreased.

C)Less energy would be required to pump oxygen into the blood.

D)Less energy would be required to pump oxygen into the tissues.

E)Less energy would be required to pump oxygen into the lungs.

Q4) The renal artery delivers blood to the pancreas.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 28: Regulating Temperature, nutrients, and Body

Fluids

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Sample Questions

Q1) In Western countries up to 10% of the population develops gastric ulcers,many due to Helicobacter pylori.One adaptation this bacteria has is to secrete urease which produces the base ammonia from urea.How would this contribute to Helicobacter pylori causing ulcers?

A)Ammonia could be used as a food source for bacteriA.

B)Ammonia would cause the ulcers.

C)Ammonia would prevent the immune system from killing the bacteria.

D)Ammonia would neutralize stomach acids allowing bacteria to grow.

E)Ammonia would kill the bacteria.

Q2) Acid reflux would occur under which of the following conditions?

A)Stomach contents leak into the duodenum.

B)Contents of the esophagus leak into the duodenum.

C)Contents of the esophagus leak into the stomach.

D)Stomach contents leak into the esophagus.

E)Contents of the duodenum leak into the stomach.

Q3) The renal vein transports oxygen-rich blood to the kidney.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 29: The Immune System

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Sample Questions

Q1) The substance that when activated triggers a chain reaction that punctures bacterial cell membranes is

A)histamine.

B)interleukin.

C)plasma.

D)complement protein.

E)epinephrinE.

Q2) Each year there are an estimated 250,000 people who could benefit from a bone marrow transplant.A major challenge is finding a donor with the matching complex of Major Histocompatibility (MHC)proteins a person needs.Why is it important that the MHC proteins match between the donor and recipient?

A)If they don't match,the donor's immune system will see the recipient's bone marrow as foreign.

B)MHC proteins make antibodies which could attack the recipient's immune system. C)MHC proteins serve as inhibitors of the immune system.

D)If they don't match,the recipient's immune system will see the donor's bone marrow as foreign.

E)MHC proteins are used by cytotoxic T cells to kill bacteria,and if they don't match they won't work properly.

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 31

Chapter 30: Animal Reproduction and Development

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

77 Verified Questions

77 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/61951

Sample Questions

Q1) A gene called the ______ must be activated at week seven of embryonic development for male sex organs and glands to develop.

A)sex-determining gene on the Y chromosome

B)GnRH

C)FSH

D)sex-determining gene on the X chromosome

E)GH

Q2) When a germ cell divides mitotically,one daughter cell remains in the seminiferous tubule wall and acts as stem cell that gives rise to cells that specialize into sperm.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Cilia sweep the released mature oocytes from ovaries into the A)cervix.

B)uterine tubes.

C)labia majora.

D)uterus.

E)vagina.

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

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